my brother

SET 1

Which definition most accurately describes applied ethics?
Answer: The practical application of moral standards that are meant to benefit the patient

An ethics committee can serve in an advisory capacity to ________
Answer: all of the above.

List the four bioethical principles needed when patients are unable to communicate their personal wishes.
Answer: A and C

Medical professionals need to adopt moral norms in applied ethics for the purpose of ________
Answer: helping the patient.

What justice-based ethics philosopher believed that scarce organ donation should be handled so that no one would know the gender, age, race, health, number of children, income, wealth, or any other arbitrary personal information about the recipient?
Answer: John Rawls

Deontological ethical theory asserts that at least some actions are right or wrong and thus, we have a duty or obligation to perform them or refrain from performing them ________
Answer: without consideration of the consequences.

A person should not rely on the law for moral decision-making because ________
Answer: all of the above

Laws are rules or required actions that are ________
Answer: prescribed by an authority and have a binding legal force.

Virtue-based ethics or seeking the "good life," is our legacy from what philosopher?
Answer: Aristotle

A teleological theory asserts that an action is right or wrong depending on ________
Answer: whether it produces good or bad consequences.

What is due process?
Answer: Is the entitlement of employees of the government and public companies to have certain procedures followed when they believe their rights are in jeopardy

The medical profession's ethical standards are established and defined by ________
Answer: professional organizations.

The principle of nonmalfeasance is best illustrated in what example below?
Answer: A Surgeon examined a patient and determined that surgery was not needed.

The purpose of a cost/benefit analysis concerning medical care is to ________
Answer: justify the cost of a treatment as compared to the benefit.

According to John Rawls (Rawlsian Justice), requires the following: ________
Answer: A and B

Extending equal pay requirements to all persons who are doing equal work is known as ________
Answer: comparable worth.

What is informed consent?
Answer: Patients must be informed and fully understand what the treatment involves, the risks involved, the chance for success, and the alternatives before they can provide consent for treatment.

Studying a subfield of philosophy that deals with morality, ethical standards, and moral judgments is known as ________
Answer: ethics.

Which of the following are types of issues that are reviewed by a QA committee?
Answer: A and B

Illegal actions are ________
Answer: usually unethical.


SET 2

Statutes are laws passed by ________
Answer: Congress or a state legislature.

Both parties must be competent for the contract to be enforceable. When the contract is signed, the patient (or concerned party) must be ________
Answer: of sound mind and not be impaired by drugs or alcohol.

The act of assault is ________
Answer: B and C.

Which is the best definition of libel?
Answer: Publishing false and/or malicious statements about another person in print, pictures, or signs that injure his/her reputation

An expert witness is one who ________
Answer: has knowledge or experience about the facts of the case beyond that of the jury and others in the court.

In many cases, civil law matters are handled and settled ________
Answer: outside the courtroom.

The foundation of common law is a precedent established by ________ following the trial of a case that was similar.
Answer: court decisions

When testifying in court, it is important to ________
Answer: A and B.

Being found guilty of breaking a criminal law may result in ________
Answer: all of the above.

Which of the following are recognized exceptions that require no proof of actual harm to a person's reputation to recover damages for slander?
Answer: All of the above

To find someone guilty in a civil case, there must be a ________, which means the case is ________.
Answer: preponderance of the evidence, more likely than not true

Which carries the punishment of fines or imprisonment in jail for up to a year?
Answer: A misdemeanor

________ is the dishonest act of depriving another person of their rights.
Answer: Fraud

Statutes begin as ________ submitted by legislators at the state or federal level.
Answer: bills

Federal legislation is administered uniformly by all states. However, each state may interpret and apply ________
Answer: state-specific legislation differently.

Civil law includes ________
Answer: all of the above.

A civil injury or wrongful act committed against another person or property that results in harm whether or not it is compensated by money damages is covered by ________
Answer: tort law.

Which definition is the best for precedent?
Answer: The ruling in an early case that is applied to a subsequent case when the facts are the same

A type of fraudulent practice is ________
Answer: A and C.

A losing party in a lawsuit may "appeal" to a higher court of law in an attempt to have the result reversed or changed in its favor if it feels that the case was handled ________ and ________
Answer: unfairly, inappropriately.


