BIO

1. A patient eats a meal and the nutrients undergo physical and chemical breakdown before being absorbed. Which process involves the mechanical and enzyme-assisted breakdown of food?
A. Assimilation
B. Digestion
C. Excretion
D. Biotransformation

2. A substance enters the body and is converted into an active metabolite that can be used by the body. What process is occurring?
A. Absorption
B. Assimilation
C. Biotransformation
D. Excretion

3. A nurse explains that biochemistry focuses on macromolecules and their metabolic activities in the human body. Which field is being described?
A. Organic chemistry
B. Molecular biochemistry
C. General chemistry
D. Inorganic chemistry

4. A patient receives a solution containing NaCl dissolved in water. The solution conducts electricity because NaCl produces ions. What type of substance is this?
A. Non-electrolyte
B. Weak electrolyte
C. Strong electrolyte
D. Organic compound

5. A student dissolves a substance in water and observes that only a small portion becomes ionized. Which classification is most appropriate?
A. Strong electrolyte
B. Weak electrolyte
C. Non-electrolyte
D. Salt

6. A patient drinks a substance that dissolves in water but does not produce ions. Which classification describes it?
A. Strong electrolyte
B. Weak electrolyte
C. Non-electrolyte
D. Strong acid

7. Hydrochloric acid completely ionizes when placed in water. How should HCl be classified?
A. Weak electrolyte
B. Non-electrolyte
C. Strong electrolyte
D. Buffer

8. A chemical reaction proceeds in both directions, with products capable of becoming reactants again. What type of reaction is this?
A. Irreversible reaction
B. Reversible reaction
C. Hydrolysis
D. Ionization

9. In a chemical system, the forward and reverse reactions occur at the same rate. What state has been reached?
A. Ionization
B. Chemical equilibrium
C. Biotransformation
D. Excretion

10. During a reaction, a student identifies the arrow pointing toward product formation. What does this represent?
A. Reverse reaction
B. Forward reaction
C. Equilibrium
D. Ionization

11. A patient has a substance that can donate a proton according to the Brønsted-Lowry theory. How should the substance be classified?
A. Base
B. Acid
C. Salt
D. Electrolyte

12. A substance accepts a proton during a chemical reaction. According to Brønsted-Lowry theory, it is a:
A. Base
B. Acid
C. Buffer
D. Salt

13. A chemistry instructor asks which theory defines an acid as a proton donor. Which theory should the student select?
A. Arrhenius
B. Lewis
C. Brønsted-Lowry
D. Sorensen

14. A substance accepts an electron pair during a chemical reaction. According to Lewis theory, it is a:
A. Lewis acid
B. Lewis base
C. Brønsted acid
D. Salt

15. A patient has a substance that can both accept and donate a proton. Which property does this substance demonstrate?
A. Non-electrolytic behavior
B. Amphiprotic behavior
C. Irreversible behavior
D. Hydrophobic behavior

16. A nurse needs to determine whether a patient’s body fluid is acidic or alkaline. Which measurement should be considered?
A. pH
B. Temperature
C. Osmolarity
D. Protein concentration

17. A laboratory student measures hydrogen ion concentration to determine acidity. What measurement is being used?
A. pH
B. ATP
C. HCO₃
D. NaCl

18. A patient receives a solution designed to prevent a major change in pH after administration of a strong acid. What type of solution is this?
A. Electrolyte
B. Buffer
C. Non-electrolyte
D. Isotonic solution

19. A buffer is prepared using a weak acid and its salt. Which type of buffer has been prepared?
A. Acid buffer
B. Base buffer
C. Strong buffer
D. Neutral buffer

20. A buffer contains a weak base and the salt of that weak base. What type of buffer is this?
A. Acid buffer
B. Base buffer
C. Strong acid
D. Strong electrolyte

Module 3: Acidosis, Alkalosis & ABG

21. A patient is found unconscious after drowning. Excess CO₂ has accumulated in the body. Which acid-base disorder is most likely?
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

22. A patient has severe hypoventilation. CO₂ is retained in the blood and carbonic acid increases. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis

23. A patient has kidney failure and retains phosphoric and sulfuric acids. Which condition may develop?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis

24. A patient with diabetes mellitus develops severe ketosis and abnormal acid-base balance. Which condition is most consistent with this situation?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis

25. A patient has persistent diarrhea with loss of bicarbonate. Which acid-base disturbance is most likely?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

