Untitled Flashcards Set
1. the most commonly used powered lift trucks are the: MJ-1/B, MHU-83,
MJ-40.
2. Which part of the MJ-1/B controls the engine speed?: Hand throttle located
to the left of the steering wheel
3. changing the position of the MJ-1B accelerator pedal: varies the flow rate of
the pump in the hydrostatic drive.
4. Which part of the hydrostatic drive system is supported by the lift arms and
used to hold the munition or store to be loaded?: cradle assembly.
5. the lifting capacity of the MJ-40 lift truck is: 10,000 pounds.
6. which aircraft loading missions are supported by the MJ-40 lift truck?: B-1,
B-2.
7. Which loading controls are found only on the MJ-40 lift truck remote?: Ram
up/down.
8. What number of pounds is the lift capacity of the MHU-83 lift truck?: 7,000.
9. Which fuel type is the MHU-83 lift truck capable of using?: Diesel or JP-8.
10. the controls for adjusting the side frame width of the MHU-83 lift truck are
located at the: operator's position only.
11. Which device ensures the boom cannot fall in the event hydraulic power
is loss, a component fails, or a line breaks on the MHU-83 series lift trucks?-
: counterbalance valve.
12. The MHU-83 lift truck component used to lift the front wheels off the ground
to allow side frame width adjustment is the: lift boom.
13. The parking break on the MHU-83 lift truck is set by: closing the locking valve
then depressing the brake pedal.
14. Which variant of the MHU-83 lift truck incorporates a remote control unit
and hydraulic servicing lines/connectors to perform tasks that once necessi-
tated the use of the MJ-40 lift truck?: MHU-83 D/E
15. The purpose of the hydraulic hand pump located on the right hand side of
the MHU-83 lift truck is to: operate the hydraulic system should the engine quit
during loading operations.
16. which type of movement do bomb lift truck rollers provide during loading-
: rotation
17. how many pounds is the lift capacity of a MJ-1 lift truck with aluminum
rollers installed?: 3,000.
18. what number of pounds is the lift capacity of an MHU-83 lift truck with
aluminum rollers installed.: 7,000
19. Which bomb support rollers may be used with roller extensions?: all rollers
20. Which type of load binder is attached to bomb support beams?: Nylon
21. How many pounds is the lifting capacity of the sling assembly used on lift
trucks or forklift adapters?: 4,600
22. the proper method to install the extension lift arms or on the MJ-1A/B lift
truck is by inserting the ends of the arms into slots: in the lift arms
23. Which device must be used when forklift adapters are installed on the lift
trucks?: load binders
24. what weight is the MJ-40 and mhu-83 series lift truck limited to when using
the fork adapter assembly?: 6,000
25. which component is used in conjunction with the MHU-83 series lift truck
to load external heavy stores on a B-52?: fork adapter assembly
26. which device attach the fork adapters to the MHU-83 series lift truck's table
assembly?: two quick-release pins
27. how many inches is the maximum lifting height when the adapter assembly
is inverted on the MHU-83 series lifting truck?: 107.5
28. Pylons are attached to pylon handling adapters for mounting or removing
from aircraft with: the pylons bomb rack hooks
29. Which bomb loading adapter is used in loading internal and external stores
on the B-52?: F310707-500 bomb loading adapter
30. where does the mechanical ram assembly (MRA) receive its power?: -
through two hydraulic service lines attached to the lift trucks lift boom
31. how is the mechanical ram assembly (MRA) primarily controlled and oper-
ated?: the lift trucks remote control unit
32. how many inches high is the mechanical ram assembly (MRA) when fully
extended?: 83
33. how many pounds is the lift capacity of the mechanical ram assembly
(MRA).: 5,000
34. the maximum load capacity of a MHU-141/M trailer is: 5,500 pounds
35. what number of pounds is the maximum load capacity of an MHU-110/M
trailer: 15,000
36. How many main rail assemblies can be installed on the deck of the
MHU-110/M trailer?: six
37. How many trolleys and chocks can the MHU-110/M trailer be configured
with for round-shaped stores?: 24 trolleys and 48 chocks
38. How many hand brake lever(s) are located on the MHU-226/M munitions
handling trailer?: two
39. the lift capacity of the MHU-204/M and MHU-196/M lift trailers is: 40,000
pounds
40. To prevent personnel injury or equipment damage, each operational mode
of the MHU-204/M and the MHU-196/M lift trailers automatically shuts off
when either on or two team members press the remote stop switch or when
