Microeconomics

A1. Which of the following best describes the production function?

  • TP = f (Land, Labour, Capital, Enterprise).

A2. All of the following are determinants of supply except;

  • Income.

A3. If a company is producing 2 units of output and the fixed costs are €25 and the variable costs are €100, what is the average total cost of producing two units?

  • €62.50.

A4. The relationship between price and quantity demanded is said to be;

  • Negative or inverse.

A5. A change in the following will not result in a change in demand?

  • Change in the price of the good itself.

A6. Which of the following is not a determinant of Price Elasticity of Demand?

  • The level of supply in the market.

A7. If the percentage change in quantity demanded is proportionately greater than the percentage change in price, the product is said to be;

  • Elastic.

A8. The change in total output obtained from using an additional unit of a variable input, holding other inputs constant is;

  • Marginal Product.

A9. If an increase in output is proportionately smaller than the increase in inputs, this is best described as;

  • Decreasing returns to scale.

A10. A supply curve is directly affected by;

  • All of the above.

A11. If a price increase of Product A increases the quantity demanded of Product B, then Product B is a/an;

  • Substitute product.

A12. When the minimum wage is set above the equilibrium market wage;

  • There will be an excess supply of labour at the minimum wage.

A13. The quantity demanded of a good rises from 1000 to 1500 units, when the price falls from €1.50 to €1.00. The Price Elasticity of Demand for this product is approximately;

  • –1.5.

A14. Which of the following are characteristics of a Perfectly Competitive Industry?

  • Homogeneous products.

A15. A Price Ceiling is the;

  • Maximum price usually set by government that sellers must charge for a product.

A16. Which of the following statements is true for a normal good?

  • An increase in income will result in an increase in demand, ceteris paribus.

A17. In a centrally planned economy;

  • All resources are allocated by the government based on their decisions.

A18. A form of market structure characterized by few firms, each large enough to influence market price is;

  • Oligopoly.

A19. Which of the following statements about a firm, which is a price taker is false?

  • The demand for firm’s product will increase if price is increased above the market price.

A20. The concept of diminishing marginal utility is the idea that;

  • The satisfaction gained from each additional unit of a good will decrease.

A21. An increase in the numbers of skilled workers immigrating into Ireland will cause:

  • The PPF to shift outwards away from the origin.

A22. Which of the following would decrease the amount of an inferior good that consumers would like to purchase?

  • An increase in consumers’ incomes.

A23. At 8 units of output, average fixed cost is €10.00 and average variable cost is €80.00, then total cost at this output level is:

  • €720.

A24. The short run is a time period in which:

  • At least one factor of production is fixed.

A25. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Monopoly?

  • Barriers to entry and exit.

A26. The quantity demanded of Good A increases from 1000 to 1250 units when the price falls from €1.50 to €1.00 per unit. The Price Elasticity of Demand for this product is approximately:

  • –1.32.

A27. Which of the following equations represents a demand curve?

  • Q = 40 – 6P.

A28. If the price increase of Good A increases the demand of Good B, then Good A and B are:

  • Substitute Goods.

A29. Determine the equilibrium price and quantity in the market based on the following information. The demand curve is represented by Qd = 20 - 3P and the supply curve is represented by Qs = 15 + 2P.

  • Equilibrium price is €1 and equilibrium quantity is 17 units.

A30. Which of the following will cause a shift to the left of the supply curve for crackers?

  • An increase in the price of wheat.

A31. If an increase in output is proportionately smaller than the increase in inputs, which of the following best describes this?

  • Decreasing returns to scale.

A32. If the percentage change in the quantity demanded is proportionately more than the percentage change in price, which of the following represents this?

  • Elastic.

A33. There will be excess demand in the market when:

  • Both (b) and (c) are correct.

A34. Which of the following market structures could be described as a price maker?

  • Monopoly.

A35. A consumer spends €200 monthly on Product A when its price is €2 and continues to spend €200 monthly when its price increases to €2.50. Calculate the consumer’s price elasticity of demand.

  • –1.

A36. Which answer is most likely to represent the YED for Apple iPhones?

  • +4.6.

A37. Consumers buy 50 units of a product when the price is €1.50. When the price is reduced to €1, consumers buy 90 units. Based on this information, what strategy should the seller follow if they wish to increase revenue?

  • The good is elastic, and the seller should decrease price to increase revenue.

A38. Which of the following best describes the Production Function?

  • TP = f(Land, Labour, Capital, Enterprise).

A39. Marginal Revenue is equal to:

  • Change in total revenue divided by a change in quantity.

A40. A market structure with many firms selling identical products is best described as:

  • Perfect Competition.

A41. Which of the following would encourage an outward shift of the Production Possibility Frontier (PPF)?

  • (a) Outward emigration of entrepreneurs.

  • (b) A decrease in demand as the economy slips into recession.

  • (c) The level of capital investment falls.

  • (d) Inward migration of skilled workers.

A42. Price controls are:

  • (a) Government regulations which limit the ability of the market to determine price.

  • (b) Legal restrictions on how high or low a market price may go.

