Cardiovascular SCAQ

1. What is the best patient position for cardiovascular assessment?
   A) Supine with legs elevated
   B) Sitting upright
   C) Head of bed elevated at 30-45 degrees
   D) Lying flat on the abdomen

2. The apex of the heart is located at:
   A) 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line
   B) 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line
   C) 4th intercostal space, midaxillary line
   D) 6th intercostal space, left sternal border

3. Which heart sound is best heard at the apex?
   A) S1
   B) S2
   C) S3
   D) S4

4. Pallor in a cardiovascular assessment may indicate:
   A) Pulmonary edema
   B) Anemia or poor perfusion
   C) Increased blood flow
   D) Respiratory distress

5. Cyanosis is often associated with:
   A) Hyperlipidemia
   B) Poor peripheral perfusion
   C) Increased oxygen saturation
   D) High blood pressure

6. Peripheral edema is commonly seen in:
   A) Pulmonary embolism
   B) Congestive heart failure
   C) Aortic dissection
   D) Atrial fibrillation

7. Splinter hemorrhages in the nails may indicate:
   A) Pulmonary hypertension
   B) Infective endocarditis
   C) Mitral valve prolapse
   D) Aortic stenosis

8. Janeway lesions are:
   A) Painful nodules found on the fingers
   B) Painless red macules on the palms and soles
   C) Associated with high cholesterol
   D) Found in aortic regurgitation

9. Osler’s nodes are:
   A) Non-tender lesions on the feet
   B) Painless areas of skin breakdown
   C) Tender, raised nodules found on the fingers
   D) Swelling in the jugular veins

10. Finger clubbing may be a sign of:
    A) Congenital cyanotic heart disease
    B) Acute pericarditis
    C) Essential hypertension
    D) Atrial fibrillation

11. Cool and clammy hands are typically seen in:
    A) Acute coronary syndrome
    B) Hyperthyroidism
    C) Vasodilation
    D) Anemia

12. Capillary refill time (CRT) greater than 2 seconds suggests:
    A) Normal circulation
    B) Poor peripheral perfusion
    C) Vasodilation
    D) High cardiac output

13. A weak and thready pulse (+1) may indicate:
    A) Hypertension
    B) Shock
    C) Hyperthyroidism
    D) Aortic stenosis

14. A bounding pulse (+4) is often found in:
    A) Aortic regurgitation
    B) Dehydration
    C) Bradycardia
    D) Mitral stenosis

15. Radio-radial delay may indicate:
    A) Atrial fibrillation
    B) Aortic coarctation
    C) Pulmonary hypertension
    D) Tricuspid regurgitation

16. Carotid pulse assessment should always be done after:
    A) Checking for a carotid bruit
    B) Measuring blood pressure
    C) Assessing the femoral artery
    D) Assessing JVP

17. A carotid bruit suggests:
    A) Carotid artery stenosis
    B) Increased blood flow
    C) Hypotension
    D) Ventricular septal defect

18. Jugular venous pressure (JVP) is used to assess:
    A) Left atrial pressure
    B) Right heart function
    C) Aortic valve function
    D) Left ventricular hypertrophy

19. A JVP measurement greater than 3 cm indicates:
    A) Normal pressure
    B) Jugular venous distension
    C) Dehydration
    D) Low cardiac output

20. Xanthelasma is a sign of:
    A) Low blood pressure
    B) Hypercholesterolemia
    C) Anemia
    D) Poor circulation

21. Conjunctival pallor is most commonly associated with:
    A) High cholesterol
    B) Mitral valve prolapse
    C) Anemia
    D) Hypertension

22. The apex beat is normally found at the:
    A) 2nd intercostal space
    B) 4th intercostal space
    C) 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line
    D) 6th intercostal space

23. A heave on palpation suggests:
    A) Left ventricular hypertrophy
    B) Right ventricular hypertrophy
    C) Atrial fibrillation
    D) Aortic regurgitation

24. A thrill is best described as:
    A) A normal heart sound
    B) A palpable murmur
    C) A pulse deficit
    D) An extra heart sound

25. The bell of the stethoscope is best used for:
    A) High-pitched sounds
    B) Low-pitched sounds
    C) Lung sounds
    D) Measuring pulse

26. The diaphragm of the stethoscope is used for:
    A) Low-pitched sounds
    B) High-pitched sounds
    C) Detecting thrills
    D) Measuring JVP

27. S1 heart sound is best heard at:
    A) Aortic area
    B) Pulmonic area
    C) Apex of the heart
    D) Tricuspid area

28. S2 heart sound is best heard at:
    A) Mitral area
    B) Apex of the heart
    C) Aortic and pulmonic areas
    D) Carotid artery

29. S3 heart sound may indicate:
    A) Normal heart function in young adults
    B) Severe mitral stenosis
    C) Pulmonary embolism
    D) Aortic dissection

30. S4 heart sound is commonly found in:
    A) Atrial fibrillation
    B) Hypertension
    C) Heart failure
    D) Cardiac tamponade

31. Aortic stenosis murmur is best heard at:
    A) Apex of the heart
    B) Aortic area
    C) Tricuspid area
    D) Pulmonic area

32. A mitral regurgitation murmur is best heard at:
    A) Left lower sternal border
    B) Pulmonic area
    C) Apex of the heart
    D) Carotid artery

33. Aortic regurgitation is best heard with the patient:
    A) Lying supine
    B) Sitting up and leaning forward
    C) In left lateral position
    D) Standing upright

34. Mitral stenosis is best heard in:
    A) Aortic area
    B) Pulmonic area
    C) Left lateral decubitus position
    D) Sitting upright

Answer Key

1 C | 2. B | 3. A | 4. B | 5. B | 6. B | 7. B | 8. B | 9. C | 10. A

11 A | 12. B | 13. B | 14. A | 15. B | 16. A | 17. A | 18. B | 19. B | 20. B

21 C | 22. C | 23. B | 24. B | 25. B | 26. B | 27. C | 28. C | 29. A | 30. B

31 B | 32. C | 33. B | 34. C