the: "Deadman" switch is released on the PCU
41. during tow what is the travel of the tow bar the MHU-204/M and MHU-196/M
lift trailer is limited to?: 45
42. Which MHU-204/M and MHU-196/M lift trailer components allow for precise
lateral and longitudinal positioning corrections to the lift trailers and load
during lifting operations?: X-Y pads
43. Independent operation of either lift arm mechanism on the MHU-196/M lift
trailer results in: rolling the load
44. Which MHU-196/M lift trailer component supports the lift arms under trans-
port conditions?: retractable travel locks
45. How much air pressure must be in the compressor tank before loading with
the MHU-196/M lift trailer?: 90 psi
46. how many rounds of ammunition is the capacity of the 20 mm linkless
admonition loading adapter(LALS)?: 2,100
47. which component of the linkless ammunition loading system (LALS) trans-
fers rounds into the gun systems loading adapter?: interface unit
48. which component of the A-10 ammunition loading system (ALS) interfaces
with the aircraft during ammunition loads?: GFU-7E ALA
49. during normal loading of the A-10 gun system, where does the ammunition
loading assembly (ALA) get its power?: the aircraft hydraulic system
50. how many different outputs can an A/M 32A-60 generator provide?: three
51. Which unit is the only auxiliary power unit (APU) to provide both electrical
and pneumatic power?: A/M 32A-60
52. Which A/M 32A-60 control panel has the switches and controls necessary
to operate the direct current (DC) generator and to monitor the DC voltage
output of the generator set?: DC instrument
53. What source is the output of the A/M32A-95 Gas Turbine Compressor?: -
bleed air
54. Due to the expansion properties of fuel, an unmodified A/M32A-95 fuel tank
should not be filled more than approximately how full?: 1/2
55. how many instrument/control panels must use the operator make use of
during operation of the A/M 32A-86 generator set?: three
56. Which A/M 32A-86 control panel contains the gauges and controls required
for monitoring the output voltage and amperage of the unit during operation?-
: generator control
57. Which panel of the A/M 32A-86 generator set has the circuit breaker to shut
off current flow in case of an overload?: external alternating current (AC)
58. which auxiliary power unit serves as an external power source for the MQ-1
and MQ-9 aircraft/: starter cart assembly (SCA)
59. which type of power is provided to the MQ-1 and MQ-9 aircraft by starter
cart assembly (SCA) for use in avionics systems?: 28 VDC
60. Where is the control panel of the starter cart assembly (SCA) located?: -
underneath a cover located at the top of the unit
61. An operator not required at or in the immediate vicinity of an in-use auxil-
iary power unit (APU) when they are practice loading: inert training munitions
62. Fighter aircraft may be exempted from the 50-foot distance placement
requirements of an auxiliary power unit (APU) during: combat or simulated
combat operations
63. Which air compressor may be used to operate small pneumatic tools?: -
MC-2A
64. How much air pressure is produced by the MC-2A air compressor?: 15 cfm
at 200 psi
65. how many pounds per square inch (psi) is the maximum air pressure you
may use for cleaning equipment or work areas: 30 psi
66. Before you connect or disconnect a high-pressure service hose, you must
make sure the system is not: pressurized
67. Which power output of a portable floodlight set is used for powering
common electrically powered hand tools?: 115-120 volts, alternating current
(VAC)
68. the FL-1D floodlight can serve as a ground power source for MQ-1 and
MQ-9 aircraft when used in conjunction with a/an: DCs40-75 "Sorensen" power
supply unit
69. how long can the lights of a FL-1D floodlight must be left off before you
should restart them: 10-15 minutes
70. when can you use the floodlight receptacles for external power to operate
accessories?: never, these receptacles cannot be used to operate accessories
71. in which position must the FL-1D floodlight's platform be placed during
towing?: lowered completely
72. which additional piece of aerospace ground equipment (AGE) generator
set is required during operation of the A/M 32C-10 air conditioner?: A/M 32A-60
73. How far from the supported aircraft should the A/M 32C-10 air conditioner
be positioned for optimum unit operating efficiency and safety?: 15 to 30 feet
74. Which pound per square inch (psi) is the maximum amount of bleed-air
pressure that may be applied to the A/M 32C-10 air conditioner?: 45 psi
75. How many operators are required to be present during the operation of the
