Untitled Flashcards Set

Immunology Exams

Carly: Exam 1, 6, 7

Amos: Exam 2, 3, 4, 5

Exam 1:

Questions	Answers
Name the 2 distinct phases of immunity in the correct order.	Innate and Adaptive
What progenitor cell(s) generate T cells	common lymphoid progenitor
Secondary lymphoid organs are:	Spleen and lymph node
What basic effector functions do a T-helper Type I (Th1) response and a T-helper Type II (Th2) response generate?	Cytotoxicity and Cytokines, Antibody
What are the 2 types of antigen receptors important for lymphocyte activation?	T cell receptor and B cell receptor
What are the three effector mechanisms of antibodies?	neutralization, opsinization and complement activation
Identify the two proteins that present processed antigen on the surface of APCs and to which co-receptor they bind.	MHC Class I and II, CD4 and CD8
What happens to most effector T cells after the pathogen they are specific too has been cleared by the immune response and what is the name of this phase of their response?	undergo apoptosis, contraction
A protein secreted by an immune cell that affects the behavior of a neighboring cell is called what?	Cytokine
True/False. An antibody is composed of 2 heavy and 2 light chains which are composed of variable and constant domains.	True
What is the progenitor cell immediately preceding monocytic cells (monocytes, DCs and macrophages)?	granulocyte/monocyte progenitor
What is the most common blood leukocyte?	Neutrophils
True/False. Macrophages are phagocytes, they can generate inflammation and are professional antigen presenting cells.	True
A protein secreted by cells during an immune response that directs the migration of immune cells into specific sites in the body is called?	Chemokine
Primary or central lymphoid organs are:	Bone marrow and thymus
True or False. One of the postulates of clonal selection hypothesis is "Lymphocytes bearing receptors specific for ubiquitous self molecules are deleted at an early stage in lymphoid cell development and are therefore absent from the repertoire of mature lymphocytes"	true
Match the class of disease causing agent to an example of that disease causing agent on the right	Virus - influenza Bacteria - staphylococcus Prion - chronic wasting disease Fungi - Aspergillus Parasite - plasmodium
True/False. Of all of the professional antigen presenting cells, the dendritic cell is the least efficient at presenting antigen and as a result makes the B cell the link between the innate and adaptive immune response.	False
Who is considered the founder of immunology and vaccination?	Edward Jenner
An APC is an immune cell capable of which of the following?	All of the above: Internalizing antigen and/or pathogen degrading antigens or pathogens intracellularly into peptides transporting the peptides back to the surface of the cell presenting antigens to naive T cells
True/False. The T cell Receptor allows the T cell to recognize a specific antigen and it is made up of heavy and light chains that each contain variable and constant domains.	False
Immune cells circulate through the lymphatics. Identify the 2 different types of lymphatics that help antigen and circulating lymphocytes meet in lymph nodes.	Afferent and Efferent
True/False. A lymph node consists of B cell rich and T cell rich areas. The B cell rich area is called a primary lymphoid follicle. The T cell rich area is called the paracortical area.	True
Where in the structure of the spleen are the T cells mostly located?	Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath
Your antigen processing and presentation machinery processes and presents antigen from specific cellular locations. Identify the correct MHC and cellular location pair from the choices below.	MHC Class I and Intracellular, MHC Class II and extracellular

Exam 2:

