The final exam will cover approximately 80% of the hinted topics.
Good grades on assignments/quizzes can only get you so far; the final exam is crucial for distinction or high distinction.
Employers look for differentiators; GPA is key.
The last quiz is open; don't forget to complete it.
This is the last topic, closely linked with leverage.
It's the final piece of capital budgeting.
Capital budgeting involves NPV, IRR, and PI.
Two key inputs for capital budgeting:
Future cash flows (estimated in the previous lecture).
Discount rate (cost of capital or WACC, the topic of this lecture).
A proper discount rate is needed to discount future cash flows to their present value.
The appropriate discount rate reflects the cost of using capital.
If a project earns less than the cost of capital, it results in a loss.
Companies raise capital through:
Issuing shares (equity).
Borrowing money (debt).
The cost of capital stems from debt and equity.
Different projects have different risks.
Riskier projects should have higher discount rates to compensate for the increased risk.
Failing to adjust for risk would lead to only selecting low-risk projects.
The focus is on determining the cost of using different capital sources.
Debt:
Predetermined and fixed costs (face value, coupon rate).
Equity:
Ordinary shares: Dividend payments are not guaranteed, depending on the directors.
Preference shares: Dividend yield is predetermined, similar to bonds.
Investors require a return on their investment in ordinary shares (either through dividends or capital gains).
If a company cannot provide a return, investors will not buy its shares.
Dividend Discount Model and Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) can find the returns.
Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM): This model will be tested in the final exam.
Similar to a weighted average method.
For example, if a company's capital is 50% debt and 50% equity, WACC is calculated as:
WACC = (0.5 \times \text{Cost of Debt}) + (0.5 \times \text{Cost of Equity})
WACC = (E/V \times RE) + (P/V \times RP) + (D/V \times RD \times (1 - Tc))
Where:
R_E = Cost of equity (ordinary share).
R_P = Cost of preference share.
R_D = Cost of debt.
E = Market value of equity.
P = Market value of preference shares.
D = Market value of debt.
V = Total value of capital (E + P + D).
T_c = Corporate tax rate.
In Australia, the corporate tax rate is generally 30% for large companies and 25% for small companies.
Interest payments on debt are tax-deductible, which reduces taxable income.
The tax savings from interest expense effectively lower the cost of debt.
\text{After-tax cost of debt}= \text {Interest Rate} \times (1 - \text{Tax Rate})
Dividends on ordinary and preference shares are not tax-deductible.
It is important to use market values rather than book values when calculating WACC.
Market values reflect the current cost of raising capital.
Book values are based on historical data and may not be relevant.
WACC is used to evaluate future cash flows of potential projects.
Calculated using:
Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM).
Dividend Growth Model.
RE = Rf + \beta \times (Rm - Rf)
Where:
R_E = Required rate of return for equity.
R_f = Risk-free rate (typically the rate on government bonds).
\beta = Beta (measure of systematic risk).
R_m = Market return.
(Rm - Rf) = Market risk premium.
Beta: Measures systematic or market risk.
Market risk premium: Compensation for bearing systematic risk.
Constant dividend growth model.
P0 = \frac{D1}{r - g}
Where:
P_0 = Current share price.
D_1 = Expected dividend next year.
r = Required rate of return (cost of equity).
g = Constant growth rate of dividends.
Rearranging the above formula:
r = \frac{D1}{P0} + g
Choose the model based on data availability.
CAPM is used if beta, risk-free rate, and market risk premium are available.
Dividend Discount Model is used if the next period's dividend, current share price, and growth rate are available.
Be flexible and ready to use either model as questions are made to trick you in using the model that has all the available information.
CAPM incorporates risk (beta).
Relies on historical data (stock prices) to predict the future.
Dividend Growth Model implies that current share price is the present value of all future potential cash flows
More sensitive to input values like growth rate.
It is the YTM, yield to maturity and not coupon rate of its existing debt.
Yield to maturity (market yield) is the discount rate used to calculate the fair value of a bond.
Preference share dividends are fixed and can last forever, thus the model sees it as a perpetuity.
P_0 = \frac{D}{r}
Where:
D = Fixed dividend payment.
r = Required rate of return.
Rearranged Formula:
r = \frac{D}{P_0}
Apply tax rate only to debt because interest payments are tax deductible.
Equity: 50,000,000 shares outstanding, market price $80 per share, beta 1.15, market premium 9%, risk-free rate 5%.
Debt: $100,000,000 in outstanding debt, market value 110,000,000, yield to maturity 8.1%.
Tax rate: 40%.
Calculate the total market value of equity 50,000,000 \times 80 = 4,000,000,000.
Determine the capital structure weights.
Cost of Equity (CAPM): R_E = 5 + 1.15 \times 9 = 15.35 \%
Cost of Debt (After-tax): 8.1 \times (1 - 0.4) = 4.86 \% .
Calculating WACC with CAPM and After-Tax Cost of Debt:
Total Value: 4,000,000,000 + 110,000,000 = 4,110,000,000
WACC: (\frac{4,000,000,000}{4,110,000,000} \times 15.35) + (\frac{110,000,000}{4,110,000,000} \times 4.86) =13.09\% .
Different companies can have different WACCs, but why?
This is mostly determined by the risk level of the company.
The relationship between risk, cost of capital, and WACC: Higher risk leads to a higher required return and a higher WACC.
WACC represents average risk, and can only be use if:
The project has an average risk to the company.
The project will not change the company's capital structure.
Will different ways of capital raising affect your firm value?
Firm U: Unleveraged (financed entirely by equity).
Firm L: Leveraged (financed by a combination of equity and debt).
Assume both firms have the same assets, earning power, and risk profile.
Both firms have $10,000 invested in assets and EBIT = 1500.
Firm U: entirely financed by $10,000 equity.
Firm L: $4000 equity and $6000 debt, with 10\% interest rate.
Interest Expense = 6000 \times 0.1 = 600.
Item | Firm U (Unleveraged) | Firm L (Leveraged) |
---|---|---|
EBIT | $1,500 | $1,500 |
Interest Expense | $0 | $600 |
EBT (Earnings Before Tax) | $1,500 | $900 |
Tax (40%): | $600 | $360 |
Net Income | $900 | $540 |
Equity | $10,000 | $4,000 |
ROE (Return on Equity) | 900/10000 = 9 \% | 540/4000 = 13.5 \% |
Initial Observation: It seems that by generating debt you earned more than the equity.
By using dept, the shareholder ends up being pay more, so where does the other 5\% come from?
Firm U | Firm L | |
---|---|---|
Net Income | $900 | $540 |
Interest | $0 | $600 |
Total for ALL investors | $900 | $1,140 = $540 + $600 |
Tax Paid | $600 | $360 |
Tax savings, using less tax = paying debts.
Example with 50% chance firm will make money, firm will lose money, and another % chance it goes even better.
Now apply to the firm U and firm L.
If go good, U will earn 3.5 \%, but if goes bad it loses 3.5 \%, and both around the gap is 3.5 \%.
For firm L, it can earn more near 9\% ish, and lose similar amount.