  • (c) Another way of describing equilibrium.

  • (d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.

A43. If the Marginal utility of a glass of milk that Tom drinks is 15 utils, then which of the following is most likely to be true?

  • (a) Tom will drink 15 glasses of milk.

  • (b) The marginal utility of the second glass of milk that Tom drinks will be less than 15 utils.

  • (c) The marginal utility of the second glass of milk that Tom drinks will be greater than 15 utils.

  • (d) None of the above.

A44. A company knows that the demand for its product is elastic. To increase its total revenue, it should:

  • (a) Decrease its price.

  • (b) Aggressively increase its price to attract more customers.

  • (c) Leave the price unchanged, as a price change will not affect its total revenue.

  • (d) Do none of the above.

A45. Which one of the following statements is true in a perfectly competitive market?

  • (a) The output of the firms is not homogeneous.

  • (b) The number of firms in the industry is difficult to increase.

  • (c) Each firm in the industry is a significant supplier relative to total supply.

  • (d) The number of firms supplying the industry is large.

A46. The equilibrium market price for gym bags is €25. How will the market be affected if the government introduces a price control which is €5 above the equilibrium price?

  • (a) The price control will have no effect on the market.

  • (b) The new price for gym bags will be €30 and there will be excess demand at this price.

  • (c) The new price for gym bags will be €30 and there will be excess supply at this price.

  • (d) The market mechanism will ensure that the market returns to equilibrium.

A47. If the percentage change in the quantity demanded of a good divided by a percentage change in income is negative, which of the following must be true?

  • (a) This product is a normal good.

  • (b) This product is a necessity.

  • (c) This product is price elastic.

  • (d) This product is an inferior good.

A48. A supply curve:

  • (a) Can have either an upward or downward slope depending on whether individuals or firms are considered.

  • (b) Is always upwards sloping because as price increases, more is supplied.

  • (c) Slopes downwards because firms can sell more products when prices fall.

  • (d) Slopes downwards because as greater quantities are produced, average cost of production will fall.

A49. A firm’s total costs for one unit of output is €150 and €205 for two units of output. Its fixed costs are €100. The Marginal Cost (MC) of the second unit of output is:

  • (a) €50.

  • (b) €55.

  • (c) €100.

  • (d) €105.

A50. If the value of Price Elasticity of Demand (PED) for a good equals -0.9, then the demand for that good is:

  • (a) Inelastic.

  • (b) Infinitely price elastic.

  • (c) Elastic.

  • (d) The above information is insufficient to make a judgement.

A51. The economic problem is the study of:

  • (a) The appropriate distribution of wealth.

  • (b) How an economy decides how best to allocate its scarce resources.

  • (c) Supply and demand decisions.

  • (d) The market mechanism.

A52. The price of phone chargers increased from €15 to €20. What effect did this have on the demand curve for phone chargers?

  • (a) A movement along the demand curve resulting in a higher price and a higher quantity demanded.

  • (b) A shift in the demand curve to the left.

  • (c) A movement along the demand curve resulting in a higher price and a lower quantity demanded.

  • (d) A shift in the demand curve to the right.

A53. In monopolistic competition, the products sold can be described as:

  • (a) Heterogeneous.

  • (b) Complementary.

  • (c) Standardised.

  • (d) None of the above.

A54. If the Income Elasticity of Demand (YED) for a good is positive, then the good is:

  • (a) A normal good.

  • (b) An income-neutral good.

  • (c) An inferior good.

  • (d) None of the above.

A55. Which of the following factors is likely to cause a good’s supply curve to shift to the right?

  • (a) An increase in the price of the inputs being used to produce the good.

  • (b) A fall in the selling price of the good.

  • (c) An improvement in the technology used to produce the good.

  • (d) All of the above.

A56. The Law of Demand states that an increase in the price of a good:

  • (a) Increases the supply of that good.

  • (b) Decreases the quantity demanded for that good.

  • (c) Increases the quantity supplied of that good along its supply curve.

  • (d) None of the above.

A57. The price of protein bars fell by 2% and quantity demanded increases by 3%. This means that the Price Elasticity of Demand (PED) for protein bars is:

  • (a) Elastic.

  • (b) Inelastic.

  • (c) Perfectly elastic.

  • (d) Perfectly inelastic.

A58. A decrease in supply accompanied by an increase in demand, other things being equal, will cause:

  • (a) Price to increase, with effect on quantity uncertain.

  • (b) Both price and quantity to decrease.

  • (c) Both price and quantity to increase.

  • (d) Quantity to decrease and the effect on price uncertain.

A59. A demand curve illustrates:

  • (a) The interaction of equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity.

  • (b) How consumer behaviour changes in response to advertising.

  • (c) The relationship between the price of a good and the amount of that good that consumers are willing and able to buy.

  • (d) The amount of a good that is supplied at every price.

A60. A perfectly competitive firm is a price taker. This means that:

  • (a) The firm cannot individually influence the market price.

  • (b) The firm faces a perfectly elastic demand.

  • (c) The firm can only charge the same price as all other firms.

  • (d) All of the above.