Biochemistry
Question | Answer |
In eukaryotes, the electron transport chain takes place in the ____ | inner mitochondrial membrane |
In prokaryotes, the electron transport chain takes place in the ____ | cell membrane |
A ____ sense RNA strand is itself an mRNA and can be transcribed directly into DNA | positive |
DNA is replicated in the ____ | S phase |
The number of complete sets of chromosomes in a cell is referred to as the ____ of a cell | ploidy |
Female chromosome pairs are ____ | XX |
Male chromosome pairs are ____ | XY |
[Image: Glycine.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Glycine |
[Image: Alanine.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Alanine |
[Image: Valine.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Valine |
[Image: Leucine.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Leucine |
[Image: Isoleucine.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Isoleucine |
[Image: Methionine.png]>This amino acid is ____ | Methionine |
[Image: Proline.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Proline |
[Image: Phenyalanine.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Phenylalanine |
[Image: Tryptophan.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Tryptophan |
[Image: Serine.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Serine |
[Image: Threonine.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Threonine |
[Image: Tyrosine.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Tyrosine |
[Image: Cysteine.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Cysteine |
[Image: Asparagine.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Asparagine |
[Image: Glutamine.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Glutamine |
[Image: Lysine.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Lysine |
[Image: Arginine.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Arginine |
[Image: Histidine.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Histidine |
[Image: Aspartate.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Aspartate |
[Image: Glutamate.png]> This amino acid is ____ | Glutamate |
[Image: Indole.png]> This is the ____ group | indole |
[Image: Imidazole.png]> This is the ____ group | imidazole |
[Image: Guanidinium.png]> This is the ____ group | guanidinium |
Amino acids are simple organic compounds containing both a/an ____ group and a/an ____ group | carboxyl (—COOH); amino (—NH2) |
____ is the only amino acid that is not chiral | Glycine |
The stereochemistry of the α-carbon in all eukaryotic amino acids (except glycine) is ____ | L |
All chiral amino acids except cysteine have ____ configuration | (S) |
L and D indicate ____ configuration S and R indicate ____ configuration | relative; absolute |
Amphoteric molecules can act as either a/an ____ or a/an ____ | base; acid |
The pH at which half of the species is deprotonated is called the ____ | pKa |
A low pH will cause amino acids to be ____ | full protonated |
____ is the pH at which an amino acid is in zwitterion form | Isoelectric point |
A/an ____ is when all charges cancel out, so the molecule is neutral | zwitterion |
The isoelectric point formula when there is no side chain is: ____ | [Image: pI No Side Chain.png]> |
The isoelectric point formula when there is a neutral side chain is: ____ | [Image: pI Neutral Side Chain.png]> |
The isoelectric point formula when there is a basic side chain is: ____ | [Image: pI Basic Side Chain.png]> |
The isoelectric point formula when there is an acidic side chain is: ____ | [Image: pI Acidic Side Chain.png]> |
At the midpoint of a titration, the pH = ____ | pKa |
At the equivalence point of a titration, pH = ____ | pI |
The ____ structure of proteins is the linear sequence of amino acids in a peptide | 1° |
The ____ structure of proteins is the local folding of neighboring amino acids including α-helices and β-pleated sheets | 2° |
The ____ structure of proteins is the 3-D shape of a single polypeptide chain | 3° |
The ____ structure of proteins is the interaction between peptides in proteins that contain multiple subunits | 4° |
____ are clockwise coils around a central axis and are a common ____ protein structure | α-helices; 2° |
____ are rippled strands that can be parallel or antiparallel and are a common ____ protein structure | β-pleated sheets; 2° |
____ has a rigid cyclic structure and can interrupt 2° protein structure | Proline |
____ is when a protein (or nucleic acid) loses its 4°, 3°, and 2° structures due to breaking non-covalent interactions | Denaturation |
The ____ pushes hydrophobic R groups to the interior of a protein, which ____ entropy of the surrounding water molecules | hydrophobic effect; increases |
____ occur when two cysteine molecules are oxidized and create a covalent bond between their thiol groups | Disulfide bonds |
____ are complex proteins, such as hemoglobin, consisting of amino acids combined with other substances | Conjugated proteins |
A/an ____ is the attached molecule in a conjugated protein and can be a metal ion, vitamin, lipid, carbohydrate, or nucleic acid | prosthetic group |
[Image: Peptide Bonds.png]> Peptide bonds link the ____ of one amino acid to the ____ of the next amino acid | α-carboxyl group; α-amino group |
____ are reusable catalysts that are unchanged by the reactions they catalyze | Enzymes |
Exergonic reactions ____ energy | release |
Endergonic reactions ____ energy | require |
A/an ____ catalyzes REDOX reactions that involve the transfer of electrons | oxidoreductase |
A/an ____ moves a functional group from one molecule to another | transferase |
A/an ____ catalyzes cleavage with the addition of H2O | hydrolase |
A/an ____ catalyzes cleavage without the addition of H2O and without the transfer of electrons | lyase |
A/an ____ catalyzes the interconversion of isomers | isomerase |
A/an ____ joins two large biomolecules, often of the same type | ligase |
A/an ____ catalyzes the hydrolysis of fats | lipase |
A/an ____ adds a phosphate group from ATP to a substrate | kinase |
A/an ____ removes a phosphate group | phosphatase |
A/an ____ adds a phosphate group from an inorganic phosphate like HPO4 to a substrate | phosphorylase |
A Michaelis-Menten curve is ____ | hyperbolic |
____ is the substrate concentration that gives you a reaction rate that is halfway to Vmax | Km |
____ is the maximum rate at which an enzyme can catalyze a reaction | Vmax |
The Michaelis–Menten equation is: ____ | [Image: Michalis Menten Equation.png]> |
Cooperative enzymes display a ____ curve | sigmoidal |
____ is when the binding of the first molecule of B to A changes the binding affinity of the second B molecule, making it more or less likely to bind | Cooperative binding |
The ____ is the site of catalysis | active site |
The ____ states that the enzyme and substrate are exactly complementary and fit together like a key into a lock | lock and key theory |
The ____ states that the enzyme and substrate undergo conformational changes in order to interact fully | induced fit theory |