SET 1 (continued, clean format)

Which definition most accurately describes applied ethics?

  • The legal application of moral standards that benefit the patient

  • The legal application of moral standards that are based on the sincerity of a person's beliefs

  • The legal application of moral standards that concern benefiting the public

  • The practical application of moral standards that are meant to benefit the patient

An ethics committee can serve in an advisory capacity to ________

  • family.

  • patients.

  • staff.

  • all of the above.

List the four bioethical principles needed when patients are unable to communicate their personal wishes.

  • Principles of justice and autonomy

  • Principles of empathy and honesty

  • Principles of beneficence and nonmalfeasance

  • A and C

Medical professionals need to adopt moral norms in applied ethics for the purpose of ________

  • helping the patient.

  • implementing the best scientific information.

  • addressing the interests of the patient's family.

  • practicing courtesy toward other professionals.

What justice-based ethics philosopher believed that scarce organ donation should be handled so that no one would know the gender, age, race, health, number of children, income, wealth, or any other arbitrary personal information about the recipient?

  • Richard Norman

  • Immanuel Kent

  • John Rawls

  • None of the above

Deontological ethical theory asserts that at least some actions are right or wrong and thus, we have a duty or obligation to perform them or refrain from performing them ________

  • with concern for the individual rights of people.

  • based on one's own beliefs.

  • without consideration of the consequences.

  • by disregarding the rights of specific social and economic groups.

A person should not rely on the law for moral decision-making because ________

  • the requirements of the law are often negative.

  • the law allows morally offensive acts such as lying.

  • laws are often reactive.

  • all of the above

Laws are rules or required actions that are ________

  • ethical considerations regarding the cultural beliefs of the population.

  • written by the people to control the actions of criminals.

  • prescribed by an authority and have a binding legal force.

  • moral decisions about how the population should live.

Virtue-based ethics or seeking the "good life," is our legacy from what philosopher?

  • John Rawls

  • Aristotle

  • Richard Norman

  • Immanuel Kant

A teleological theory asserts that an action is right or wrong depending on ________

  • whether it produces good or bad consequences.

  • whether someone believes it is right or wrong.

  • whether the behavior is justice-based.

  • whether the law forbids the behavior.

What is due process?

  • Is the entitlement of employees of the government and public companies to have certain procedures followed when they believe their rights are in jeopardy

  • Assessing how a process will make us feel

  • Associating the problem with corrective action

  • All of the above

The medical profession's ethical standards are established and defined by ________

  • individual state legislatures.

  • the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services.

  • professional organizations.

  • the U.S. Congress.

The principle of nonmalfeasance is best illustrated in what example below?

  • A nurse rechecks her documentation for accuracy.

  • A Surgeon examined a patient and determined that surgery was not needed.

  • A Doctor takes a detailed patient history.

  • All of the above

The purpose of a cost/benefit analysis concerning medical care is to ________

  • provide an estimate of the cost of a treatment.

  • make sure no one "falls through the cracks" for treatment.

  • justify only the benefit of a treatment.

  • justify the cost of a treatment as compared to the benefit.

According to John Rawls (Rawlsian Justice), requires the following: ________

  • using a democratic and fair approach to others.

  • protecting the interests of the weak and powerless.

  • adhering to laws enforced by government authorities.

  • A and B

Extending equal pay requirements to all persons who are doing equal work is known as ________

  • due process.

  • fidelity.

  • comparable worth.

  • cost/benefit analysis.

What is informed consent?

  • Patients must be able to write the procedure on paper in sequential order.

  • Patients must be informed and fully understand what the treatment involves, the risks involved, the chance for success, and the alternatives before they can provide consent for treatment.

  • Gaining patient agreement

  • Explaining the procedure to the patient after anesthesia has been administered

Studying a subfield of philosophy that deals with morality, ethical standards, and moral judgments is known as ________

  • utilitarianism.

  • law.

  • ethics.

  • medical practice acts.

Which of the following are types of issues that are reviewed by a QA committee?