-10 air conditioner?: two
76. which additional piece of aerospace ground equipment (AGE) is required
during the operation of the polyalphaolefin (PAO)/ air cooling cart?: none, it is
a self-contained system
77. how many fluid temperature modes are available on the polyalphaolefin
(PAO)/ air cooling cart?: two
78. Which action must be ensured before making or breaking a connection
between the polyalphaolefin (PAO)/air cooling cart and the aircraft?: system is
depressurized
79. the cool-air hatch on the MJ-2A hydraulic test stand is located on the unit,
but which location on the unit: top
80. Which panel(s) of the MJ-2A hydraulic test stand has most of the operating
controls?: main panel
81. If hydraulic fluid comes in contact with your eyes during a MJ-2A hydraulic
test stand operation, what should you do?: flush eyes with water and seek
medical attention
82. what reason is necessary for making sure aircraft fittings are clean before
attaching hydraulic servicing hoses?: dirty fittings can introduce contaminants to
the hydraulic systems causing damage to valves and lines
83. Which aircraft(s) require aircraft armament system personnel to use the
self-generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC)?: F-22 only
84. when using the self-generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC) why is it
important that waste gasses are not allowed to accumulate in an enclosed
space?: excess oxygen can pose a fire or explosion hazard
85. why is it important to prevent venting the self-generating nitrogen ser-
vicing cart (SGNSC) storage tanks is an enclosed space without sufficient
ventilation?: large volumes of nitrogen can displace the oxygen in the air if there is
inadequate ventilation
86. which precaution must be taken prior to attempting to loosen fittings, or
removing tubes or hoses when using the self-generating nitrogen servicing
cart (SGNSC)?: you must vent the pressure from that part of the system through
the appropriate valve
87. What range in feet is the height of the B-1 maintenance stand?: 3 to 10
88. the maximum static load the B-1 maintenance stand can sustain is: 500
pounds
89. what rang in feet is the platform height of the B-4 maintenance stand?: 3
to 7
90. the hand pump for raising the B-4 maintenance stand is located on the: -
platform near the ladder
91. which maintenance stand is described as a scissors-type, with a vari-
able-height platform, and mounted on a long-legged caster-equipped base?-
: B-5
92. What range in feet is the platform height of the B-5 maintenance stand?: 7
to 12
93. which maintenance stand is described as a nonadjustable 4-foot platform
with wheels on the back legs: C-1
94. which maintenance stand can be used independently, or can be in stalled
as an extension on the b-1 maintenance stand?: C-1
95. the split-deck maintenance platform is currently being used with which
aircraft?: B-1B
96. the lifting capacity of the davit on the split-deck maintenance platform
is: 250-500 pounds
97. If the split-deck maintenance platform's tape switches detect an obstruc-
tion during an operation, what will the switches stop on the unit?: forward drive,
platform extension, and lowering capabilities
98. What number of pounds is the total lift capacity of the split-deck mainte-
nance platform?: 2,000
99. during the operator's pre-use inspection of aerospace ground equipment
(AGE), what action is required by the operator to ensure proper unit opera-
tion?: cycle the unit completely through its range of capabilities
100. which Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form(s) is/are used to annotate
any defects you may find on your aerospace ground equipment (AGE)?: AFTO
Forms 244 and 245
101. High-explosive (HE) bombs are classified according to their: kill mecha-
nism or designed use
102. the weight range of general purpose bombs currently in production is: -
250 to 2,000 pounds
103. Which bomb category is not suitable for target penetration?: blast bombs
104. Which class of bombs is used against targets such as reinforced concrete
structures and bridges?: penetration
105. the primary target for shaped charge munitions is: Heavily armored targets
106. the primary kill mechanism of kinetic energy penetrator is its: force of
impact
107. Even though kinetic energy penetrator munitions contain no explosive
they must be handled carefully because: many of their delivery systems contain
explosives or other hazardous components
108. the design of nuclear bombs is similar to which type of general-purpose
(GP) bomb?: high-drag
109. the fragmentation bomb is made of: spirally wound spring steel.