A/an ____ is a metal cation that is required by some enzymes | cofactor |
A/an ____ is an organic molecule that is required by some enzymes | cofactor or coenzyme |
____ of an enzyme is when an enzyme is inhibited by high levels of a product from later in the same pathway | Feedback inhibition |
A/an ____ binds at the active site and thus prevents the substrate from binding | competitive inhibitor |
A/an ____ binds only with the enzyme-substrate complex | uncompetitive inhibitor |
A/an ____ binds at the allosteric site, away from the active site | noncompetitive inhibitor |
In competitive inhibition: Vmax: ____Km: ____ | has no change; goes up |
In uncompetitive inhibition: Vmax: ____Km: ____ | goes down; goes down |
In noncompetitive inhibition: Vmax: ____Km: ____ | goes down; has no change |
[Image: Lineweaver Burk.png]> Lineweaver-Burk Plot: X-intercept = ____Y-intercept = ____Ratio indicated by the slope = ____ | -1/Km; 1/Vmax; Km/Vmax |
[Image: Lineweaver Burk Competitive .png]> This graph shows the activity of a/an ____ | competitive inhibitor |
[Image: Lineweaver Burk Uncompetitive.png]> This graph shows the activity of a/an ____ | uncompetitive inhibitor |
[Image: Lineweaver Burk Noncompetitive .png]> This graph shows the activity of a/an ____ | noncompetitive inhibitor |
Lineweaver-Burk plots are described as double reciprocal plots because the X-intercept is ____ and the Y-intercept is ____; both of them reciprocals | -1/Km; 1/Vmax |
An irreversible inhibitor is any inhibitor that ____ to the active site of some enzyme, thus eliminating its activity | covalently binds |
____ is an irreversible form of enzyme inhibition that occurs when an enzyme binds a substrate analog and forms an irreversible complex | Suicide inhibition |
A/an ____ binds at the allosteric site and induces a change in the conformation of the enzyme so the substrate can no longer bind to the active site | allosteric effector |
A/an ____ is an allosteric regulator that is also the substrate | homotropic effector |
A/an ____ is an allosteric regulator molecule that is different from the substrate | heterotropic effector |
____ is the chemical addition of a phosphoryl group (PO3-) to an organic molecule | Phosphorylation |
____ is the chemical addition of a carbohydrate | Glycosylation |
____ are precursors to an enzyme | Zymogens |
The Michaelis-Menten reaction scheme is: ____ | [Image: Michaelis Menten Reaction Scheme.jpg]> |
____ compose the cytoskeleton, anchoring proteins, and much of the extracellular matrix | Structural proteins |
____ convert chemical energy into mechanical work by the hydrolysis of ATP | Motor proteins |
A/an ____ is any protein that acts as an agent to bind two or more molecules together | binding protein |
____ allow cells to bind to other cells or surfaces | Cell Adhesion Molecules |
____ are calcium dependent glycoproteins that hold similar cells together | Cadherins |
____ have two membrane-spanning chains and permit cells to adhere to proteins in the extracellular matrix | Integrins |
____ allow cells to adhere to carbohydrates on the surfaces of other cells and are most commonly used in the immune system | Selectins |
____ are used by the immune system to target a specific antigen, which may be a protein on the surface of a pathogen or a toxin | Antibodies |
____ are protein molecules that span across the cell membrane allowing the passage of ions from one side of the membrane to the other | Ion channels |
Ungated ion channels are ____ open | always |
____ open within a range of membrane potentials | Voltage-gated channels |
____ open in the presence of a specific binding substance, usually a hormone or neurotransmitter | Ligand-gated channels |
Enzyme-linked receptors participate in cell signaling through extracellular ligand binding and initiation of ____ | 2nd messenger cascades |
____ detect molecules outside the cell then activate internal signal transduction pathways and, ultimately, cellular responses | G protein-coupled receptors |
[Image: G-Protein Coupled Receptor.png]> The 1st messenger in the above example of a G-protein coupled receptor is ____ | epinephrine |
The ____ is the convention that is used to designate the configurations of chiral carbons | D and L system |
____ are "hydrates of carbon" | Carbohydrates |
____ are stereoisomers that are non-superimposable and are mirror images of each other | Enantiomers |
A chiral molecule is a type of molecule that ____ an internal plane of symmetry and has a ____ mirror image | lacks; non-superimposable |
____ are stereoisomers that are non-superimposable and are not mirror images of each other | Diastereomers |
____ only come in pairs because they are mirror images while there can be many more than two ____ depending on the number of stereocenters | Enantiomers; diastereomers |
____ are a subtype of diastereomers that differ at exactly one chiral carbon | Epimers |
____ are a subtype of epimers that differ at the anomeric carbon | Anomers |
A/an ____ is a carbon that, in the acyclic form, is not a stereocenter, but once it takes on the cyclic form, it becomes a stereocenter | anomeric carbon |
____ is when straight-chain carbohydrates form into rings | Cyclization |
A/an ____ is an anomeric carbon with the group pointing down | α-anomer |
A/an ____ is an anomeric carbon with the group pointing up | β-anomer |
[Image: Haworth Projection 2.png]> This is an example of a/an ____ | Haworth projection |
____ is the spontaneous shift from one anomeric form to another | Mutarotation |
____ are single carbohydrate units | Monosaccharides |
Reducing sugars have a/an ____ group attached to the ____ | -OH; anomeric carbon |
____ are sugars that have had a hydroxyl group replaced with a hydrogen atom | Deoxy sugars |
In a ____, a sugar reacts with a carboxylic acid or one of its derivatives to form an ester | sugar esterification |
____ is the basis for building complex carbohydrates and requires the anomeric carbon to link to another sugar | Glycoside formation |
____ form as a result of a glycosidic bond between two monosaccharide subunits | Disaccharides |
Lipids are ____ in water and ____ in nonpolar organic solvents | insoluble; soluble |
Phospholipids contain a ____ head and ____ tails | hydrophilic; hydrophobic |
A saturated fatty acid has ____ double bonds in its tail and is ____ fluid | no; less |
____ are phospholipids that contain a glycerol backbone | Glycerophospholipids |
____ contain a sphingosine backbone | Sphingolipids |
A/an ____ is a type of sphingolipid found in animal cell membranes, especially in the membranous myelin sheath that surrounds some nerve cell axons | sphingomyelin |
____ are a subtype of glycolipids and contain a sphingosine, fatty acid, and a sugar unit | Glycosphingolipids |
A/an ____ is a molecule composed of a glycosphingolipid with one or more sialic acids linked on the sugar chain | ganglioside |
____ are steroid precursors | Terpenes |
Steroids contain ____ cyclohexane ring(s) and ____ cyclopentane ring(s) | 3; 1 |