  • Medication errors

  • Inability to obtain venous blood draw on the first attempt

  • Bioethics

  • A and B

Illegal actions are ________

  • usually unethical.

  • seldom unethical.

  • not unethical.

  • always unethical.


SET 2 (next section)

Statutes are laws passed by ________

  • an agency of the government.

  • Congress or a state legislature.

  • Congress.

  • a state legislature.

Both parties must be competent for the contract to be enforceable. When the contract is signed, the patient (or concerned party) must be ________

  • drug and alcohol-free.

  • represented by council and be drug and alcohol-free for 24 hours prior.

  • of sound mind and not be impaired by drugs or alcohol.

  • all of the above.

The act of assault is ________

  • looking at a person with a grimace.

  • threatening to hit someone.

  • performing a procedure without the patient's consent.

  • B and C.

Which is the best definition of libel?

  • Speaking false and/or malicious words about another person that injure his/her reputation

  • Speaking or publishing false and/or malicious statements about another person that injure his/her reputation

  • Attempts to deceive another person

  • Publishing false and/or malicious statements about another person in print, pictures, or signs that injure his/her reputation

An expert witness is one who ________

  • has knowledge or experience about the facts of the case beyond that of the jury and others in the court.

  • has witnessed the crime and can identify the perpetrator.

  • has an advanced degree such as a doctorate in biology.

  • all of the above.

In many cases, civil law matters are handled and settled ________

  • by the governor.

  • by the judge.

  • by the federal government.

  • outside the courtroom.

The foundation of common law is a precedent established by ________ following the trial of a case that was similar.

  • court decisions

  • common practices

  • state decisions

  • federal law

When testifying in court, it is important to ________

  • tell the truth.

  • state the facts.

  • answer all the questions asked of you.

  • A and B.

Being found guilty of breaking a criminal law may result in ________

  • a fine.

  • loss of a medical license.

  • imprisonment.

  • all of the above.

Which of the following are recognized exceptions that require no proof of actual harm to a person's reputation to recover damages for slander?

  • Accusing someone of a crime

  • Calling a woman unchaste

  • Accusing someone of having a communicable disease

  • All of the above

SET 3

To find someone guilty in a civil case, there must be a ________, which means the case is ________.

  • beyond a reasonable doubt, proven absolutely

  • clear and convincing evidence, mostly proven

  • preponderance of the evidence, more likely than not true

  • direct evidence, factually proven

Which carries the punishment of fines or imprisonment in jail for up to a year?

  • Felony

  • Civil offense

  • Tort

  • A misdemeanor

________ is the dishonest act of depriving another person of their rights.

  • Assault

  • Battery

  • Negligence

  • Fraud

Statutes begin as ________ submitted by legislators at the state or federal level.

  • laws

  • amendments

  • bills

  • policies

Federal legislation is administered uniformly by all states. However, each state may interpret and apply ________

  • federal law differently.

  • criminal law differently.

  • civil law differently.

  • state-specific legislation differently.

Civil law includes ________

  • contract law

  • tort law

  • family law

  • all of the above.

A civil injury or wrongful act committed against another person or property that results in harm whether or not it is compensated by money damages is covered by ________

  • criminal law.

  • statutory law.

  • administrative law.

  • tort law.

Which definition is the best for precedent?

  • A rule made by legislators

  • A decision made by a jury

  • A written statute

  • The ruling in an early case that is applied to a subsequent case when the facts are the same

A type of fraudulent practice is ________

  • misrepresentation

  • negligence

  • concealment

  • A and C.

A losing party in a lawsuit may "appeal" to a higher court of law in an attempt to have the result reversed or changed in its favor if it feels that the case was handled ________ and ________

  • legally and ethically

  • correctly and fairly

  • quickly and efficiently

  • unfairly, inappropriately.