110. how many inches is the suspension lug spacing for conventional bombs
weighing up to 1,000 pounds: 14
111. what is the purpose of the bomb arming wire assembly?: keep the fuze
from arming until the bomb is released
112. in case of a malfunction which bomb marking might require documenta-
tion on the AF Form 2434?: lot number and serial number
113. Which color band is painted around high explosive (HE) munitions?: yel-
low
114. Smoke munitions have which color band painted around them?: -
light-green
115. what secures the aft cover to the stabilizer housing of the BSU-49 AIR
bomb?: two spring-loaded latch assemblies
116. the air inflatable retarder (AIR) is inflated by: ram air entering through four
inlets in the retarder itself.
117. the BLU-109/B is what type of bomb: penetration
118. Which of these bombs is designed with only a tail fuze well?: BLU-109/B
119. the BLU-113A/B penetrator bomb weighs: 4,500 pounds
120. the BLU-113A/B serves as the warhead for the: GBU-28A/B and B/B.
121. Standard laser guided bombs have their pulse code set by load crews or
aircrew members: using dials located on the under side of the seeker head
122. the enhanced guided bomb unit (EGBU) is a hybrid system using both
a: laser and global positioning system and inertial navigation guidance system
123. the MK 84 2,000 pound general purpose (GP) bomb or the BLU-117 GP
bomb is used as a warhead by the: GBU-10
124. All GBU-12 models use which bomb as a warhead?: MK-82
125. the GBU-15`s powered control surfaces are located on the: trailing edge of
the wings
126. what is the weight of the GBU-24A/B: 2,000 pounds
127. the GBU-24A/B uses what warhead: BLU-109/B
128. what is the weight of the GBU/EGBU-28: 5,000 pounds
129. Which model of the Joint Direct Attack Munition (JDAM) family of bombs
uses the MK-83 and BLU-110 as a warhead?: GBU-32
130. the GBU-39 weighs: 250 pounds
131. a complete cluster bomb unit (CBU) consists of a quantity of small
submunitions and a: dispenser
132. Which cluster bomb unit (CBU) consists of a SUU-65/B dispenser and a
submunition payload of kinetic energy penetrators (KEP)?: CBU-107
133. Which SUU-64 and SUU-65 dispenser component cuts the dispenser into
three longitudinal sections removing the tail section?: linear shape charges
134. Which submunition is designed as an anti-tank mine?: BLU-91/B
135. Which submunition is an anti-personnel munition?: BLU-92/B
136. Which submunition incorporates a spin rocket to more effectively distrib-
ute skeet munitions over a wide area?: BLU-108/B
137. Which cluster bomb unit (CBU) contains kinetic energy penetrators (KEP)
arranged into "packs" of varying sizes?: CBU-107
138. which of these is a 500-pound practice bomb?: BDU-50
139. You can reinstall the safety clip in which BDU-33B/B configuration?: those
equipped with a CXU-2/B spotting charge
140. the B61 suspension lug spacing is how many inches?: 30
141. the strike enabling plug is on which subassembly of the B61 bomb: pre-
flight
142. When the B61 nuclear bomb is released the actuator lug located on the
tail assembly is pulled up,: firing the bomb's spin rocket
143. the time-to-arm (TA) and time-to- burst (TB) settings on the B83 are behind
the: access door on the aft assembly
144. How are bomb fuzes classified?: Position and method of arming.
145. A typical operating range for time fuzes is how many seconds?: 5 to 92