Question	Answer
NOD like receptors interact with signaling proteins via an N terminal domain known as the _________________________________domain.	CARD
What are the three families of adhesion molecules.	Selectins, Integrins and Intercellular adhesion molecules
A cell that secretes a cytokine can affect the behavior of itself and/or other cells in different proximity to the producing cell in three ways. These three ways are?	B, C and D
What cells produce the Type I interferons IFN alpha and beta and what pathogen do these cytokines protect against?	plasmacytoid DCs and viruses
Licensed NK cells are different from unlicensed NK cells because they express what types of receptors?	activating and inhibitory receptors
True/False “ The RIG like helicases NALP3 and RIG1 recruit adaptor proteins via their PYCARD domains resulting in the activation of caspase-1 to cleave IkB from NfκB”	False
True/False “ Nucleic acid sensing Toll Like Receptors (TLRs) TLR3, TLR7, TLR8 signaling is MyD88 dependent except TLR9 which signals via a different adaptor protein”	False
Please match the following receptor with proper ligand	TLR2(1 or 6) → diacyl/triacyl lipopeptide TLR4 → LPS TLR5 → flagellin TLR7 → single stranded DNA TLR9 → CpG DNA TLR3 → Double stranded RNA
The C3 convertase is made up of which of the following? Identify 2	Identify 2 → A and F
True/False. “In the lectin dependent complement cascade, binding of mannose binding lectin to the surface of a pathogen is required to activate the MBL associated serine proteases MASP1 and MASP2”	True
True/False. “Only 1 globular head of C1q binding to the surface of a pathogen is needed to activate the C1 complex made up of C1q, C1r and C1s.”	False
The C5 convertase is made of the following complement components.	C3b2Bb and C4b2a3b
How many C9 molecules does C8 facilitate inserting into the membrane of a pathogen to form a pore that lyses a pathogen?	10-16
True/False “CD39 or properdin inhibits C9 from binding the C5b678 complex and protects out cells against complement attack” (2pts)	False
What molecules are exchanged to activate the G protein coupled receptor after the fMLP receptor binds to fMLP?	GDP with GTP
16. True/False “LPS first binds to TLR4 indirectly via MD2 then directly to the second TLR4 protein to dimerize the TIR domains and initate signaling”	True
17. What adaptor molecules does TLR3 use?	TRIF
18. True/False “NOD1/2 recognize their ligands then dimerize bringing their CARD domains into close proximity which then results in the recruitment of the serine threonine kinase Receptor Interacting Serine Threonine Kinase 2 via its CARD domain to initiate signaling in the NOD-like receptor pathway”	True
19. What protein domain does NLRP3 use to recruit PYCARD to the complex to initiate pro-Caspase 1 activation?	Pyrin
20. True/False “In the Rig like helicase pathway, the E2 ubiquitinase TRIM23 is required to build polyubiquitin scaffolds to facilitate the interaction of the CARD domains of RIG1 or MDA5 interacting with the CARD domains of MAVS”	False
21. What enzyme converts viral double stranded DNA into cGAMP and what inducible innate immune pathway is this involved in?	cGAS and STING
22. There are two families of chemokines, what are they and what cells do they help recruit to a site of infection?	CC and CXC, monocyte and neutrophil
23. What is the term for a cell crossing the endothelium of blood vessels and basal membrane surrounding the blood vessel?	extravasation and diapadesis
24. True/False. Once 2 molecules of STING binds the ligand, STING dimerizes on the mitochondria recruiting TAK1, which then phosphorylates IRF3.	False
25. What effect does NFkB activation have on professional antigen presenting cells?	Increase cytokine production and CD80 and CD86 expression

Exam 3:

Questions	Answers
The proteosome is composed of ________________ caps and a ________________ catalytic core.	19s , 20s
What 2 enzymes were used to dissect the structure of antibodies?	Pepsin and Papain
Gene rearrangement requires several DNA modifying enzymes. Which are found only in lymphocytes?	Tdt and RAG1/2
true or false “TCRα chain variable region rearrangement starts with the joining of a diversity gene segment to a joining gene segment”.	False
true or false “ MHC Class I heavy chain is translated into the ER along with a light chain which is called Beta 2 microglobulin. One MHC Class I heavy chain is bound by Calnexin until the Beta 2 microglobulin associates with the heavy chain. Once Beta-2 microglobulin associates with the heavy chain, calnexin is released”	True
Somatic hypermutation by base excision repair requires several DNA modifying proteins, what are they?	AID, UNG and REV1
What rule governs Recombination Signal Sequence (RSS) to facilitate gene segment rearrangement?	12/23 rule
true or false? “Ig class switching occurs when constant gene segments rearrange. This requires active transcription which opens the DNA making S-loops giving REV1, APE1 and UNG access to make nicks at C residues”	False
9 . Somatic hypermutation can occur via 3 mechanisms which are	mismatch repair, base excision repair, gene conversion
10. Match C gene segments to the class of antibody they encode and the location of where they are typically found in the body?
11. true or false? “In primary Ig gene rearrangement the gene segments are first bound by KU70/80 complex which allow RAG1/2 complex to bind and initiate the rearrangement process”	False
12. In the correct order what are the heptamer and nonamer DNA sequences used as spacers for RSS domains of Ig gene segments?	CACAGTG and ACAAAAACC
13. true or false? “T cells via their TCR are MHC restricted in their ability to become active by the interaction of the CDR2 and CDR3 with the MHC proteins”	False
14. What proteins are important during Ig gene rearrangement for the addition of P and N nucleotides when gene segments rearrange?	Artemis, DNA-PK and Tdt
15. true or false? “During Ig gene rearrangement when the gene segments are in the forward orientation the intervening DNA is looped out creating the signal joint. The complex of proteins that ligate the signal joint include only DNA Ligase IV and XRCC4”	False
16. What are the names of the proteins in the peptide loading complex in MHC Class I presentation?	ERp57, Calreticulin and Tapasin
17. true or false? “MHC Class I only presents antigens made from an intracellular source and MHC Class II only presents antigens taken into a cell from an extracellular source”	True
18. What is the next step in the MHC Class I processing and presentation pathway after B2-microglobulin associates with the MHC Class I heavy chain?	Calnexin dissociates from the heavy chain and the PLC binds to the complex
19. true or false? “MHC Class I antigens are loaded into the peptide binding groove in the only after MHC Class I is released from the ER and has trafficked into the endosome”	False
What are the names of the coreceptors for T cells?	CD4 and CD8
21. What holds in place antigens bound to MHC class I and class II peptide binding clefts?	Anchor residues
22. What parts of the BCR and TCR have the greatest diversity?	CDR1, CDR2, CDR3
23. What is the name of the protein that initiates secondary diversification of antigen receptors?	Activation induced cytidine deaminase
24. true or false “MHC Class I is expressed only by professional APCs while MHC Class II is expressed by the majority of cells in our body”	False
25. true or false “ The TCR alpha chain gene rearrangement occurs when a D gene segment rearranges with a J gene segment and is followed by the DJ rearrangement with V gene segment”	False