26. A patient has prolonged vomiting and loses large amounts of gastric HCl. Which condition is likely?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

27. A patient has been taking excessive alkaline drugs. The patient’s blood pH increases. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis

28. A patient is breathing abnormally deeply and rapidly. Which acid-base imbalance can result from excessive loss of CO₂?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis

29. A patient with respiratory alkalosis develops muscle weakness and cramps. Which situation most likely contributed to the disorder?
A. Hypoventilation
B. Hyperventilation
C. Kidney failure
D. Persistent vomiting

30. A patient has metabolic acidosis. Which compensatory response may occur through the kidneys?
A. Decreased acid excretion
B. Increased acid excretion
C. Increased CO₂ retention
D. Decreased ammonia production

31. A patient has respiratory acidosis. Which mechanism can help compensate?
A. Increased ventilation
B. Decreased ventilation
C. Increased CO₂ retention
D. Decreased acid excretion

32. Before obtaining an arterial blood sample from the radial artery, the nurse performs a test to assess collateral circulation. What test is required?
A. Romberg test
B. Allen’s test
C. Apgar test
D. Weber test

33. During an Allen’s test, the nurse is primarily assessing the adequacy of which artery’s collateral circulation?
A. Femoral artery
B. Ulnar artery
C. Carotid artery
D. Brachial artery

34. A nurse fails to perform an Allen’s test before radial artery puncture. What complication is the test intended to help prevent?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Ischemic injury to the hand
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Protein deficiency

35. A patient with metabolic acidosis is being treated. Which intervention listed in the reviewer may be used?
A. Sodium bicarbonate with fluids and electrolytes
B. Restriction of all fluids
C. Administration of strong acid
D. Increased gastric HCl

Module 4: Cell

36. A student examines cork under a microscope and identifies structures that lead to the development of cell theory. Who made this observation?
A. Robert Brown
B. Robert Hooke
C. Theodor Schwann
D. Rudolf Virchow

37. A student studies the nucleus of a cell and learns that it was discovered by observing plant material. Who discovered the nucleus?
A. Robert Brown
B. Robert Hooke
C. Matthias Schleiden
D. Rudolf Virchow

38. A biology student states that all plants are composed of cells. Which scientist is associated with this discovery?
A. Theodor Schwann
B. Matthias Schleiden
C. Robert Hooke
D. Rudolf Virchow

39. A student explains that animals are made up of cells. Which scientist is associated with this part of cell theory?
A. Matthias Schleiden
B. Robert Brown
C. Theodor Schwann
D. Robert Hooke

40. A nurse explains that cells arise from preexisting cells rather than spontaneously appearing. Which scientist supported this concept?
A. Rudolf Virchow
B. Robert Hooke
C. Robert Brown
D. Schleiden

41. A microorganism has DNA that is not enclosed by a nuclear membrane and lacks membrane-bound organelles. What type of cell is it?
A. Eukaryotic
B. Prokaryotic
C. Plant
D. Animal

42. A cell contains DNA enclosed inside a nucleus and has membrane-bound organelles. Which classification is appropriate?
A. Prokaryote
B. Eukaryote
C. Bacterium
D. Virus

43. A researcher examines a cell containing a cell wall made primarily of cellulose and a large central sap vacuole. What type of cell is being examined?
A. Animal cell
B. Plant cell
C. Prokaryotic cell
D. Red blood cell

44. A cell has centrosomes and centrioles but no cell wall or plastids. What type of cell is most likely?
A. Plant cell
B. Animal cell
C. Bacterial cell
D. Fungal cell

45. A patient has a genetic trait that appears in every generation of a family. Based on the reviewer’s terminology, what type of trait is this?
A. Recessive
B. Dominant
C. Mutated
D. Acquired

46. A genetic trait disappears in one generation and appears again in a later generation. Which term best describes it?
A. Dominant trait
B. Recessive trait
C. Somatic trait
D. Acquired trait

47. A patient has a cell that contains the genetic control center and regulates cellular metabolic activities. Which organelle is being described?
A. Ribosome
B. Nucleus
C. Lysosome
D. Golgi apparatus

48. A cell needs to produce proteins. Which organelle directly joins amino acids together to form proteins?
A. Ribosome
B. Lysosome
C. Vacuole
D. Mitochondrion

49. A patient’s cells require large amounts of ATP for their activities. Which organelle is most directly responsible for generating ATP?
A. Golgi apparatus
B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosome
D. Nucleus