The precursor to steroid hormones is ____ | cholesterol |
____ are lipid compounds that are signaling molecules and regulate cAMP levels | Prostaglandins |
The four fat soluble vitamins are ____, ____, ____, and ____ | A; D; E; K |
____ are the storage form of fatty acids | Triacylglycerols |
____ are cells used for storage of triacylglycerol deposits | Adipocytes |
____ are unesterified fatty acids that travel in the bloodstream | Free fatty acids |
____ is the ester hydrolysis of triacylglycerols using a strong base like sodium or KOH | Saponification |
A/an ____ can dissolve a lipid-soluble molecule in its fatty acid core | micelle |
____ are polymers of nucleotides | Nucleic acids |
The primary structure of nucleic acids is the ____ | linear sequence of nucleotides |
The secondary structure of nucleic acids is made up of ____ | interactions between bases within the same molecule |
The tertiary structure of nucleic acids is made up by the ____ | location of the atoms in 3D space |
The quaternary structure of nucleic acids is made up of ____ | interactions of nucleic acids with other molecules |
____ is a polymer made up of monomers called nucleotides. Long strands form a double helix which runs antiparallel | Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) |
DNA is ____ charged due to its phosphate backbone | negatively |
A ____ is a 5-carbon sugar plus a nitrogenous base and no phosphate groups | nucleoside |
A ____ is a nucleoside with 1 to 3 phosphate groups added | nucleotide |
The ____ states that DNA is a double-stranded, helical structure | Watson-Crick model |
The nitrogenous bases in DNA and RNA include: ____________ ________ | Guanine; Cytosine; Adenine; Thymine (DNA only); Uracil (RNA only) |
The pyrimidines in DNA and RNA have ____ ring(s) | 1 |
The purines in DNA and RNA have ____ ring(s) | 2 |
The DNA double helix has a diameter of ____ angstroms | 20 |
The DNA backbone is held together by ____ | phosphodiester bonds |
Adenine and Thymine are held together by ____ hydrogen bonds Guanine and Cytosine are held together by ____ hydrogen bonds | 2; 3 |
____ states that, in DNA, the number of purines must equal the number of pyrimidines | Chargaff’s rules |
DNA ____ is the process of producing an identical replica of a DNA molecule | replication |
____ unwinds the DNA double helix | Topoisomerase |
____ breaks the hydrogen bonds between nitrogenous bases in order to separate the DNA strands | Helicase |
Single strand binding protein binds to single-stranded DNA and serves to ____ | prevent annealing of single-stranded DNA into double-stranded DNA |
____ catalyzes the synthesis of the RNA primer | DNA primase |
____ are short RNA nucleotide sequences that are complementary to the ssDNA and allow DNA replication to start | RNA primers |
____ adds nucleotides to the growing strand during DNA replication | DNA polymerase |
____ are short, newly synthesized DNA fragments that are formed on the lagging template strand during DNA replication | Okazaki fragments |
____ joins DNA strands together by catalyzing the formation of phosphodiester bonds | DNA ligase |
____ develop from mutations of proto-oncogenes and promote cell cycling. They may lead to cancer | Oncogenes |
____ code for proteins that reduce cell cycling or promote DNA repair | Tumor suppressor genes |
____ proofreads its work and excises incorrectly matched bases | DNA polymerase |
Mismatch repair of DNA occurs during ____ using the genes MSH2 and MLH1 | G2 phase |
____ fixes helix-deforming lesions of DNA such as Thymine dimers | Nucleotide excision repair |
____ fixes nondeforming lesions of the DNA helix such as cytosine deamination by removing the base, leaving an apurinic/apyrimidinic (AP) site | Base excision repair |
Humans have ____ pairs of chromosomes, for a total of ____ chromosomes | 23; 46 |
____ packages DNA into a smaller volume to fit in the cell | Chromatin |
____ are at the ends of chromosomes and contain high GC-content to prevent unraveling of the DNA | Telomeres |
____ are located in the middle of chromosomes and hold sister chromatids together until they are separated during anaphase in mitosis | Centromeres |
A/an ____ is one in which the centromere is located near one end of the chromosome and not in the middle | acrocentric chromosome |
Prokaryotes have ____ origin(s) of replication and eukaryotes have ____ origin(s) of replication | 1; multiple |
____ is DNA composed of nucleotides from two different sources, created in only in labs | Recombinant DNA |
____ states that DNA is transcribed to RNA, which is translated to protein | The central dogma |
The genetic code is considered ____ because multiple codons can code for the same amino acid | degenerate |
Initiation (start) Codon: ____ Termination (stop) Codons: ____, ____, ____ | AUG; UAA; UGA; UAG |
The start codon ____ codes for ____ | AUG; Methionine |
The ____ in a codon can wobble and break standard Watson-Crick rules but still code for the intended protein | 3rd base |
A/an ____ is a genetic mutation where a single nucleotide base is changed, inserted or deleted from a sequence of DNA or RNA | point mutation |
A/an ____ has no effect on protein synthesis | silent mutation |
A/an ____ produces a premature stop codon | nonsense mutation |
A/an ____ produces a codon that codes for a different amino acid | missense mutation |
A/an ____ results from a nucleotide addition or deletion, and changes the reading frame of subsequent codons | frameshift mutation |
RNA uses a ____ sugar and uses ____ instead of ____ | ribose; uracil; thymine |
____ is transcribed from DNA in the nucleus and then travels into the cytoplasm for translation | Messenger RNA |
____ brings amino acids to the ribosome and recognizes the codon on the mRNA using its own anticodon | Transfer RNA |
____ makes up the ribosome and is enzymatically active | Ribosomal RNA |
____ is the first step of gene expression, in which a segment of DNA is copied into RNA by the enzyme RNA polymerase | Transcription |
A/an ____ is a segment of DNA wound in sequence around eight histone protein cores | nucleosome |
____ is the process in eukaryotic cells where primary transcript RNA is converted into mature RNA | Post-transcriptional modification |
____ are regions of a gene that code for proteins | Exons |
____ are segments of a DNA or RNA molecule which do not code for proteins | Introns |
____ is a regulated process during gene expression that results in a single gene coding for multiple proteins | Alternative splicing |
The purpose of the 5’ cap and poly-A tail on mRNA is that they ____ | protect mRNA for translation |
A/an ____ is a segment of prokaryotic mRNA that encodes several proteins | polycistronic gene |
Ribosomes are factories where ____ occurs | translation (protein synthesis) |
In translation, a succession of ____ add their amino acids to the polypeptide chain as the mRNA is moved through the ____ one codon at a time | tRNAs; ribosome |
Translation occurs in the ____, at the ____ | cytoplasm; ribosomes |