Exam 4:

Questions	Answers
true false? “There are 2 classes of tyrosine kinase receptors. One is known as a receptor tyrosine kinase because it has either a tyrosine kinase constitutively associated with the cytoplasmic tail of the receptor or after ligand binding to the surface receptor, recruits a tyrosine kinase. The other is known as a non-tyrosine kinase because the tyrosine kinase is part of the proteins cytoplasmic domain.”	False
PKC-θ activation results in the activation and formation of an initial plasma membrane scaffold multisubunit complex composed of which of the following three molecules?	MALT1, CARMA1 and BCL10
What are the names of the MHC Class II regulatory proteins that are similar in structure to MHC Class II, but help control antigen loading in the peptide binding groove?	HLA-DM and HLA-DO
Tyrosine kinase generated signals are transmitted through the assembly of large protein complexes via specific protein domains of which one is known as the __________ _____________________ _____________ ___________ . What is the amino acid sequence that this domain binds too?	Src homology domain 2 and pYXXZ
How many proteins can a scaffold protein link and how many an adaptor protein can link in a tyrosine kinase signal transduction pathway?	many and 2-3
true/false? “Akt is required for pSMAC formation by activating TSC1/2 to activate Rheb and cause a conformational change in LFA-1”	False
We inherit multiple alleles of MHC genes from our parents. Although we are heterozygous for most of these genes we express them equally. What is the term for this kind of expression?	Codominant
true/false. " One of the five mechanisms of signaling protein recruitment to the cell membrane during tyrosine kinase receptor stimulation is guanine nucleotide exchange factor recruitment and activation of small GTPases (G proteins."	True
True or False “ MHC Class II chains are translated into the ER along with Invariant chain (Ii) proteins. One MHC Class II dimer and 1 Ii chain are bound by Calnexin until 3 MHC Class II dimers assemble with 3 Ii forming a nine chain complex (9-mer). Once this occurs, calnexin dissociates from MHC Class II and the 9-mer complex is then released from the ER.”	True
10 . What is the term for T cells that react to genetically mismatched MHC proteins and what does this cause?	Allogeneic response and tissue rejection
11. What are 3 second messengers made after T cell receptor complex activation?	IP3, Ca2+ and DAG
12. Akt is phosphorylated by _______________ and then after it is activated it will keep the T cell alive by phosphorylating _______________ which is bound to the pro survival protein ___________________.	PDK1, Bad and Bcl-2
13. true/false "The cSMAC and pSMAC form the immune synapse. The cSMAC contains aggregated intercellular adhesion molecules LFA1:ICAM-1 while the pSMAC contains aggregated TCR:Co-receptor:MHC"	False
14. true/false "Akt and PLC gamma control enhanced integrin adhesiveness and actin polymerization to control pSMAC and cSMAC and immune synapse formation"	False
15. During TCR activation a 3 protein complex is formed containing an adaptor and a scaffold and linker protein. What are the names of these proteins?	None of the above
16. true/false. "Lck is allosterically controlled through the phosphorylation of a serine in its c terminal domain by CD45"	False
17. During Vav directed actin polymerization Vav activates the GTPase ___________________ which then causes a conformational change in the protein _____________ which recruits the protein ______________ that then results in the recruitment of the _____________________ complex.	cdc42, WASP, WIP and Arp2/3
18. True or False “CD1b/c bind self lipid until they reach the endosome or MIIC and pick up high affinity lipid antigen”	True
19. " ____________ is generated by ____________ and acts as a second messenger by binding to its receptor on the ER that then stimulates ____________ receptors to cluster and release Ca2+ from the ER. This then opens _____________ or also known as __________ channels on the surface of the cell allowing Ca2+ to flow into the cell. "	IP3, PLC gamma, STIM1, CRAC, ORAI1
20. Small G proteins become actived when ____________ is exchanged for ____________ . To become active a ________________ _________________ _______________ ________________ must bind help this exchange	GTP, GDP, guanine nucleotide exchange factor
21. true/false? “MEK1 is the last kinase in the 3 kinase relay that translocates to the nucleus to activate the Elk1 transcription factor during T cell activation"	False
22. What is the binding domain on small G proteins that allow for their binding to PIP3 on the plasma membrane?	PH
23. T cell receptor complex is made up of the TCR and what other proteins which provide the ITAMs?	CD3e, CD3d, CD3g and zeta chains
24. true/false? "After TCR engagement of antigen Lck phosphorylates the ITAMs of the TCR complex which then helps recruit ZAP-70, which then autophosphorylates itself as well as gets phosphorylated by Lck to furthe potentiate the signal"	True
25. true/false? “TRAF6 is an important ubiquitin ligase for regulating tyrosine kinase receptor signaling by adding single ubiquitin molecules to K63 residues"	False