50. A cell is processing and temporarily storing cellular products. Which organelle is primarily involved?
A. Ribosome
B. Golgi apparatus
C. Nucleus
D. Centrosome

51. A researcher examines a network of tubes responsible for transporting substances through the cell. Which organelle is being described?
A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Lysosome
C. Nucleolus
D. Centrosome

52. A cell is transporting proteins produced by ribosomes. Which type of endoplasmic reticulum is primarily involved?
A. Smooth ER
B. Rough ER
C. Nuclear ER
D. Golgi ER

53. A cell is transporting cellular products other than proteins. Which structure is most appropriate?
A. Smooth ER
B. Rough ER
C. Ribosome
D. Nucleolus

54. A cell contains organelles filled with potent hydrolytic enzymes that digest cellular materials. Which organelle is this?
A. Lysosome
B. Ribosome
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Mitochondrion

55. A patient has a cell with a temporary storage site for food, water, and cellular waste. Which organelle performs this function?
A. Vacuole
B. Ribosome
C. Nucleus
D. Centrosome

56. A cell is preparing to divide. Which organelle helps regulate cellular reproduction or division?
A. Centrosome
B. Lysosome
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Ribosome

57. A patient’s cells need their primary fuel for metabolic activities. Which nutrient is considered the main source of energy in the reviewer?
A. Protein
B. Carbohydrate
C. Fat
D. Electrolyte

58. A patient has stored carbohydrate that can be broken down to produce glucose and subsequently ATP. What substance is being described?
A. Glycogen
B. Triglyceride
C. Collagen
D. Albumin

59. A patient’s body requires a second major source of energy stored as triglycerides in adipose tissue. Which nutrient is this?
A. Carbohydrate
B. Fat
C. Protein
D. Water

60. A patient develops swelling of red blood cells after being given a solution with less than 0.9% NaCl. What type of solution caused this?
A. Isotonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Hypertonic
D. Neutral

61. A patient receives 0.9% NaCl and the cells experience no significant change in size. What type of solution is this?
A. Hypotonic
B. Hypertonic
C. Isotonic
D. Acidic

62. A patient’s cells shrink after exposure to a solution containing more than 0.9% NaCl. What type of solution is responsible?
A. Hypotonic
B. Isotonic
C. Hypertonic
D. Amphoteric

63. A laboratory test identifies the major intracellular positive ion as potassium. Which electrolyte is being described?
A. Na⁺
B. K⁺
C. Cl⁻
D. Ca²⁺

64. A patient has an electrolyte that is the major extracellular positive ion. Which one is it?
A. K⁺
B. PO₃⁻
C. Na⁺
D. H⁺

Module 5: Amino Acids

65. A patient requires the basic building blocks used to form proteins. Which substances should the nurse identify?
A. Fatty acids
B. Amino acids
C. Glucose molecules
D. Electrolytes

66. A student’s amino acid has an amino group that gives it basic properties. Which functional group is being discussed?
A. Carboxyl group
B. Amino group
C. Side chain
D. Carbonyl group

67. A student is asked which part of an amino acid determines its individual characteristics. Which answer is correct?
A. Amino group
B. Carboxyl group
C. Side chain
D. Hydrogen atom

68. A molecule contains a carboxyl group responsible for its acidic property. Which type of molecule is being described?
A. Amino acid
B. Triglyceride
C. Carbohydrate
D. Electrolyte

69. A student needs to identify the amino acid that is not optically active because its side chain is hydrogen. Which amino acid is it?
A. Alanine
B. Glycine
C. Leucine
D. Valine

70. An amino acid exists with both a positive and negative charge within the same molecule. What form is this?
A. Peptide
B. Zwitterion
C. Electrolyte
D. Protein

71. A patient has amino acids that can function as both acids and bases. What property explains this?
A. Amphoteric property
B. Hydrophobic property
C. Isotonic property
D. Denaturation

72. A laboratory technician determines the pH at which an amino acid has zero net charge. What is being determined?
A. pH maximum
B. Isoelectric point
C. Buffer point
D. Equilibrium point

73. An amino acid is placed in a solution above its isoelectric point. Which charge is favored according to the reviewer?
A. Cationic
B. Anionic
C. Neutral only
D. No charge

74. An amino acid is placed below its isoelectric point. Which form is favored?
A. Anionic
B. Cationic
C. Neutral
D. Nonpolar

75. A patient needs an amino acid that contains sulfur. Which amino acid is appropriate?
A. Methionine
B. Valine
C. Aspartic acid
D. Serine