SET 4

Negligence is best described as ________

  • intentional harm to a patient

  • practicing outside the scope of training

  • failure to act as a reasonably prudent person would act in a similar situation

  • performing a procedure without consent

Malpractice is a type of negligence that applies specifically to ________

  • lawyers

  • teachers

  • healthcare professionals

  • government officials

The four elements required to prove negligence include ________

  • duty, breach of duty, causation, damages

  • intent, harm, action, result

  • duty, intent, causation, injury

  • duty, breach of duty, causation, damages

Duty refers to ________

  • the intent to harm a patient

  • the outcome of treatment

  • the obligation to provide care to a patient

  • the financial responsibility of care

Breach of duty occurs when ________

  • a patient refuses treatment

  • a provider follows all procedures correctly

  • a healthcare provider fails to meet the standard of care

  • damages are awarded

Causation means that ________

  • the provider intended harm

  • the patient caused their own injury

  • the breach of duty directly caused the injury

  • the court caused the injury

Damages refer to ________

  • punishment for the provider

  • legal fees

  • emotional stress only

  • actual harm or injury suffered by the patient

An example of battery in healthcare is ________

  • threatening a patient

  • discussing a patient publicly

  • performing a procedure without the patient’s consent

  • failing to document care

False imprisonment involves ________

  • physical harm to a patient

  • verbal threats

  • restraining or confining a patient without legal justification

  • sharing patient information

Defamation includes ________

  • negligence and malpractice

  • assault and battery

  • libel and slander

  • fraud and abuse


SET 5

Slander is defined as ________

  • written false statements

  • printed harmful communication

  • spoken false statements that damage a person's reputation

  • legal testimony

Libel is defined as ________

  • spoken statements

  • verbal threats

  • written or published false statements that damage a reputation

  • physical harm

Invasion of privacy includes ________

  • sharing patient information without consent

  • exposing private facts

  • unauthorized use of patient images

  • all of the above.

Confidentiality in healthcare means ________

  • sharing information with anyone

  • only documenting patient information

  • protecting patient information from unauthorized disclosure

  • discussing cases freely

HIPAA is designed to ________

  • increase hospital profits

  • regulate insurance companies only

  • protect patient health information privacy

  • eliminate paperwork

A patient's medical record is considered ________

  • public information

  • hospital property only

  • confidential information

  • legal evidence only

Informed consent must be obtained ________

  • after treatment

  • only in emergencies

  • before any procedure or treatment

  • only for surgery

Implied consent occurs when ________

  • a patient signs a form

  • a patient refuses treatment

  • a patient’s actions indicate agreement (e.g., holding out an arm for a blood draw)

  • a doctor decides

Expressed consent is ________

  • assumed consent

  • emergency consent

  • clearly stated verbally or in writing

  • optional consent

Advance directives include ________

  • living wills

  • durable power of attorney

  • do-not-resuscitate (DNR) orders

  • all of the above.

ET 6

A living will is a document that ________

  • appoints a lawyer

  • gives financial instructions

  • states a patient’s wishes regarding medical treatment if they become unable to communicate