Exam 5:

Questions	Answers
true/false? “During the small Pre-B cell stage, Ig light chains are rearranged and undergo additional rearrangements, up to three more, if not productive the first time”	True
true/false? “During the late Pro-B cell stage, Ig heavy chains can undergo gene rearrangement only one time even if a productive Ig heavy chain is not produced on the first try”	False
In the early pro-B cell, the transcription factors _______________ and ______________ are essential for initiating gene segment rearrangement and securing the fate of the MPP to the B cell lineage	E2A and EBF
The two transcription factors E2A and EBF are required for expression of what two proteins that are important in starting somatic recombination in developing B cells?	RAG1 and RAG2
One possible outcome for a moderately self reactive immature B cell when it is tested for reactivity to self and is not clonally deleted is _______________________.	immunological ignorance
true/false? Stromal cell derived factor 1 is important in T cell development by preventing the T cell from leaving the thymus prematurely.	False
Late pro B cells transition into a large pre B when heavy chain is crosslinked with surrogate light chain composed of _____________ and _____________	Lambda 5 and VPreB
true/false? “Gene segment rearrangement of the heavy and light chain of the BCR is essential for B cell development in the bone marrow. After D-J gene rearrangement for the heavy chain, V segments then rearrange with a successful DJ. The developing B cell has 3 chances to successfully rearrange V segments with DJ segments on the heavy chain to generate a functional heavy chain that can be tested.”	False
The three transcription factors that guide the development of thymocytes in the thymus are ___________________, _____________________ and ___________________.	TCF1, GATA3 and Ikaros
What is the process by which a developing B cell prevents the expression of 2 different alleles of the BCR?	Allelic exclusion
true/false? In the experiment to demonstrate the importance of the thymus for T cell development 2 different types of immuno compromised mice were used, Nude mice and SCID mice. Bone marrow from the SCID mouse transplanted into the Nude mouse restored the Nude mouse T cell development. Thymus from the Nude mouse transplanted into the SCID mouse restored SCID mouse T cell development.	False
true/false. " B cell coreceptor helps activate the B cell when CD19 binds to C3df to bring the other members of the coreceptor into close proximity with the B cell receptor. This helps bring Lck into close proximity with the ITAM domain on the BCR"	False
The B cell coreceptor is made up of three proteins, what are they?	CD19, CD21, CD81
What two transcription factors regulate whether a double positive T cell becomes single positive for CD4 or CD8?	Runx3 and THPOK
Identify a type of B cell tolerance and where this tolerance occurs.	central and bone marrow
In a MHC Class II knockout mouse you will only find ___________ T cells in the peripheral lymphoid organs. In a MHC Class I knockout mouse you will only find _____________ T cells in the peripheral lymphoid organs	CD8 and CD4
true/false? Natural T regs develop during positive selection in the thymus. They are more self reactive than CD4 T cells, but do not self-react too strongly otherwise they would be eliminated.	True
During thymocyte (T cell) development, Double Negative cells (DN1-3/4) express _____________, ___________and _______________________ on their surface to help them progress through the developmental process	CD25, CD44 and cKit
true/false? “On their way to becoming single positive thymocytes and new T cells, developing double positive thymocytes continually express high levels of CD4 and but little CD8 until CD8 is expressed at a high level after self antigen recognition”	False
true/false? “After the large double positive thymocytes stop proliferating and become small double positive thymocytes the TCRa chains can rearrange.”	True
true/false? After an immature DC is triggered to activate, it will begin migrating towards a draining lymph node, increase the number of dendrites and its surface area and take up more antigen.	False
What two chemokines direct a naive T cell to migrate into a lymph node?	CCL21 and CCL19
In order to exit the lymph node via the efferent lymphatics the T cell must decrease expression of ________________________ and increase the expression of the receptor for S1P which is known as _____________________________	CD69 and S1PR1
true/false? Positive selection of developing thymocytes occurs when the cell is a DN4 cell and the the TCRbeta chain is tested along with Ptalpha.	False
true/false? B cells and T cells are both tested for self reactivity during development by going through both positive and negative selection.	False