146. Proximity fuzes will produce airbursts at heights between how many feet
above ground?: 20 to 125
147. the M904 mechanical nose fuzes' firing delay time begins after: the bomb
has impacted
148. what must you do when changing the arming time settings on the M905
tail fuze?: depress the timing lock
149. which of these is the only safety device on the FMU-124A/B fuze?: pin
150. what supplies electrical power to operate the FMU-139/B fuze?: FZU-48/B
initiator
151. the FZU-39/B proximity sensor has how many selectable height range
functions?: 10
152. which of these bombs may use the FMU-143/B, A/B fuze?: BLU-109 and
GBU-24
153. which initiator provides electrical power to the FMU-152 tail fuze?: -
FZU-55/B
154. which component inside the guidance window of the AGM-65 must be
checked before loading: humidity indicator
155. After loading and during flight the AGM-65 missile is held on the LAU-88
launcher by the: shear pin
156. the AGM-65 can be configured with two warheads, a 125 pound shaped
charge or a: 300 pound blast/fragmentation warhead
157. which component protects the pins of the umbilical connector on the
AGM-65 until just before loading: shielding cap
158. which aircraft carries the AGM-88 high-speed anti-radiation missile
(HARM)?: F-16
159. the AGM-158 uses what class of warhead: 1000 pound
160. Which AGM-86 components are the attach points to mate it to its ejector
rack?: forward and aft clevises
161. The AGM-86 warhead's arming device can be safed: either electrically or
mechanically
162. the AIM-9 L/M series of missile are designed to be launched from what
kind of launchers?: rail-type
163. Which AIM-9 L/M section contains the four canards?: Guidance and control
section
164. Which missile component is the main connection between the AIM-9 L/M
missiles and the aircraft?: an umbilical cable
165. How are the guidance canards of the AIM-9 L/M missiles controlled?: elec-
trically
166. the AIM-9 L/M warhead is normally detonated upon impact with a target,
but may also be detonated when there's a near miss by the: influence fuze/target
detector
167. Which AIM-9X component provides enhanced maneuverability over older
types of Sidewinders missiles by deflecting rocket motor thrust to aid in
turning?: jet vein control
168. the device that provides connection between the umbilical and the
launcher umbilical of the AIM-120 is a/an: buffer connector
169. what is displayed on the indicator if the rocket motor's arm/fire device
(AFD) is in the safe condition?: a white "S" on a green background
170. Rockets that are used during combat are classified as: service rockets
171. which type of rocket warhead produces blast, fragmentation, and mining
effects?: high explosive
172. which type of rocket is used for the target marking or incendiary effects?-
: white phosphorus
173. when can you remove the shielding tape from a rocket motor?: immediate-
ly before loading
174. Which ammunition round component expands in and seals the barrel's
chamber to keep gas from escaping to the rear when the cartridge is fired?: -
cartridge case
175. Which ammunition component actually starts the chain reaction to fire
the round?: primer
176. what does the term pyrophoric mean?: Small particles may self-ignite when
exposed to the friction and heat of a munitions strike.
