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Okay, I can help you generate multiple-choice test questions based on the information provided in the CP Chemistry Semester 2 Final Review excerpts.

Okay, I can help you generate multiple-choice test questions based on the information provided in the CP Chemistry Semester 2 Final Review excerpts. These questions cover the topics listed in the review guide: Formula Writing, Naming Compounds & Equations, Moles and Stoichiometry, Gas Laws, Thermodynamics, Acids and Bases, and Nuclear Chemistry.

Here are multiple-choice questions derived directly from the sources, including the correct answer and plausible distractors. The correct answer is bolded, and the source supporting the correct answer is cited.

Formula Writing, Naming Compounds & Equations

  1. Elements in which arrangement on the Periodic Table have similar chemical properties?

    • A) Periods

    • B) Columns

    • C) Rows

    • D) Blocks

  2. What is the correct chemical name for KBr?

    • A) Potassium bromate

    • B) Potassium(I) bromide

    • C) Bromine potasside

    • D) Potassium bromide

  3. What is the correct chemical name for FeCl3?

    • A) Iron chloride

    • B) Iron(II) chloride

    • C) Triiron chloride

    • D) Iron(III) chloride

  4. What is the neutral chemical formula for Diphosphorus pentoxide?

    • A) P5O2

    • B) PO5

    • C) P2O2

    • D) P2O5

  5. Which of the following is a polyatomic ion?

    • A) Na+

    • B) Cl-

    • C) S^-2

    • D) PO4^-3

  6. Which of the following is a diatomic element?

    • A) Ne

    • B) Au

    • C) Ca

    • D) Cl2

  7. In the compound 2 Ca3(PO4)2, how many total Calcium atoms are represented?

    • A) 3

    • B) 2

    • C) 4

    • D) 6

  8. In the compound Ca3(PO4)2, what is the charge of the Calcium ion?

    • A) +3

    • B) +2

    • C) -2

    • D) -3

  9. What are the coefficients needed to balance the equation: NaBr + Cl2 -> NaCl + Br2?

    • A) 1, 1, 1, 1

    • B) 1, 2, 2, 1

    • C) 2, 1, 2, 1

    • D) 2, 2, 2, 1

  10. For the nuclide represented as 23/11 Na, what is the atomic number?

    • A) 23

    • B) 34

    • C) 12

    • D) 11

  11. Which of the following is a way to identify that a chemical change has taken place?

    • A) Change in state (e.g., melting)

    • B) Change in shape

    • C) Change in mass

    • D) Production of a gas

  12. What is a precipitate in a chemical reaction?

    • A) A liquid that forms

    • B) A gas that is released

    • C) A solid that is produced

    • D) Energy that is absorbed

  13. What type of chemical reaction is represented by the equation C + O2 -> CO2?

    • A) Decomposition

    • B) Synthesis

    • C) Single replacement

    • D) Combustion

Moles and Stoichiometry

  1. What is the value of Avogadro's number?

    • A) 1.01 x 10^23

    • B) 22.4

    • C) 6.02 x 10^23

    • D) 6.02 x 10^22

  2. What is the standard volume for one mole of any gas at Standard Temperature and Pressure (STP)?

    • A) 1.00 L

    • B) 6.02 x 10^23 L

    • C) 1 mole

    • D) 22.4 L

  3. What is the approximate molar mass of CO2?

    • A) 28 g/mol

    • B) 32 g/mol

    • C) 12 g/mol

    • D) 44 g/mol

  4. Approximately how many grams are present in 3.5 moles of CH4?

    • A) 3.5 g

    • B) 16 g

    • C) 0.22 g

    • D) 56 g

  5. Based on the reaction 2 C2H6(g) + 7 O2(g) --> 4 CO2(g) + 6 H2O(g), if you start with 24.3 L of C2H6 at STP and excess oxygen, approximately how many grams of H2O would be produced?

    • A) 24.3 g

    • B) 18.0 g

    • C) 75.6 g

    • D) 58.58 g

Gas Laws

  1. Boyle's Law describes the relationship between the volume and pressure of a gas at constant temperature. What is this relationship?

    • A) Direct

    • B) Indirect

    • C) No relationship

    • D) Exponential

  2. Gay-Lussac's Law relates the pressure and temperature of a gas at constant volume. What is this relationship?

    • A) Direct

    • B) Indirect

    • C) Inverse squared

    • D) Logarithmic

  3. What is the name of the equation PV=nRT?

    • A) Combined gas law

    • B) Boyle's Law

    • C) Charles's Law

    • D) Ideal gas law

  4. Which of the following is a common unit for measuring pressure in gas law calculations?

    • A) Liters

    • B) Kelvin

    • C) Moles

    • D) atm

  5. What is standard temperature in degrees Celsius?

    • A) 0 °C

    • B) 25 °C

    • C) 100 °C

    • D) -273 °C

  6. According to Boyle's Law, if the volume of a gas decreases at constant temperature, what happens to its pressure?

    • A) It decreases.

    • B) It stays the same.

    • C) It increases.

    • D) It becomes zero.

  7. If the temperature of a gas sample increases while the volume is held constant, what happens to the pressure?

    • A) It decreases.

    • B) It stays the same.

    • C) It increases.

    • D) It becomes zero.