The three steps in translation are: ____________ | Initiation; Elongation; Termination |
In prokaryotic translation, the 30S ribosome subunit attaches to the ____ and scans for a start codon | Shine-Delgarno sequence |
A Svedberg is a measure of ____; the tendency of particles to settle out of a fluid | sedimentation time |
Prokaryotic ribosomes are ____ Svedberg units | 70 |
Eukaryotic ribosomes are ____ Svedberg units | 80 |
In translation elongation, the new tRNA enters the ribosome at the ____ site | A |
In translation, ____ will occur when the codon in the A site is a stop codon | termination |
____ are modifications that occur to a protein after it has been fully formed in translation | Post-translational modifications |
Eukaryotes have ____ chromosome(s) Prokaryotes have ____ chromosome(s) | multiple; one |
A/an ____ is one half of a chromosome | chromatid |
A/an ____ is a deoxyribonucleic acid molecule with part or all of the genetic material of an organism | chromosome |
____ are found in prokaryotic DNA and contain groups of genes that are regulated together | Operons |
An operon ____ is the binding site for RNA polymerase, the enzyme that performs transcription | promoter |
An operon ____ is a short region of DNA that lies partially within the promoter and interacts with a repressor that controls the transcription of the operon | operator |
An operon ____ turns the operon off | repressor |
An operon ____ turns the operon on | activator |
An operon ____ is a small molecule that triggers expression of a gene or operon | inducer |
An inducible operon under normal conditions is ____ | bonded to a repressor |
A repressible operon under normal conditions will ____ | proceed with transcription |
____ are proteins that help turn specific genes "on" or "off" by binding to nearby DNA | Transcription factors |
____ are regions of DNA that initiate transcription of a particular gene | Promotors |
____ are sequences of DNA that function to enhance transcription | Enhancers |
____ increases the accessibility of chromatin and allows DNA binding proteins to interact | Histone acetylation |
DNA methylation ____ the accessibility of chromatin and stops DNA binding proteins from interacting | decreases |
The ____ contains genes that code for proteins in charge of transporting lactose into the cytosol and digesting it into glucose | Lac operon |
The Lac operon is a/an ____ operon | inducible |
The genes in the lac operon will be expressed if the following two conditions are met: ____ ____ | Lactose is available; Glucose is low |
____ binds to the lac repressor and makes it change shape so the repressor detaches from the DNA | Allolactose |
____ stimulates the production and release of cortisol | ACTH |
____ signals liver, muscle, and fat cells to take in glucose from the blood | Insulin |
____ causes the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose | Glucagon |
____ is a stress hormone released in response to stress and low blood-glucose concentration | Cortisol |
A/an ____ is a basic nitrogen atom with a lone pair of electrons | amine functional group |
An amide functional group has a/an ____ group linked to a/an ____ atom | carbonyl; nitrogen |
____ compounds are hydrocarbon compounds containing carbon and hydrogen joined together in straight chains, branched chains, or non-aromatic rings | Aliphatic |
Peptide Bonds are formed when the ____ of an amino acid nucleophilically attacks the ____ of another amino acid | N-terminus; C-terminus |
In a peptide bond, rotation of the C-N bond is restricted due to ____ | resonance |
Polypeptides are made up of multiple ____ linked by ____ | amino acids; peptide bonds |
____ and ____ are two common methods of synthesizing amino acids in the lab | Strecker synthesis; Gabriel synthesis |
Strecker synthesis generates an amino acid from a/an ____ | aldehyde |
____ generates an amino acid from potassium phthalimide, diethyl bromomalonate, and an alkyl halide | Gabriel synthesis |
[Image: Glycosidic Bond Alpha (1).png]> This is a/an ____ glycosidic bond | alpha |
[Image: Glycosidic Bond Beta (1).png]> This is a/an ____ glycosidic bond | beta |
Ghrelin will ____ hunger | increase |
Leptin will ____ hunger | decrease |
____ is an ester hydrolysis of triacylglycerols using a strong base like sodium or KOH | Saponification |
A/an ____ dissolves nonpolar organic molecules in its interior, and can be solvated with water due to its exterior shell of hydrophilic groups | micelle |
The ____ accounts for the presence of lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates in a dynamic, semisolid plasma membrane that surrounds cells | fluid mosaic model |
Lipids move freely in the plane of the cell membrane and can assemble into ____ | lipid rafts |
A/an ____ is a specific membrane protein that maintains the bidirectional transport of lipids between the layers of the phospholipid bilayer in cells | flippase |
Proteins and carbohydrates may move within the membrane, but are slowed by ____ | their relatively large size |
Triacylglycerols and fatty acids act as precursors to ____ | phospholipids |
____ are the same as triacylglycerols except one of the fatty acids is replaced with a phosphate group | Glycerophospholipids |
____ contributes to membrane fluidity and stability | Cholesterol |
At low temperatures, cholesterol will ____ fluidity | increase |
At high temperatures, cholesterol will ____ fluidity | decrease |
____ in cell membranes provide waterproofing and defense for the cell | Waxes |
____ are a type of integral protein that spans the entire membrane | Transmembrane proteins |
Embedded proteins are embedded in the ____ | cell membrane |
____ have one or more segments that are embedded in the phospholipid bilayer | Integral proteins |
Carbohydrates in cell membranes can form a protective ____ coat | glycoprotein |
Extracellular ligands bind to membrane receptors and ____ | initiate a response within the cell |
____ in cell membranes prevent solutes from leaking into the space between cells via a paracellular route, but do not provide intercellular transport | Tight junctions |
____ in cell membranes allow for rapid exchange of ions and other small molecules between adjacent cells | Gap junctions |
____ bind adjacent cells by anchoring to their cytoskeletons | Desmosomes |
____ is the pressure that needs to be applied to a solution to prevent the inward flow of water (prevent osmosis) | Osmotic pressure |
____ is when the molecule moves down its concentration gradient, so no energy is required | Passive transport |
Simple diffusion is when molecules passively move form an area of ____ concentration to an area of ____ concentration until equilibrium is achieved | high; low |
____ is a form of passive transport and describes the diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane | Osmosis |
____ is a form of passive transport that uses transport proteins to move impermeable solutes across the cell membrane | Facilitated diffusion |
____ requires energy in the form of ATP or an existing favorable ion gradient (an ion other than the solute being transported) | Active transport |
In ____, the energy needed for the transport is derived directly from the breakdown of ATP | primary active transport |