177. which precautions must you take to prevent exposure to harmful radia-
tion when working around unfired munitions containing depleted uranium?: -
there are no additional protective measures required beyond those standards for all
munitions
178. a normal round with the primer and propellant removed is called a: dummy
round
179. what distinguishes 20mm high explosive incendiary with tracer (HEIT)
rounds from high explosive incendiary (HEI) rounds?: ring of red Ts stenciled
around the projectile
180. Which type of projectile has a hollow body?: Target practice (TP)
181. You must be extremely careful when handling linked ammo to keep
from: getting cut or pinched
182. Ammunition should never be needlessly subjected to sunlight because-
: prolonged exposure to heat will affect its ballistics
183. what are the two basic types of impulse cartridges?: explosive and non-ex-
plosive
184. which of these impulse cartridges is not case grounded?: BBU-63/B
185. Which impulse cartridge component normally provides a ground for the
electrical firing circuit?: case
186. what do you use to place scribe markings on the closure disc of an
impulse cartridge?: indelible ink marker
187. How many insertion markings constitute the end of service life for im-
pulse cartridges that are used in breeches with spring-loaded firing pins?: 10
188. which action do you take if the timer knob of a LUU_2/B flare is acciden-
tally pulled during ground handling and the timer cycle starts?: forcibly hold
the time-and release mechanism on the flare housing to prevent ejection of the timer
and release mechanism; then tape the mechanism on the flare housing and mark if
for disposal once the timer completes its cycle
189. on the LUU-2A/B flare what limits timer travel between safe and 500
feet?: pin
190. a F-15 and F-16 aircraft uses which type of flare magazines?: MJU-12
191. what aircraft uses the MJU-17 flare magazines?: F-15 and F-16
192. How many flare magazines can be loaded on the F-22?: 6
193. the F-22 countermeasure stations are located just: aft of the left and right
side weapons bays
194. How many RR196/AL chaff bundles may be loaded in the ALE-52 maga-
zines used in the F-22?: 18
195. AN/ALE-50 decoys can be deployed by the: F-16 and the B-1
196. How many AN/ALE-50 decoys can the B-1 carry?: 8
197. the heavy stores adapter beam can carry how many ADM-160B miniature
Air Launched Decoys (MALD)?: 8
198. which navel mine uses the MK 82 GP bomb as its warhead?: MK 62
199. all navel mine casings are painted: gold
200. which aircraft is capable of deploying the MK 65 quickstrike mine?: B-52H
only
201. Before operating bomb bay door systems for check out, you must make
sure: all personnel and equipment have been cleared from the area of operation
202. the noise intensity of jet aircraft is greatest: in the rear of the engines at an
angle of 45° on either side.
203. What symptom can a person expect to experience before suffering organ
damage from radio frequency radiation exposure?: there are no symptoms
before damage occurs
204. which Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form has an entry identifying the
types and quantities of munitions loaded on an aircraft?: 781A, maintenance
discrepancy and work document
205. what information is the topic of Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91-201?: ex-
plosive safety standards
206. from which side of an aircraft do you fight a fire when possible?: upwind
207. general purpose bombs normally detonate within how long after being
engulfed in flames?: two to four minutes
208. Personnel line badges are classified as what type of foreign object dam-
age (FOD)?: metals
209. what is the foreign object damage (FOD) walk?: An organized inspection
and physical pickup of foreign objects
210. Anytime you see magnesium, how will it always appear?: primed and top
coated due primarily to its low resistance to corrosion
211. Aluminum's formation of a tightly adhering oxide film: provides increased
resistance under mild corrosive conditions
212. How does corrosion appear on nickle- or chrome-plated steel surfaces?-
: small spots on the plated surface
213. Piano hinges are prime spots for corrosion because they are natural traps
for dirt, salt, and moisture and: dissimilar metal contact between the steel pin and
the aluminum hinge tangs
214. an important part of corrosion control is detecting and treating the cor-
rosion when it is in what stage?: earliest
215. Which cockpit panel allows electrical power to be distributed throughout
the entire aircraft electrical system?: aircraft power panel
216. the energizing and de-energizing of bomb rack solenoids at selected
weapons stations normally is performed through the: main armament control
panels
217. What panel works in conjunction with the special weapons control panels
to facilitate all of the functions needed to release a special weapon?: main
armament control panel
218. What display or panel contains lights to advise you or the pilot of the
status of all aircraft systems?: master caution light panel
219. which aircraft use integrated keyboards to select information for display
on the video displays?: B-52, B-1B, B-2, and AC-130
220. Basic system functions contained in the analog stores management
system are arming,: release, and weapons selection
221. how would you best describe the typical analog system?: hardwired
222. what component of an analog system is responsible for distributing
power to the aircraft's main armament circuit breaker panel?: primary bus
223. in digital stores management systems, what component acts as a multi-
plex terminal for signals being sent to or coming from weapons stations?: in-
terface unit
224. The functions of a digital stores management system are initiated by
the: operator
225. which aircraft employs all three stores management systems (SMS)?: -
B-52
226. in a fault isolation system using built-in-test (BIT) checks, the results of
the test should narrow a fault down to a: subsystem or system
227. Radar navigation systems associated with the weapons systems normal-
ly facilitate the computerized release of onboard: missiles
228. which mechanical bomb rack is the only one presently in use?: B-11
229. During release, what component of the B-11 bomb shackle caught by the
arming wire?: arming hook
230. Which gas-operated bomb racks are nuclear capable?: MAU-12, BRU-44,
and BRU-47.