Exam 6:

Questions	Answers
True/False. "An antigen that can stimulate of B cells without CD4+ T cell help is called a Thymus Independent Antigen."	True
The Fc receptor that is important for delivering maternal antibodies to a fetus and for increasing the half-life of antibodies in adult bodies is which of the following?	FcRn
After the B cell gets help from the Tfh if will start to proliferate. This proliferation creates what is known as the _______________ _____________ __ ____________ ____________. Where does this occur in the lymph node?	Primary Focus of Clonal Expansion, Medullary Cords
True/False "Dendritic cells can take up antigen via antigen transfer from another dendritic cell."	True
Fc receptors allow antibodies to activate immune cells thereby mediating antibodies effector functions. Name the process where antibodies can stimulate the cytotoxicity of an infected cell. What Fc receptor mediates this process?	ADCC and FcgRIII
true/false "ADCVI is an antibody dependent effector function that results in the cytoprotection of an infected cell and the inhibition of viral replication via IFN-gamma production"	True
Dendritic cells can take up antigen by gulping large amounts of extracellular fluids in a process known as ___________________.	macropinocytosis
Survival of an activated T cell is promoted by costimulation when the IL-2 receptor is modified by the addition of ____________________________.	IL-2 receptor alpha
Match the following T cell expressed costimulatory molecules with their cognate partners on the APC.	ICOS → ICOSL CD27 → CD70 CD40L → CD40 OX40 → OX40L
Cytotoxic T cells secrete 3 effector proteins when they are killing a target cell. What are those proteins?	granulysin, perforin and granzyme B
true/false "Granzyme B can kill a cell by cleaving pro-caspase 8 into active caspase which then degrades BID into dBID which then releases cytochrome C from the mitochondria to initiate the cell intrinsic apoptosis pathway"	False
true/false " A CD4 T cell helps a CD8 T cell become activated through crosstalk with a DCvia CD40L-CD40 interactions. This causes the DC to increase B7.1 and B7.2 and 41BBL expression to more strongly costimulate the CD8 T cell"	True
Identify the 5 different T helper types that naive CD4 T cells can differentiate into.	Th1, Th2, Th17, Tfh, iTreg
A Th1 CD4 T cell develops in response to which cytokines?	IL-12p70 and IL-18
What is the name of the transcription factor important for regulating the differentiation of a Th0 cell into a Th1 cell?	Tbet
true/false " An inducible T regulatory cell will develop directly from a Th0 cell without first being activated in a Th1 or a Th2 manner"	False
What is a major difference in the antigen specificity of a natural T regulatory cell compared to an inducible T regulatory cell?	nTreg recognizes self antigen, iTreg recognizes foreign antigen
true/false "IL-6 and TGFbeta are the two cytokines that start a Th0 cell to differentiate into a Th17 cell"	True
true/false “Th17 responses cross regulate Th1 responses by IL-17 suppressing Tbet expression”	False
Complement receptor 2 of the B cell co-receptor complex binds to.	C3d and C3dg
What type of antigen activates a B cell when there is CD4 T cell help?	thymus dependent
T helper cell recognition of peptides presented by a B cell that are derived from the same antigen that the BCR bound to prior to antigen uptake is known as __________________ ____________________ .	hinged interaction unlinked recognition thymus dependent recognition linked interaction none of the above
true/false "In order for a B cell to find a helper T cell in a lymph node after activation the B cell migrates to the border of the follicle towards the T cell rich area by increasing expression of CCR7 while the CD4 T cell increases expression of CXCR5 and migrates to the border of the T cell rich area towards the follicle "	True
true/false "B cells proliferate in the light zone of the germinal center and are known as centrocytes. They do this by expressing the chemokine receptor CXCR4."	False
What is the protein that helps transport IgA from the basolateral side of gut epithelium via transcytosis to the lumen of the gut?	polymeric immunoglobulin receptor