____ harnesses the energy released by one particle going down its electrochemical gradient to drive a different particle up its gradient | Secondary active transport |
The term antiport is used during membrane transport when two particles flow in ____ | opposite directions |
The term symport is used during membrane transport when two particles flow in the ____ | same direction |
____ is a method of engulfing material into the cells | Endocytosis |
Pinocytosis is the ingestion of ____ via vesicles | liquids |
Phagocytosis is the ingestion of ____ | large solid materials |
____ is the process by which the contents of a cell vacuole are released to the exterior | Exocytosis |
Membrane potential is maintained by the ____ and by ____ | Na+/K+ pump; leak channels |
The resting potential of most cells is between ____ and ____ mV | -40; -80 |
The Nernst equation is used to calculate ____ in non-standard conditions | cell potential |
The outer mitochondrial membrane is highly permeable to ____ and ____ | metabolic molecules; small proteins |
The ____ mitochondrial membrane surrounds the mitochondrial matrix, where the citric acid cycle produces electrons used in the ETC | inner |
____ are transport proteins that move glucose across the cell membrane | Glucose transporters |
GLUT-2 is found in the ____ | liver |
GLUT-4 is found in ____ and ____ | adipose tissue; muscle |
____ is process in which one glucose molecule is broken down to form two molecules of pyruvic acid | Glycolysis |
Metabolic Pathways Overview ____ | [Image: Metabolism Overview.png]> |
[Image: Glycolysis.png]> ____ converts glucose to pyruvate and ____ converts pyruvate to glucose | Glycolysis; gluconeogenesis |
[Image: Glycogenesis.png]> ____ converts glucose to glycogen and ____ converts glycogen to glucose | Glycogenesis; glycogenolysis |
[Image: Fate of Pyruvate 1.png]> The 3 compounds that pyruvate will convert to are ____, ____, and ____ | acetaldehyde; lactate; acetyl-CoA |
[Image: Fate of Pyruvate 3.png]> When pyruvate converts to acetaldehyde, the next step converts acetaldehyde to ____ | ethanol |
[Image: PDC.png]> The protein complex that performs pyruvate decarboxylation and converts pyruvate to acetyl-CoA is ____ | pyruvate dehydrogenase complex |
[Image: Acetyl CoA.png]> When pyruvate undergoes pyruvate decarboxylation, it is converted to ____ | Acetyl-CoA |
[Image: Acetyl CoA Fate.png]> Acetyl-CoA feeds into the following two processes: ____ ____ | Citric acid cycle; Fatty acid synthesis |
[Image: Fatty Acid Synthesis (1).png]> The process that converts acetyl-CoA to a fatty acid is ____ | fatty acid synthesis |
[Image: Beta Oxidation.png]> The process that converts fatty acid to Acetyl-CoA is ____ | β-Oxidation |
[Image: NH3.png]> Amino acids undergo degradation and send ____ to the urea cycle | NH3 |
[Image: Electron Transport Chain.png]> The citric acid cycle sends electrons to the ____ | electron transport chain |
Glycolysis is the process in which one glucose molecule is broken down to form ____ | two molecules of pyruvic acid |
Glucose has ____ carbons and pyruvate has ____ carbons | 6; 3 |
The three major regulatory enzymes in glycolysis are: ____________ | Hexokinase; Phosphofructokinase (PFK); Pyruvate kinase |
[Image: Glycolysis Hexokinase (3).png]> The above reaction is from glycolysis The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is ____ | hexokinase |
[Image: Glycolysis Phosphoglucose Isomerase.png]> The above reaction is from glycolysis The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is ____ | phosphoglucose isomerase |
[Image: Glycolysis Phosphofructokinase (1).png]> The above reaction is from glycolysis The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction ____ | phosphofructokinase (PFK) |
[Image: Glycolysis Aldolase.png]> The above reaction is from glycolysis The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is ____ | aldolase |
[Image: Glycolysis Aldolase 2.png]> The above reaction is from glycolysis The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is ____ | aldolase |
[Image: Glycolysis Glyceraldehyde 3-Phospate Dehydrogenase.png]> The above reaction is from glycolysis The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is ____ | glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase |
[Image: Glycolysis Phosphoglycerate Kinase.png]> The above reaction is from glycolysis The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is ____ | phosphoglycerate kinase |
[Image: Glycolysis Phosphoglycerate Mutase.png]> The above reaction is from glycolysis The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is ____ | phosphoglycerate mutase |
[Image: Glycolysis Enolase.png]> The above reaction is from glycolysis The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is ____ | enolase |
[Image: Glycolysis Pyruvate Kinase (1).png]> The above reaction is from glycolysis The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is ____ | pyruvate kinase |
[Image: Glycolysis Triose Phosphate Isomerase.png]> The above reaction is from glycolysis The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is ____ | triose phosphate isomerase |
Glycolysis requires ____ ATP and produces ____ ATP | 2; 4 |
Glycolysis requires ____ NAD+ and produces ____ NADH | 2; 2 |
[Image: Glycolysis Hexokinase Produces.png]> The above reaction is from glycolysis This reaction requires ____ and produces ____ | ATP; ADP |
[Image: Glycolysis Phosphofructokinase Produces.png]> The above reaction is from glycolysis This reaction requires ____ and produces ____ | ATP; ADP |
[Image: Glycolysis Phosphoglycerate Kinase Produces.png]> The above reaction is from glycolysis This reaction requires ____ and produces ____ | ADP; ATP |
[Image: Glycolysis Pyruvate Kinase Produces.png]> The above reaction is from glycolysis This reaction requires ____ and produces ____ | ADP; ATP |
[Image: Glycolysis Glyceraldehyde 3-Phospate Dehydrogenase Produces.png]> The above reaction is from glycolysis This reaction requires ____ and ____ and it produces ____ | Pi; NAD+; NADH |
[Image: Glycolysis Enolase Produces.png]> The above reaction is from glycolysis This reaction produces ____ | H2O |
Gluconeogenesis is the process in which ____ is converted to ____ | pyruvic acid; glucose |
[Image: Gluconeogenesis Pyruvate Carboxylase.png]> The above reactions are from gluconeogenesis The enzymes involved in these two reactions are ____ and ____ | pyruvate carboxylase; phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK) |
[Image: Gluconeogenesis Enolase.png]> The above reaction is from gluconeogenesis This reaction requires ____ | H2O |
[Image: Gluconeogenesis Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase.png]> The above reaction is from gluconeogenesis The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction ____ | fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase |
[Image: Gluconeogenesis Glucose 6-phosphatase.png]> The above reaction is from gluconeogenesis The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction ____ | glucose 6-phosphatase |
The two major regulatory enzymes in gluconeogenesis are ____ and ____ | pyruvate carboxylase; fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase |
[Image: Gluconeogenesis Pyruvate Carboxylase Activation.png]> The above reactions are from gluconeogenesis The conversion of pyruvate to PEP is activated by ____ | acetyl-CoA |
In gluconeogenesis, the combination of ____ and ____ is used to circumvent the action of pyruvate kinase | pyruvate carboxylase; phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase |
The ____ is a series of reactions that oxidizes acetyl-CoA | citric acid cycle |
[Image: Citrate Synthase.jpg]> The above reaction is from the citric acid cycle The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is ____ | citrate synthase |
[Image: Acpnitase.jpg]> The above reaction is from the citric acid cycle Name the enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is ____ | aconitase |
[Image: Isocitrate Dehydrogenase (1).jpg]> The above reaction is from the citric acid cycle The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is ____ | isocitrate dehydrogenase |
[Image: Alpha-Ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase Complex.jpg]> The above reaction is from the citric acid cycle The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is ____ | α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex |
[Image: Succinyl CoA Synthetase.jpg]> The above reaction is from the citric acid cycle The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is ____ | succinyl CoA synthetase |
[Image: Succinate Dehydrogenase.jpg]> The above reaction is from the citric acid cycle The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is ____ | succinate dehydrogenase |
[Image: Fumarase.jpg]> The above reaction is from the citric acid cycle The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is ____ | fumarase |
[Image: Malate Dehydrogenase.jpg]> The above reaction is from the citric acid cycle The enzyme that catalyzes this reaction is ____ | malate dehydrogenase |
[Image: Citrate Synthase Reactants.jpg]> The above reaction is from the citric acid cycle This reaction requires ____ and ____ and produces ____ and ____ | oxaloacetate; acetyl-CoA; citrate; CoA |
[Image: Isocitrate Dehydrogenase Reactants.jpg]> The above reaction is from the citric acid cycle This reaction requires ____ and ____ and produces ____, ____, and ____ | isocitrate; NAD+; α-ketoglutarate; NADH; CO2 |
[Image: Alpha-Ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase Complex Reactants.jpg]> The above reaction is from the citric acid cycle This reaction requires ____, ____, and ____ and produces ____ ____, and ____ | α-ketoglutarate; NAD+; CoA; succinyl CoA,; NADH; CO2 |
[Image: Succinyl CoA Synthetase Reactants.jpg]> The above reaction is from the citric acid cycle This reaction requires ____, ____, and ____ and produces ____, ____, and ____ | succinyl CoA; GDP; Pi; succinate; GTP; CoA |
[Image: Fumarase Reactants.jpg]> The above reaction is from the citric acid cycle This reaction requires ____ | H2O |
[Image: Malate Dehydrogenase Reactants.jpg]> The above reaction is from the citric acid cycle This reaction requires ____ and ____ and produces ____, ____, and ____ | malate; NAD+; oxaloacetate; NADH; H+ |
The three regulatory enzymes in the citric acid cycle are: ____________ | Citrate synthase; Isocitrate dehydrogenase; α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex |
The rate limiting enzyme in the citric acid cycle is ____ | isocitrate dehydrogenase |
The citric acid cycle requires ____ NAD+ and produces ____ NADH | 3; 3 |
The citric acid cycle requires ____ FAD and produces ____ FADH2 | 1; 1 |
The citric acid cycle requires ____ ADP and produce ____ ATP | 1; 1 |
The citric acid cycle sends electrons to the electron transport chain within the electron carriers ____ and ____ | NADH; FADH2 |
The ETC creates a ____ that is used to power ATP synthase | proton concentration gradient |
Complex I in the ETC is also known as ____ | NADH dehydrogenase |
Complex II in the ETC is also known as ____ | succinate dehydrogenase |
Complex III in the ETC is also known as ____ | cytochrome reductase |
Complex IV in the ETC is also known as ____ | cytochrome oxidase |
____ uses a proton gradient to power the conversion of ADP to ATP | ATP synthase |
NADH powers the creation of ____ ATP | 2.5 |
FADH2 powers the creation of ____ ATP | 1.5 |
Complex I in the ETC oxidizes ____ to form ____ | NADH; NAD+ |
Complex II in the ETC oxidizes ____ to form ____ | succinate; fumarate |
ETC complex II ____ a proton pump | is not |
ETC Complex II removes 2 hydrogens from ____ and adds them to ____ | succinate; FAD |
Complex II in the ETC is part of the ____ | citric acid cycle |
Complex III in the ETC is the site of the ____ | Q Cycle |
The Q Cycle is the process by which electrons travel from ____ to ____ | QH2; cytochrome C |
Complex IV in the ETC transfers electrons from ____ to ____ | cytochrome C; oxygen |
____ is the final acceptor of electrons in the ETC during aerobic respiration | Oxygen |
Fatty acid synthesis includes the following 5 steps: 1. ____2. ____3. ____4. ____5. ____ | Attach; Condense; Reduce; Dehydration; Reduce |
Fatty acid synthesis begins with the transfer of ____ from the mitochondria to the cytosol via the ____ | acetyl-CoA; citrate shuttle |
Fatty acid synthesis begins with the transfer of acetyl-CoA from the ____ to the ____ via the citrate shuttle | mitochondria; cytosol |
During the initiation of fatty acid synthesis, acetyl-CoA is activated through the synthesis of ____ | malonyl-CoA |
The regulatory enzyme for fatty acid synthesis is ____ | acetyl-CoA carboxylase |
[Image: Fatty Acid Synthesis Attach.png]> The first step of fatty acid synthesis is 1: ____ | Attach |
[Image: Fatty Acid Synthesis Condense.png]> The second step of fatty acid synthesis is 2: ____ | Condense |
[Image: Fatty Acid Synthesis Reduce 1.png]> The third step of fatty acid synthesis is 3: ____ | Reduce |
[Image: Fatty Acid Synthesis Dehydration.png]> The fourth step of fatty acid synthesis is 4: ____ | Dehydration |
[Image: Fatty Acid Synthesis Reduce 2.png]> The fifth step of fatty acid synthesis is 5: ____ | Reduce |
Fatty acid synthesis occurs in the ____ | cytosol |
Acetyl-CoA uses the ____ to exit the mitochondria | citrate shuttle |
____ is the process by which fatty acids are oxidized and broken down | Beta oxidation |
Beta oxidation occurs in the ____ | mitochondrial matrix |
Acyl-CoA must use the ____ to pass through the inner mitochondrial membrane | carnitine shuttle |
[Image: Beta Oxidation Acyl CoA.png]> Beta oxidation starts with the oxidation of ____ | acyl-CoA |
[Image: Beta Oxidation Oxidation 1.png]> The first step of beta oxidation is a/an ____ | oxidation |