  • transfers property after death

A durable power of attorney for healthcare allows ________

  • a doctor to make decisions

  • the court to decide care

  • another person to make healthcare decisions on behalf of the patient

  • insurance companies to decide treatment

A DNR (Do Not Resuscitate) order means ________

  • provide full treatment

  • transfer patient immediately

  • do not perform CPR if the patient stops breathing or the heart stops

  • only give medication

Patient autonomy refers to ________

  • doctor making decisions

  • family making decisions

  • hospital policy

  • the patient’s right to make their own healthcare decisions

Beneficence means ________

  • doing no harm

  • telling the truth

  • acting in the best interest of the patient

  • following the law

Nonmaleficence means ________

  • helping others

  • telling the truth

  • doing no harm

  • respecting laws

Justice in healthcare refers to ________

  • treating only wealthy patients

  • giving priority to certain groups

  • fair and equal treatment of all patients

  • following physician orders

Fidelity means ________

  • telling the truth

  • doing no harm

  • being faithful to commitments and promises

  • treating all patients equally

Veracity means ________

  • loyalty

  • fairness

  • truthfulness

  • confidentiality

Scope of practice is defined as ________

  • what a doctor prefers

  • hospital policies only

  • the procedures and actions a healthcare worker is legally allowed to perform

  • patient expectations


SET 7

Standard of care refers to ________

  • what the patient wants

  • the cheapest care available

  • the level of care that a reasonably competent professional would provide

  • hospital rules only

Abandonment occurs when ________

  • a patient refuses care

  • treatment is completed

  • a healthcare provider stops care without proper notice

  • documentation is missing

Good Samaritan laws are designed to ________

  • punish providers

  • enforce contracts

  • protect healthcare providers who give emergency care in good faith

  • require payment

Respondeat superior means ________

  • the patient is responsible

  • the court decides liability

  • the employer is responsible for the employee’s actions

  • the doctor is always liable

Negligence per se refers to ________

  • minor negligence

  • accidental harm

  • an act that violates a statute or law

  • ethical behavior

Contributory negligence means ________

  • only the provider is at fault

  • no one is at fault

  • the patient contributed to their own injury

  • the hospital is responsible

Comparative negligence means ________

  • full responsibility on provider

  • no responsibility assigned

  • fault is divided between parties

  • only patient is responsible

Assumption of risk means ________

  • patient denies care

  • provider refuses care

  • patient knowingly accepts the risks involved

  • insurance covers all risks

An incident report is ________

  • part of the medical record

  • given to the patient

  • a report of an unusual event kept for internal review

  • a legal document for court

Risk management programs are designed to ________

  • increase lawsuits

  • reduce staff

  • identify and reduce potential risks

  • avoid documentation


SET 8

A contract requires ________

  • one party

  • verbal agreement only

  • offer, acceptance, and consideration

  • written consent only

Consideration in a contract refers to ________

  • thinking about the agreement

  • legal advice

  • something of value exchanged between parties

  • written proof

Breach of contract occurs when ________

  • both parties agree

  • the contract ends

  • one party fails to fulfill the agreement

  • a law is broken

Express contracts are ________

  • implied by actions

  • not enforceable

  • clearly stated verbally or in writing

  • optional agreements

Implied contracts are ________

  • written contracts

  • illegal agreements

  • formed by actions or conduct

  • signed documents

Quasi-contracts are ________

  • real contracts

  • criminal agreements

  • court-imposed to prevent unjust enrichment

  • verbal only

A minor in legal terms is someone ________

  • over 21

  • over 25

  • under the age of majority (usually 18)

  • mentally impaired

Emancipated minors ________

  • cannot consent

  • need parental approval

  • can make their own medical decisions

  • are always dependent

Statute of limitations refers to ________

  • legal punishment

  • time of trial

  • time limit to file a lawsuit

  • court procedures

Subpoena is ________

  • a medical document

  • patient record

  • a court order to appear or produce documents

  • a consent form

SET 9

Deposition is defined as ________

  • a court ruling

  • a written verdict

  • sworn out-of-court testimony used in legal proceedings

  • a patient statement

Liability refers to ________

  • moral responsibility

  • ethical duty

  • legal responsibility for one’s actions

  • financial gain

Tort reform is intended to ________

  • increase lawsuits

  • eliminate laws

  • reduce excessive litigation and damages

  • protect only patients

Intentional torts include ________

  • negligence

  • malpractice

  • assault and battery

  • documentation errors

Unintentional torts include ________

  • assault

  • battery

  • negligence

  • fraud

Battery requires ________

  • verbal threat

  • written statement

  • unauthorized physical contact

  • legal consent

Assault requires ________

  • physical contact

  • written documentation

  • threat or attempt to cause harm

  • injury

Fraud in healthcare includes ________

  • honest mistakes

  • documentation errors

  • intentional deception for personal gain

  • negligence

Abuse of patients includes ________

  • emotional harm

  • physical harm

  • neglect

  • all of the above.