Exam 7:

Question	Answer
What types of T cells can regulate self reactive lymphocytes?	nTreg and iTreg
What two components of the immune response make up what is known as "protective immunity"?	initial effector responses which clear the pathogen and immune memory
true/false. "Immune privileged sites are tightly regulated in 3 ways, 1. communication between the privileged sites and the periphery are tightly controlled, 2. Soluble regulatory cytokines are expressed at higher levels than inflammatory cytokines and released with antigens, and 3. FasL expression is high in immuno-privileged sites."	True
What is an additional checkpoint other than AIRE expression that contributes to breaking self tolerance?	Anitgen availability and segregation change
true/false. "Immunological memory responses are known as secondary or tertiary responses depending on how many exposure have occurred"	True
What is the type of immune response called just after a pathogen gains entry into our system which is provided by naive lymphocytes being activated?	Primary
true/false. "The pathogen reaches its maximum load in the body when the adaptive immune response is fully working during the primary immune response. This is then followed by elimination of the pathogen and activate B cells and T cells undergo apoptosis dropping in number during what is called the contraction phase."	True
What are the first two phases of infection?	local surface infection then penetration and local internal infection
What are the last two infection phases?	lymphatic spread of infection antigen and infection clearance in LN as well as peripheral sites
true/false. "Pathogens decide their own fate by stimulating the immune response that has limited ability to control and eliminate them."	False
How many innate lymphoid cell types are there in the ILC group?	5 ?
true/false. "Group 1 ILCs include natural killer cells and ILC3."	False
What is the name of the transcriptional regulator that all ILCs are positive for during development?	ID2
true/false " The transcription factors required for group 1 ILC development are Tbet and RORgT."	False
What are the two cytokines that ILC3 produce in response to an infection?	IL-17 and IL-22
After ILC2 are activated to produce the cytokines IL-13 and IL-5, what types of cells to they help recruit to the site of activation?	eosinophils, mast cells and basophils
true/false "Th1 responses are required for immune control of Toxoplasma gondii. In experiments testing the role of the adaptor protein MyD88, MyD88 knockout mice were used. When infected with Toxoplasma gondii, it was determined that MyD88 was not needed for the development of Th1 immunity to the parasite because IL-12 and IFN gamma levels were normal in the knockouts compared to wild type mice and the knockout animals lived."	False
What was the antibody specific too that helped BALBc mice survive Leishmania infection?	IL-4
Where and when do memory B cells develop during a primary immune response?	in the germinal center and during contraction
true/false "Memory T cells were identified and defined after cells expressing the IL-7 receptor at high levels were adoptively transferred to naive animals. Only IL-7 receptor high cells not IL-7 receptor low cells expanded after secondary challenge infection in the naive recipients."	true
What are the two types of memory T cells called?	effector memory cells and central memory cells
What protein differentiates whether a memory T cell is an effector memory cell or a central memory cell?	CCR7
What is the name of immune reactions to our own proteins and what is the name of of immune reactions to transplanted tissues?	autoimmunity and allograft rejection
What are 3 of the checkpoints that prevent development of autoimmunity?	Tregs, central tolerance and peripheral tolerance
What is the name of the transcription factor responsible for the expression of self antigens in the thymus?	AIRE