231. How many arming solenoids are normally found on gas-operated bomb
racks?: three
232. Nuclear capable bomb racks are equipped with: an in-flight safety lock.
233. What permits the release units used on cluster bomb racks to be released
manually?: trip screw
234. the conventional bomb module may be installed in which B-1B weapons
bay?: forward, aft, and intermediate
235. Rotating of the bomb module swing arms is enabled by: cartridge-powered
actuators
236. How many MK-82 500-pound bombs can be carried by the bomb rack
assembly?: 20
237. Which rotary launcher is used in the B-52?: Common strategic rotary
launcher (CSRL).
238. the multipurpose rotary launcher is controlled: electrically
239. During ground rotation of the multipurpose rotary launcher rotation,
speed is: 1/8 normal rotation speed
240. When power is initially applied, a loaded triple ejector rack (TER) will step
to the: first loaded station position of the unit
241. When BDU-33s are carried on a triple ejector rack (TER), to provide
alignment of the bomb, you must install a: yoke adapter
242. the BRU-57 bomb rack is electrically connected to the aircraft by a: -
MIL-STD-1760 cable
243. Which munition is the BRU-61/A bomb rack capable of carrying?: GBU-39
244. How many munitions is the BRU-61/A bomb rack capable of carrying?: -
four
245. How are the pitch valves set on a BRU-61/A bomb rack?: manually
246. What does the aft pivot point provide on a jettisonable pylon?: initial
nose-down pitch
247. which operating mode of a LAU-106 is always a manual process?: latching
248. What launcher is the only pneudraulically operated missile launcher?: -
LAU-142
249. what system is the only missile system supported by the LAU-142 missile
launcher?: AIM-120
250. Normally, what do you use to anodize and coat launcher rail surfaces?: -
molybdenum disulfide (dry lube)
251. on the LAU-88 missile launcher, what component keeps the shear pin
from backing out during flight?: lock nut
252. on AIM-9 and AIM-120 capable rail launchers, what component prevents
the missile from leaving the rail if the rocket motor fires inadvertently?: an
in-flight lock (IFL)