Neglect is defined as ________

  • intentional harm

  • verbal abuse

  • failure to provide necessary care

  • physical restraint


SET 10

Ethical dilemmas occur when ________

  • laws are clear

  • decisions are easy

  • there is a conflict between moral principles

  • no choices exist

Bioethics focuses on ________

  • legal systems

  • financial systems

  • ethical issues in healthcare and medicine

  • political decisions

Paternalism in healthcare means ________

  • patient decides everything

  • family decides

  • provider makes decisions for the patient

  • law decides

Advocacy means ________

  • ignoring patient wishes

  • following orders only

  • supporting and speaking up for the patient

  • documenting care

End-of-life care includes ________

  • curative treatment only

  • emergency care only

  • comfort-focused care for terminal patients

  • surgical procedures

Euthanasia refers to ________

  • prolonging life

  • emergency care

  • intentionally ending a life to relieve suffering

  • natural death

Passive euthanasia involves ________

  • administering lethal drugs

  • surgery

  • withholding or withdrawing treatment

  • emergency care

Active euthanasia involves ________

  • stopping treatment

  • refusing care

  • taking direct action to end life

  • providing comfort care

Hospice care focuses on ________

  • curing illness

  • aggressive treatment

  • comfort and quality of life

  • surgery

Palliative care is ________

  • curative care

  • emergency care

  • relief of symptoms and suffering

  • legal care


SET 11

Organ donation requires ________

  • family decision only

  • physician approval only

  • informed consent from donor or family

  • court approval

Allocation of scarce resources should be based on ________

  • wealth

  • social status

  • fairness and ethical principles

  • personal preference

Clinical trials require ________

  • no consent

  • only physician approval

  • informed consent and ethical review

  • payment only

IRB stands for ________

  • Internal Review Board

  • Institutional Regulation Bureau

  • Institutional Review Board

  • International Research Board

The purpose of an IRB is to ________

  • approve finances

  • enforce laws

  • protect human research subjects

  • manage hospitals

Placebo is defined as ________

  • active drug

  • treatment plan

  • inactive substance used in research

  • surgical method

Double-blind study means ________

  • only patient knows

  • only researcher knows

  • neither patient nor researcher knows who receives treatment

  • everyone knows

Conflict of interest occurs when ________

  • laws are followed

  • ethics are clear

  • personal interests interfere with professional duties

  • patients decide care

Professional boundaries are ________

  • flexible rules

  • optional guidelines

  • limits that protect the patient-provider relationship

  • legal punishments

Dual relationships are ________

  • encouraged

  • required

  • discouraged due to potential conflicts

  • always legal


SET 12 (FINAL LARGE SET)

Sexual harassment includes ________

  • appropriate behavior

  • professional conduct

  • unwelcome sexual advances or behavior

  • legal contracts

Workplace discrimination is based on ________

  • job performance

  • experience

  • race, gender, religion, or other protected characteristics

  • education

OSHA is responsible for ________

  • patient billing

  • medical records

  • workplace safety regulations

  • insurance claims

CDC focuses on ________

  • legal issues

  • finances

  • disease control and prevention

  • hospital management

Standard precautions are used to ________

  • reduce costs

  • increase efficiency

  • prevent spread of infection

  • improve billing

PPE stands for ________

  • Patient Protection Equipment

  • Professional Practice Evaluation

  • Personal Protective Equipment

  • Public Protection Entity

Hand hygiene is important because ________

  • it saves time

  • it reduces paperwork

  • it prevents infection transmission

  • it improves records

Nosocomial infections are ________

  • community infections

  • viral infections

  • hospital-acquired infections

  • minor infections

Sharps disposal is important to ________

  • save money

  • reduce paperwork

  • prevent injury and infection

  • increase efficiency

Exposure incidents should be reported ________

  • never

  • at the end of the year

  • immediately

  • only if serious

SET 13

Incident reports should be completed ________

  • at the end of the shift only

  • only if requested

  • as soon as possible after the event

  • weekly

Documentation in healthcare must be ________

  • vague and brief

  • completed later

  • accurate, complete, and timely

  • optional

Charting errors should be corrected by ________

  • erasing the mistake

  • using white-out

  • drawing a single line through the error and initialing it

  • rewriting the entire chart

Electronic Health Records (EHR) are ________

  • paper charts

  • billing systems only

  • digital versions of patient records

  • optional tools

HIPAA violations can result in ________

  • no consequences

  • warnings only

  • fines and legal penalties

  • verbal notice

Minimum necessary standard means ________

  • sharing all information

  • sharing no information

  • only sharing the least amount of information needed

  • optional disclosure

Patient rights include ________

  • right to refuse treatment

  • right to privacy

  • right to information

  • all of the above.