76. A student is asked to identify an amino acid containing an aromatic ring. Which answer is correct?
A. Phenylalanine
B. Lysine
C. Methionine
D. Proline

77. A patient requires an amino acid with a hydroxyl-containing side chain. Which could be selected?
A. Serine
B. Leucine
C. Arginine
D. Phenylalanine

78. A student identifies an amino acid whose side chain contains an amide group. Which amino acid belongs to this group?
A. Glutamine
B. Valine
C. Lysine
D. Methionine

79. A student identifies proline and notices that its amino group is incorporated into a five-membered pyrrolidine ring. What classification does it have?
A. Aromatic amino acid
B. Imino acid
C. Acidic amino acid
D. Sulfur-containing amino acid

80. A patient cannot synthesize a particular amino acid adequately in the body and must obtain it from food. What type of amino acid is this?
A. Non-essential
B. Essential
C. Derived
D. Conditionally inactive

81. A student is asked to identify an essential amino acid from the reviewer’s list. Which is correct?
A. Glycine
B. Alanine
C. Leucine
D. Glutamic acid

82. A patient under physiological stress requires an amino acid that is normally non-essential but may become essential. What classification applies?
A. Conditionally essential
B. Purely ketogenic
C. Nonpolar
D. Aromatic

83. A patient’s diet is being evaluated for amino acids that enter pathways providing substrates for gluconeogenesis. What classification applies?
A. Purely glucogenic
B. Purely ketogenic
C. Acidic
D. Aromatic

84. A patient requires an amino acid that is converted to ketone bodies. Which metabolic classification applies?
A. Purely glucogenic
B. Purely ketogenic
C. Conditionally essential
D. Nonpolar

85. A student is reviewing amino acids that are both ketogenic and glucogenic. Which amino acid is included in this category?
A. Leucine
B. Isoleucine
C. Lysine
D. Glycine

Module 6–7: Proteins & Peptide Bonds

86. A patient needs a macromolecule made up of many amino acids joined by peptide linkages. What substance is being described?
A. Protein
B. Fat
C. Carbohydrate
D. Electrolyte

87. During protein formation, two amino acids join and release water. What type of reaction forms the peptide bond?
A. Oxidation
B. Condensation
C. Ionization
D. Neutralization

88. A laboratory student observes a covalent bond connecting amino acids in a protein. What type of bond is it?
A. Hydrogen bond
B. Peptide bond
C. Ionic bond
D. Disulfide bond

89. A protein contains only a small number of amino acids joined together. What is this structure called?
A. Oligopeptide
B. Protein
C. Lipoprotein
D. Nucleoprotein

90. A chain contains many amino acids joined by peptide bonds. What is the product called?
A. Dipeptide
B. Polypeptide
C. Monosaccharide
D. Triglyceride

91. A student is asked to identify the first end of a peptide sequence containing the free amino group. Which end should be identified?
A. C-terminus
B. N-terminus
C. R-terminus
D. Peptide terminus

92. A protein’s amino acid sequence is being identified. Which level of protein structure describes the linear arrangement of amino acids?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

93. A protein folds into helices and sheets because of interactions within the polypeptide chain. Which structural level is being described?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

94. A protein’s three-dimensional shape results from interactions involving its side chains. Which structural level is this?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

95. A protein is composed of more than one amino acid chain. Which structural level is being described?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

96. A laboratory technician exposes a protein to heat, acids, bases, or heavy metals and observes changes in its structure. What process is occurring?
A. Hydrolysis
B. Denaturation
C. Ionization
D. Assimilation

97. A student is studying a protein that provides mechanical strength to hair, nails, and feathers. Which protein is being described?
A. Collagen
B. Keratin
C. Albumin
D. Hemoglobin

98. A patient requires a protein that provides structural support to connective tissues such as bones and cartilage. Which protein is most appropriate?
A. Collagen
B. Insulin
C. Albumin
D. Glucagon

99. A child presents with severe wasting, loss of muscle and fat, no edema, and an appearance described as very thin. Which condition from the reviewer is most consistent?
A. Kwashiorkor
B. Marasmus
C. Sickle-cell disease
D. Micronutrient deficiency

100. A child develops generalized edema, skin changes, loss of appetite, diarrhea, and fatty enlargement of the liver after inadequate protein intake. Which condition is most likely?
A. Marasmus
B. Kwashiorkor
C. Atrophy
D. Metabolic acidosis