[Image: Beta Oxidation Hydration.png]> The second step of beta oxidation is a/an ____ | hydration |
[Image: Beta Oxidation Oxidation 2.png]> The third step in beta oxidation is a/an ____ | oxidation |
[Image: Beta Oxidation Thiolysis.png]> The fourth step of beta oxidation is a/an ____ | thiolysis |
[Image: Beta Oxidation Products.png]> The two main products of beta oxidation are ____ and ____ | acetyl-CoA; acyl-CoA |
If a C16 fatty acid is completely processed by beta oxidation, ____ acetyl-CoA molecules will be produced | 8 |
A C16 fatty acid will undergo a maximum of ____ rounds of beta oxidation | 7 |
A C16 fatty acid that undergoes complete beta oxidation will produce ____ NADH and ____ FADH2 | 7; 7 |
The pentose phosphate pathway produces ____ and ____ | NADPH; pentose |
[Image: Pentose Phosphate Pathway NADPH (2).png]> The pentose phosphate pathway converts ____ to ____ | NADP+; NADPH |
[Image: Pentose Phosphate Pathway Ribose 5-Phosphate (2).png]> The pentose phosphate pathway produces ____ and sends for use in nucleotide synthesis | ribose 5-phosphate |
[Image: Pentose Phosphate Pathway Glucose 6-Phosphate (2).png]> Glycolysis sends ____ to the pentose phosphate pathway | glucose 6-phosphate |
The urea cycle converts ____ to urea which is then excreted in urine | ammonia |
The urea cycle takes place in the ____ and ____ of the ____ | cytosol; mitochondrial matrix; liver |
The urea cycle connects to the citric acid cycle using the compounds ____ and ____ | oxaloacetate; fumarate |
Give the chemical reaction formula for glycolysis: ____ → ____ | Glucose + 2NAD+ + 2ADP + 2Pi; 2Pyruvate + 2ATP + 2NADH + 2H2O |
Hexokinase is inhibited by ____ | glucose 6-phosphate |
____ is the enzyme that catalyzes the committed step of glycolysis | Phosphofructokinase |
The storage form of glucose in animals is ____ | glycogen |
Phosphofructokinase is inhibited by ____ and ____ | ATP; citrate |
Phosphofructokinase is activated by ____ | AMP |
Pyruvate kinase is inhibited by ____ | ATP |
Pyruvate kinase is activated by ____ | fructose 1,6-bisphosphate |
Pyruvate dehydrogenase converts ____ to ____ | pyruvate; acetyl-CoA |
____ is the production of glycogen from sugar | Glycogenesis |
The two main enzymes in glycogenesis are ____ and ____ | glycogen synthase; branching enzyme |
Glycogen synthase creates ____ between molecules of glucose | α-1,4 glycosidic bonds |
Branching enzyme creates branches with ____ | β-1,6 glycosidic bonds |
____ is the breakdown of glycogen | Glycogenolysis |
The two main enzymes in glycogenolysis are ____ and ____ | glycogen phosphorylase; debranching enzyme |
In glycogenolysis, glycogen phosphorylase removes single glucose molecules by breaking ____ | α-1,4 glycosidic bonds |
In glycogenolysis, glycogen debranching enzyme breaks branches of glucose molecules off by hydrolyzing ____ | α-1,6 glycosidic bonds |
The glycolysis intermediate ____ feeds into glycogenesis | glucose 6-phosphate |
____ is the process in which pyruvic acid is converted to glucose | Gluconeogenesis |
Gluconeogenesis takes place in the ____, ____, and ____ | liver; kidneys; intestines |
The glycolysis enzyme pyruvate kinase is irreversible. This is why in gluconeogenesis, pyruvate must first be converted to ____ before becoming phosphoenolpyruvate | oxaloacetate |
____ occurs during periods of fasting, starvation, low-carbohydrate diets, or intense exercise | Gluconeogenesis |
The pentose phosphate pathway is also known as the ____ | hexose monophosphate (HMP) shunt |
The rate limiting enzyme of the pentose phosphate pathway is ____ | glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase |
The pentose phosphate pathway occurs in the ____ | cytosol |
[Image: Reaction Pathway Locations Blank.png]> Glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, glycogenolysis, and fatty acid synthesis all occur in the ____ The citric acid cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, and beta oxidation all occur in the ____ | cytoplasm; mitochondria |
Galactose comes from ____ | lactose in milk |
Fructose comes from ____ | honey, fruit, and sucrose |
[Image: Glucose.jpg]> This is the monosaccharide ____ | glucose |
[Image: Fructose.jpg]> This is the monosaccharide ____ | fructose |
[Image: Galactose.jpg]> This is the monosaccharide ____ | galactose |
Acetyl-CoA contains a high energy ____ bond that can be used to drive other reactions | thioester |
Acetyl-CoA can be formed from the following three sources: ____________ | Amino acids; Pyruvic acids; Fatty acids |
Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is a complex of three enzymes that converts ____ into ____ by a process called pyruvate decarboxylation | pyruvate; acetyl-CoA |
Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is turned off when it is ____ | phosphorylated |
Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is turned on when it is ____ | dephosphorylated |
The citric acid cycle produces ____, ____, ____, and ____ | ATP; NADH; FADH2; CO2 |
Isocitrate dehydrogenase, the rate limiting enzyme in the citric acid cycle is activated by ____ and inhibited by ____ | ADP; ATP |
The citric acid cycle is also known as the ____ or the ____ | krebs cycle; tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle |
Isocitrate dehydrogenase, the rate limiting enzyme of the citric acid cycle is activated by ____ or ____ | ADP; NAD+ |
Isocitrate dehydrogenase, the rate limiting enzyme of the citric acid cycle is inhibited by ____ or ____ | ATP; NADH |
The citric acid cycle occurs in the following parts of the cell: Eukaryotes: ____ Prokaryotes: ____ | mitochondrial matrix; cytoplasm |
____ is a series of complexes that transfer electrons from electron donors to electron acceptors via redox reactions | Electron transport chain |
____ is the movement of ions across a semipermeable membrane, down their electrochemical gradient | Chemiosmosis |
The ____ is the proton electrochemical gradient generated by the electron transport chain across the inner mitochondrial membrane | proton-motive force |
A ____ sense RNA strand has a nucleotide sequence complementary to the mRNA that it encodes | negative |
A high pH will cause amino acids to be ____ | fully deprotonated |
If pH = pI then the amino acid is a ____ | zwitterion |
The amino acid sequence of a peptide chain is written ____-terminus to ____-terminus | N; C |
The N-terminus of a peptide chain is ____ charged | positively |
The 1° structure of proteins is stabilized by ____ | peptide bonds |
The 2° structure of proteins is stabilized by ____ | hydrogen bonds |
The 3° structure of proteins is stabilized primarily by ____ | hydrophobic interactions |
Enzymes ____ the ∆G or ∆H, and the final equilibrium position | do not alter |
Triacylglycerols contain a glycerol attached to 3 fatty acids by ____ bonds | ester |
____ is a form of lipid which is a mixture of sodium salts of various naturally occurring fatty acids | Soap |
DNA polymerase reads the template strand from ____ → ____ and synthesize the new strand from ____ → ____ | 3'; 5’; 5’; 3’ |