253. What missile launcher is the only rail launcher that automatically engages
the missile umbilical during loading?: modified M299
254. Built-in-test (BIT) units in rail launchers automatically check for: proper
voltage tolerances in the launcher electrical units
255. what number is the rocket capacity of the LAU-131 rocket launcher?: 7
256. what mechanism within the LAU-131's tubes restrains the rockets against
normal flying loads?: Detents
257. How is the LAU-131 rocket pod safed?: Electrically with a shorting pin.
258. How many flares are contained in the SUU-25 flare dispenser?: 8
259. What aircraft-generated computer signal allows the AIM-120 missile to
begin its launch cycle?: release consent
260. What armament system circuits are normally disabled during selective
jettison?: mechanical fuzing
261. which aircraft does not have pylon jettisoning capability?: F-16
262. how often are operational and functional checks normally done?: 30 or 60
days
263. who has the authority to change time constraints of operational/function-
al checks?: local commander
264. A rotary-based gun system allows for a much higher rate of fire over either
revolver-based or non-rotating-based multi-barrel systems because all steps
of the firing cycle take place: simultaneously
265. which condition is detrimental effect of barrel heating?: excessive barrel
wear and warping
266. to complete the firing cycle, recoil operated guns use force applied to
the: face of the bolt
267. In gas-operated, single-barrel automatic guns, the force from the expan-
sion chamber is transferred to the bolt face by the: operating rod
268. How is the GAU-2 automatic gun driven?: electrically
269. What number of rounds is the maximum firing rate of the GAU-2 automatic
gun?: 4,000 rounds
270. on the M61A1 rotary gun, the position of the bolt on the rotor is deter-
mined by the bolt shaft engaging the: main cam and clearing cam path
271. what component of the M61A1 rotary gun breech bolt makes electrical
contact with the primer of the round?: firing pin
272. What number of rounds is the firing rate of the 25 millimeter (mm) gun?-
: 1,800 (+-100) rounds per minute (rpm)
273. the ammunition storing and handling system (ASHS) moves at what
speed compared to the gun?: 1/2 the gun speed
274. What number of rounds is the firing rate of the GAU-8/A 30 millimeter
(mm) gun when it is installed in the A-10 aircraft?: 3,900 rpm
275. Into how many parts is the GAU-8/A 30 millimeter (mm) gun rotor assem-
bly divided?: two
276. What GAU-8/A 30 millimeter (mm) gun component secures each barrel
into the rotor?: interrupted locking lugs
277. During the GAU-30 millimeter (mm) gun firing cycle, what should happen
when the cocking pin is released from the cam at the sear point?: the firing pin
spring drives the firing pin forward to detonate the primer of the round
278. which direction does the M240 machine gun eject expended brass?: bot-
tom
279. the M240 machine gun operates under the: open bolt concept
280. how many steps are there in the M240 machine gun cycle of operation?: 8
281. the GAU-18 machine gun is operated: by recoil
282. which direction does the GAU-18 machine gun eject expended brass?: -
bottom
283. What ammunition feed system is used to supply the M2A1 40 mm auto-
matic gun?: clip
284. What M137A1 105 millimeter (mm) howitzer assembly component acts as
a secondary stop in case of recoil mechanism failure?: wedge-shaped bosses
285. what component of the M137A1 105 millimeter (MM) howitzer is com-
posed of the sleigh and recuperator assemblies?: recoil mechanism
286. Depending on the particular system, the ammunition boxes of the link-fed
system normally hold: 100 to 4,500 rounds
287. How are the ammunition cans of link-fed systems normally loaded and
unloaded?: by hand
288. which aircraft does not make use of a linear linkless ammunition storage
system?: F-16
289. how many different gun gas scavenge designs are used on aircraft?: two
290. what aircraft makes use of a movable door covering the firing port for the
projectiles to exit the aircraft?: F-22
291. what two types of operational/functional checks are used for gun sys-
tems?: mechanical and electrical
292. When using the boresight method of harmonization, the boresight target
normally is placed: 1,000 inches from the nose wheel axle
293. Where is the adjustment made on the gun when boresighting?: gun
mounts
294. the use of ground interphones during aircraft functional check is: manda-
tory
295. In addition to a 5-gallon container of clean water and butyl rubber gloves,
what must be available at a loading site where practice bombs with CXU-1/B
spotting charges are being loaded?: a protective mask
296. If you find breech cartridge retainers installed, safety wired, or sealed this
certifies the: impulse cartridges are not installed
297. in what loading step is the serviceability of the munition loading stations
determined?: aircraft preperation
298. Which load crew performs aircraft safe for maintenance procedures dur-
ing a dual loading operation (DLO)?: both
299. During a concurrent servicing operation, what servicing action cannot be
performed while refueling?: oxygen
300. During a concurrent servicing operation, a concurrent servicing supervi-
sor (CSS) is not required when: fueling is not being performed