Cultural competence means ________

  • ignoring differences

  • enforcing rules

  • understanding and respecting diverse backgrounds

  • treating everyone the same

Language barriers in healthcare should be addressed by ________

  • ignoring the issue

  • using family members only

  • using qualified interpreters

  • avoiding communication

Professionalism includes ________

  • punctuality

  • respect

  • accountability

  • all of the above.


SET 14

Time management in healthcare is important to ________

  • reduce workload

  • avoid patients

  • provide efficient and effective care

  • increase paperwork

Burnout in healthcare workers is characterized by ________

  • increased energy

  • improved performance

  • emotional exhaustion and stress

  • better focus

Teamwork in healthcare improves ________

  • errors

  • confusion

  • patient outcomes

  • delays

Communication in healthcare should be ________

  • unclear

  • delayed

  • clear and concise

  • optional

Chain of command refers to ________

  • patient hierarchy

  • legal system

  • line of authority within an organization

  • billing structure

Delegation means ________

  • doing all tasks yourself

  • refusing tasks

  • assigning tasks appropriately to others

  • ignoring responsibilities

Accountability means ________

  • blaming others

  • avoiding responsibility

  • being responsible for your actions

  • following others

Ethical decision-making involves ________

  • ignoring laws

  • personal gain

  • considering moral principles and outcomes

  • avoiding responsibility

Moral distress occurs when ________

  • decisions are easy

  • no conflict exists

  • one knows the right action but cannot take it

  • laws are followed

Whistleblowing is ________

  • ignoring problems

  • reporting patients

  • reporting unethical or illegal behavior

  • avoiding responsibility


SET 15 (FINAL SET)

Quality assurance focuses on ________

  • profits

  • staffing

  • maintaining standards of care

  • legal cases

Continuous quality improvement (CQI) aims to ________

  • maintain status quo

  • reduce staff

  • continuously improve processes and outcomes

  • increase costs

Patient safety goals are designed to ________

  • increase revenue

  • reduce staff

  • prevent harm to patients

  • improve billing

Root cause analysis is used to ________

  • assign blame

  • punish staff

  • identify underlying causes of errors

  • increase workload

Sentinel events are ________

  • minor incidents

  • expected outcomes

  • serious unexpected events causing harm or death

  • routine procedures

Credentialing ensures that ________

  • patients are qualified

  • hospitals are funded

  • healthcare providers are qualified and competent

  • insurance is approved

Licensure is ________

  • optional certification

  • hospital policy

  • legal permission to practice a profession

  • voluntary training

Certification is ________

  • required by law

  • same as licensure

  • voluntary recognition of expertise

  • optional license

Continuing education is important to ________

  • reduce workload

  • avoid training

  • maintain competence and knowledge

  • increase errors

Ethical responsibility ultimately means ________

  • following orders only

  • avoiding decisions

  • doing what is right for the patient

  • minimizing effort

Ethics is best defined as ________

  • laws created by the government

  • rules enforced by hospitals

  • principles of right and wrong that guide behavior

  • personal opinions only

Morality refers to ________

  • legal standards

  • professional rules

  • personal beliefs about right and wrong

  • government laws

Utilitarianism focuses on ________

  • individual rights

  • strict rules

  • greatest good for the greatest number

  • legal outcomes

Kantian ethics emphasizes ________

  • consequences

  • emotions

  • duty and moral rules

  • social status

Autonomy requires that patients ________

  • follow doctor’s orders

  • accept all treatments

  • make voluntary and informed decisions

  • rely on family decisions

Beneficence requires healthcare providers to ________

  • avoid patients

  • follow laws only

  • act in the patient’s best interest

  • reduce costs

Nonmaleficence requires providers to ________

  • increase treatment

  • ignore risks

  • avoid causing harm

  • prioritize profit

Justice requires ________

  • unequal treatment

  • prioritizing wealth

  • fair distribution of healthcare resources

  • ignoring needs

Confidentiality can be broken when ________

  • patient requests privacy

  • documentation is complete

  • required by law (e.g., abuse reporting)

  • staff are busy

Mandatory reporting laws require reporting of ________

  • all illnesses

  • financial issues

  • abuse and certain injuries

  • patient complaints