In eukaryotic translation, the 40S ribosome subunit attaches to the ____ and scans for a start codon; | 5’ cap |
During osmosis, water moves from an area of ____ solute concentration to an area of ____ solute concentration | low; high |
Cortisol increases blood sugar by ____ | activating gluconeogenesis |
Polysaccharides are formed by repeated monosaccharide or polysaccharide ____ bonding | glycosidic |
____ is the main structural component for plant cell walls | Cellulose |
In plants, energy is stored in the form of ____ | starch |
The 5' cap on mRNA is made up of ____ The poly-A tail is made up of ____ | 7-methylguanosine; adenine nucleotides |
The bulk of chemical lipid digestion occurs in the ____ due to pancreatic lipase | small intestine |
Upon entry into the duodenum, ____ occurs, which is the mixing of two normally immiscible liquids; in this case, fat and water | emulsification |
Emulsification of lipids is aided by ____ | bile salts |
Long-chain fatty acids are absorbed as micelles and assembled into ____ for release into the lymphatic system | chylomicrons |
Chylomicrons transport lipids through the ____ | lymphatic system |
____ transport fat molecules throughout the body | Lipoproteins |
Lipoproteins are named based on their overall ____ | density |
Low-density lipoproteins (LDL) are considered ____ because they ____ | bad; have a high amount of cholesterol which they deliver to tissues |
High-density lipoproteins (HDL) are considered ____ because they ____ | good; pick up extra cholesterol and return it to the liver |
The main function of very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) is to transport fatty acids to from ____ to ____ | the liver; tissues |
Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) are converted to ____ and then to ____ before arriving at a tissue | intermediate-density lipoproteins (IDL); low-density lipoproteins (LDL) |
The main function of low-density lipoproteins (LDL) is to ____ | transport cholesterol to tissues |
____ are receptor molecules that control interactions between lipoproteins | Apolipoproteins |
Cholesterol may be obtained through dietary sources or through ____ in the liver | de novo synthesis |
____ is the rate-controlling enzyme of the mevalonate pathway, the metabolic pathway that produces cholesterol | HMG-CoA reductase |
[Image: Alpha Linolenic Acid (1).png]> The omega end of a fatty acid is the ____ end | methyl |
Omega fatty acids are classified according to the ____ | location of the first double bond from the omega end |
[Image: Omega 3.png]> The above molecule is an Omega-____ fatty acid | 3 |
Ketogenesis is the biochemical process through which organisms produce ____ through breakdown of fatty acids and ketogenic amino acids | ketone bodies |
Ketone bodies form via ketogenesis due to excess ____ in the liver during a prolonged starvation state | acetyl-CoA |
____ regenerates acetyl-CoA for use as an energy source in peripheral tissues | Ketolysis |
____ are produced from acetyl-CoA, mainly in the mitochondrial matrix of liver cells when carbohydrates are so scarce that energy must be obtained from breaking down of fatty acids | Ketone bodies |
____ occurs when your blood sugar is very high and acidic substances called ketones build up to dangerous levels in your body | Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) |
The brain can derive up to 2/3 of its energy from ____ during prolonged starvation | ketone bodies |
Catabolism of cellular proteins occurs only under conditions of ____ | starvation |
____ are amino acids that can be converted into glucose through gluconeogenesis | Glucogenic amino acids |
____ are amino acids that can be converted into acetyl-CoA and ketone bodies | Ketogenic amino acids |
When the terminal phosphate linkage in ATP is broken using water, ____ \(\frac{kJ}{mol}\) of energy is released | 30 |
[Image: ATP Structure.jpg]> The above molecule is known as ____ | ATP |
____ are a subclass of electron carriers that are derived from riboflavin | Flovoproteins |
FAD and FMN are both ____ | flavoproteins |
____ means after eating a meal while | Postprandial |
The ____ occurs postprandially and is the period in which the gastrointestinal tract is full and anabolic processes dominate | absorptive state |
The ____ occurs after digestion and absorption. The body must rely on energy stores such as glycogen for its energy | postabsorptive state |
Calorimeters measure the ____ which can be used to calculate the metabolic rate | heat generated by an organism |
The ____ is the ratio of the volume of carbon dioxide produced to that of oxygen consumed | respiratory quotient |
Orexin ____ appetite | increases |
Give the formula used to calculate a person's body mass index (BMI): ____ | \(\frac{weight~in~kg}{(height~in~meters)^2}\) |
Triglyceride storage in ____ comprises the principal energy reserve in mammals | adipose tissue |
Gel electrophoresis is a technique commonly used in laboratories to separate charged molecules like DNA, RNA and proteins according to their ____ and ____ | size; charge |
In gel electrophoresis: Small molecules move ____ Large molecules move ____ | fast; slow |
In gel electrophoresis: ____ gel has large pores so it is used to separate nucleic acids ____ gel has small pores so it is better for separating proteins | Agarose; Polyacrylamide |
Native-PAGE is a polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis method for proteins using ____ conditions | non-denaturing |
____ denatures proteins and gives them a uniform negative charge | Sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS) |
SDS-PAGE denatures proteins and separates them solely based on ____ | mass |
In SDS-PAGE, you can add an additional reducing agent called ____ to reduce disulfide bonds. This further denatures the protein | 2-mercaptoethanol |
In isoelectric focusing, the gel has a pH gradient and the proteins will migrate through the gel until they reach the pH that matches their ____ | isoelectric point |
____ is a method of transferring fragments of protein, DNA, or RNA that have been separated via electrophoresis and applying them to a blotting membrane | Blotting |
____ is used to detect a specific DNA sequence | Southern blotting |
____ is used to detect a specific RNA sequence | Northern blotting |
____ is used to detect a specific protein in a sample | Western blotting |
____ is a method of DNA sequencing based on the selective incorporation of chain-terminating dideoxynucleotides | Sanger sequencing |
____ is a fast and inexpensive technique used to amplify, or make many copies of, a specific target region of DNA in the lab | Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) |
PCR relies on a thermostable DNA polymerase called ____ | Taq polymerase |
Give the three steps and the temperatures of each step in a PCR cycle: 1. ____ at ____°C 2. ____ at ____°C 3. ____ at ____°C | Denaturation; 96; Annealing; 55 - 65; Extension; 72 |