summ set
Q1: What does 'aseptic' mean in microbial control?
A1: Refers to an environment or procedure free of pathogenic contaminants.
Q2: What is the role of sanitation in public health?
A2: It reduces the number of pathogens to meet public health standards and prevent disease.
Q3: Which methods in microbial control can be bacteriostatic?
A3: Refrigeration and freezing, which inhibit microbial metabolism and growth.
Q4: What is the most difficult microorganism to inactivate with antimicrobial agents?
A4: Bacterial endospores.
Q5: What is ultra-high temperature sterilization?
A5: A method using 191°F (88.3°C) for 1 second to sterilize, often used in milk processing.
Q6: What is an example of pasteurization?
A6: Flash pasteurization of milk at 161°F (71.7°C) for 15 seconds.
Q7: What is an example of an antiseptic procedure?
A7: Swabbing skin with 70% ethanol before an injection.
Q8: What is a limitation of hydrogen peroxide for open wounds?
A8: It is less effective because catalase in tissues breaks it down.
Q9: What are the characteristics of soaps and detergents in microbial control?
A9: Soaps are good degerming agents but not antimicrobial; detergents are positively charged surfactants.
Q10: What is the highest level of biosafety for handling deadly pathogens?
A10: Biosafety Level 4 (BSL-4).
1. Q: Who is the scientist behind 'magic bullets'?
A: Paul Ehrlich.
2. Q: What mold is Penicillin derived from?
A: Penicillium chrysogenum.
3. Q: How do beta-lactams act?
A: They bind to enzymes that cross-link NAM subunits in peptidoglycan, weakening the cell wall and causing bacterial lysis.
4. Q: How does isoniazid act on mycobacterial species?
A: It disrupts the formation of mycolic acid in the cell walls of mycobacteria.
5. Q: What is the action of Polymyxin?
A: Disrupts cytoplasmic membranes of Gram-negative bacteria; toxic to human kidneys.
6. Q: What is the action of Tetracycline?
A: Inhibits protein synthesis by targeting prokaryotic 30S ribosomal subunit.
7. Q: What is the action of Actinomycin?
A: Inhibits DNA or RNA synthesis by binding to DNA and blocking transcription.
8. Q: What is the action of Beta-lactam drugs?
A: Inhibit cell wall synthesis by preventing cross-linkage of NAM subunits.
9. Q: What is the action of Azoles?
A: Inhibit ergosterol synthesis, used as antifungals and also for protozoa and worm infections.
10. Q: What is the action of Rifampicin (Rifampin)?
A: Inhibits RNA synthesis by binding to bacterial RNA polymerase.
11. Q: What is the action of Erythromycin?
A: Inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit (macrolide class).
Q: What does AIDS stand for?
A: Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
Q: What is mutualism?
A: A type of symbiosis where both organisms benefit.
Q: What is commensalism?
A: A type of symbiosis where one organism benefits and the other is neither harmed nor helped.
Q: What is another name for normal microbiota?
A: Normal flora or indigenous microbiota.
Q: Where does Staphylococcus epidermidis live?
A: On the skin of humans as part of the normal microbiota.
Q: What are opportunistic pathogens?
A: Normal microbiota that cause disease under certain conditions such as immune suppression or
when introduced to unusual sites.
Q: Give examples of acquired zoonotic diseases.
A: Rabies, salmonellosis, yellow fever, West Nile virus.
Q: What are fomites and their role in transmission of microbes?
A: Fomites are inanimate objects that help indirectly transmit pathogens.
Q: What are some sites which are portals of entry for pathogens?
A: Skin, mucous membranes, placenta, parenteral route.
Q: What is the most common site of entry to the respiratory system?
A: Through the nose or mouth via mucous membranes.
Q: What agent causes syphilis?
A: Treponema pallidum.
Q: What is an example of a symptom in disease manifestation?
A: Aches.
Q: What is pathogenicity?
A: The ability of a microorganism to cause disease.
Q: What is virulence?
A: The degree of pathogenicity of a microorganism.
1. Q: What is the body's first line of defense?
A: Skin and mucous membranes, along with their chemicals and processes.
2. Q: What are the components of blood?
A: Plasma (water, proteins, electrolytes, etc.) and formed elements: erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets.
3. Q: What are the stages of phagocytosis?
A: 1. Chemotaxis 2. Adherence 3. Ingestion 4. Killing 5. Elimination.
4. Q: What do interferons alpha and beta do?
A: They are released by virally infected cells and help prevent the spread of viruses to neighboring cells.
5. Q: What is complement in serology?
A: A set of serum proteins that, when activated, lead to inflammation, opsonization, and the lysis of pathogens.
6. Q: What is inflammation?
A: A nonspecific response to tissue damage; can be acute (short-lived) or chronic (long-lasting).
7. Q: What causes fever?
A: Pyrogens (e.g., bacterial toxins, cytoplasmic contents, or antigen-antibody complexes) trigger the hypothalamus to raise body temperature above 37°C.
1. Q: What are the main players in adaptive immunity?
A: T and B lymphocytes.
2. Q: Is the tonsil a lymphoid organ?
A: Yes, it's a secondary lymphoid organ.
3. Q: Where do T cells differentiate?
A: In the thymus.
4. Q: Where do B lymphocytes mature?
A: In the red bone marrow.
5. Q: What are the five classes of immunoglobulins?
A: IgM, IgG, IgA, IgE, and IgD.
6. Q: What kind of test is used to detect HIV?
A: ELISA (specifically indirect ELISA).
7. Q: What are the three types of T cells?
A: Cytotoxic T cells, Helper T cells, and Regulatory T cells.
8. Q: What is the function of MHC?
A: To present antigenic determinants to T cells; MHC I is on all nucleated cells, and MHC II is on antigen-presenting cells.
9. Q: What is the role of vaccines in immunological memory?
A: Vaccines help form memory B and T cells, allowing a faster immune response upon re-exposure to the antigen.