Thermodynamics (Endothermic, Exothermic & Specific Heat)

  1. Consider the reaction: Energy + NH3OH -> NH4+ + OH-. Is this reaction endothermic or exothermic?

    • A) Exothermic

    • B) Endothermic

    • C) Neither

    • D) Both

  2. In an endothermic reaction, which has a higher energy content?

    • A) The reactants

    • B) The transition state

    • C) The catalyst

    • D) The products

  3. What is the sign of the enthalpy change (ΔH) for an endothermic reaction?

    • A) Negative

    • B) Positive

    • C) Zero

    • D) Can be positive or negative

  4. What term is used to describe the potential energy or heat content of a system in chemistry?

    • A) Entropy

    • B) Activation energy

    • C) Enthalpy

    • D) Specific heat

  5. What is activation energy?

    • A) The total energy released in a reaction

    • B) The energy of the products

    • C) The minimum energy required to start a reaction

    • D) The energy gained by a catalyst

  6. How do catalysts typically affect a chemical reaction?

    • A) They increase the energy of the products.

    • B) They lower the activation energy needed to start the reaction.

    • C) They are consumed during the reaction.

    • D) They change the enthalpy change of the reaction.

  7. What happens to the temperature of the surroundings (like a test tube) when an exothermic reaction takes place?

    • A) It decreases (gets cold).

    • B) It increases (gets hot).

    • C) It stays the same.

    • D) It fluctuates randomly.

  8. A 10 g metal cylinder loses 242.46 Joules of heat when cooling from 96 degrees C to 42 degrees C. Calculate its specific heat.

    • A) 2.42 J/g°C

    • B) 96.0 J/g°C

    • C) 4.49 J/g°C

    • D) 0.449 J/g°C

Acids and Bases

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic property of an acid?

    • A) Feels slippery

    • B) Tastes bitter

    • C) Has a pH above 7

    • D) Reacts with a base to produce salt and water

  2. Which of the following is a characteristic property of a base?

    • A) Ionizes to produce H+ ions in water

    • B) Has a pH below 7

    • C) Tastes sour (Information not found in sources)

    • D) Ionizes to produce OH- ions in water

  3. When an acid and a base react in a neutralization reaction, what products are formed?

    • A) Acid and base

    • B) Gas and precipitate

    • C) Salt and water

    • D) Only water

  4. What ion do acids produce when they ionize in water?

    • A) OH-

    • B) Cl-

    • C) Na+

    • D) H+

  5. What is the approximate pH range for a strong acid?

    • A) 6-8

    • B) 3-6

    • C) 7-14

    • D) 0-2

  6. Which of the following pH values would indicate a weak base?

    • A) 2

    • B) 7

    • C) 8

    • D) 13

  7. What is the chemical formula for Sulfuric acid?

    • A) HCl

    • B) HNO3

    • C) H2CO3

    • D) H2SO4

  8. Where is Acetic acid commonly found?

    • A) Car batteries

    • B) Fertilizer

    • C) Vinegar

    • D) Milk of Magnesia

Nuclear

  1. Which of the following is a factor one must consider when evaluating the potential danger of radiation exposure?

    • A) The color of the radiation source

    • B) The density of the shielding material

    • C) The temperature of the environment

    • D) The time exposed to the source

  2. What is half-life in the context of radioactive decay?

    • A) The time it takes for a substance to become completely harmless

    • B) The time it takes for radiation to reach a detector

    • C) The time it takes for half of a radioactive sample to decay

    • D) The time it takes for a nucleus to split

  3. What type of radiation is represented by the symbol 4/2 He?

    • A) Alpha

    • B) Beta

    • C) Gamma

    • D) Neutron

  4. What type of shielding is typically needed to stop beta radiation?

    • A) A few sheets of paper

    • B) Several feet of concrete or lead

    • C) Skin or lead

    • D) Nothing is needed

  5. What is the primary difference between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion?

    • A) Fission releases less energy than fusion.

    • B) Fusion is used in nuclear power plants, while fission is used in stars.

    • C) Fission involves splitting a nucleus, while fusion involves joining nuclei.

    • D) Fission requires high temperatures, while fusion does not.

  6. Where does radon gas originate?

    • A) From the burning of fossil fuels

    • B) From nuclear waste storage sites

    • C) From cosmic rays interacting with the atmosphere

    • D) From soil containing Uranium

  7. What particle is typically used to initiate a nuclear fission reaction?

    • A) Proton

    • B) Electron

    • C) Neutron

    • D) Alpha particle

  8. What is ionizing radiation?

    • A) Radiation that causes atoms to glow

    • B) Radiation that creates new elements

    • C) Radiation that only affects positively charged particles

    • D) High-energy radiation capable of removing electrons from an atom

  9. Which of the following is a unit used for measuring radiation dose or activity?

    • A) Joule

    • B) Curie

    • C) Watt

    • D) Pascal

  10. What nuclear process do power plants primarily use to produce energy?

    • A) Fusion

    • B) Alpha decay

    • C) Fission

    • D) Beta emission

  11. Which of the following is listed as a potential advantage (pro) of nuclear power?

    • A) Easy disposal of waste (Listed as a con)

    • B) Low initial construction cost (Not mentioned in source)

    • C) No carbon emissions during operation

    • D) Abundant fuel source (Plutonium) (Not mentioned in source)

These questions directly reflect the concepts and examples provided in the review sources and are presented in a multiple-choice format suitable for a test.