IOT Prep Answers

General Onboarding Module One

  • True or False: Proximal refers to being closer to the main mass of the body.

    • Answer: a. True

  • Question: Which plane divides the body into right and left halves?

    • Options:
      a. Coronal Plane
      b. Transverse Plane
      c. Sagittal Plane
      d. None of the above

    • Correct Answer: c. Sagittal Plane

  • True or False: The labrum is a fibrocartilaginous ring that provides stability to the glenohumeral joint.

    • Answer: a. True

  • Question: The primary function of the Subscapularis muscle is to move the arm in this motion:

    • Options:
      a. Abduction
      b. Adduction
      c. Internal Rotation
      d. External Rotation

    • Correct Answer: c. Internal Rotation

  • Question: A SpeedBridge Rotator Cuff Repair consists of ___ anchors medial and ___ anchors lateral.

    • Options:
      a. 2,3
      b. 1,2
      c. 0,1
      d. 2,2

    • Correct Answer: d. 2,2

  • Question: All of the following are muscles/tendons of the rotator cuff, EXCEPT:

    • Options:
      a. Infraspinatus
      b. Supraspinatus
      c. Teres Major
      d. Subscapularis

    • Correct Answer: c. Teres Major

  • Question: The Supraspinatus Tendon attaches to what structure?

    • Options:
      a. Lesser Tuberosity of the humerus
      b. Greater Tuberosity of the humerus
      c. Coracoid
      d. Humeral Neck

    • Correct Answer: b. Greater Tuberosity of the humerus

  • Question: The primary function of the Supraspinatus muscles is to move the arm in this motion:

    • Options:
      a. Abduction
      b. Adduction
      c. Internal rotation
      d. External Rotation

    • Correct Answer: a. Abduction

  • True or False: An advantage of the Knotless Ankle TightRope implant is earlier weight bearing compared to screw fixation.

    • Answer: a. True

General Onboarding Module Two

  • Question: What three bones make up the ankle joint?

    • Options:
      a. Tibia, Fibula, and Talus
      b. Calcaneus, Talus, and Cuboid
      c. Tibia, Talus, and Calcaneus
      d. Fibula, Tibia, and Calcaneus

    • Correct Answer: a. Tibia, Fibula, and Talus

  • Question: Which of the following are complications of screw fixation for syndesmosis injury?

    • Options:
      a. Loosening
      b. Breakage
      c. Need for second operation
      d. All of the above

    • Correct Answer: d. All of the above

  • Question: What is the strongest ligament in the ankle syndesmosic ligament complex?

    • Options:
      a. AiTFL
      b. ATFL
      c. CFL
      d. PiTFL

    • Correct Answer: a. AiTFL

  • Question: Which of the following is NOT one of the three ligaments that supports the ankle syndesmosis joint?

    • Options:
      a. Anterior Talofibular Ligament (ATFL)
      b. Posterior Inferior Tibiofibular Ligament (PiTFL)
      c. Anterior Inferior Tibiofibular Ligament (AiTFL)
      d. Tibiofibular Interosseous Ligament

    • Correct Answer: a. Anterior Talofibular Ligament (ATFL)

  • Question: What two nerves are most at risk when surgeons perform a lateral ankle ligament operation?

    • Options:
      a. Anterior tibial nerve & posterior tibial nerve
      b. Anterior tibial nerve & posterior tibial nerve
      c. Saphenous nerve and sural nerve
      d. Sural nerve and superficial peroneal nerve

    • Correct Answer: d. Sural nerve and superficial peroneal nerve

  • Question: What is the most common motion responsible for lateral ankle sprains?

    • Options:
      a. Inversion, dorsi-flexion
      b. Eversion, plantar-flexion
      c. Inversion, planter-flexion
      d. Eversion, dorsi-flexion

    • Correct Answer: a. Inversion, dorsi-flexion

  • Question: What is the most common ligament disruption involved in lateral ankle sprains?

    • Options:
      a. ATFL
      b. CFL
      c. PTFL
      d. PiTFL

    • Correct Answer: a. ATFL

  • Question: The Quadriceps Femoris refers to which of the following?

    • Options:
      a. Rectus Femoris
      b. Vastus Lateralis
      c. Vastus Medialis
      d. Vastus Intermedius
      e. All of the above

    • Correct Answer: e. All of the above

  • Question: Of the major knee ligaments, which one below is NOT intra-articular?

    • Options:
      a. Anterior Cruciate Ligament
      b. Posterior Cruciate Ligament
      c. Lateral Collateral Ligament
      d. None of the above

    • Correct Answer: c. Lateral Collateral Ligament

  • Question: The femoral footprint of the ACL is located on the:

    • Options:
      a. Lateral Femoral Condyle
      b. Medial Femoral Condyle
      c. Trochlea Groove
      d. Gerdy’s Tubercle

    • Correct Answer: a. Lateral Femoral Condyle

  • True or False: Females are 4-5 times more prone to ACL injury.

    • Answer: a. True

  • True or False: In the ACL deficient knee, the tibia can abnormally translate anteriorly.

    • Answer: a. True

  • Question: Which of the following are common causes of ACL injury?

    • Options:
      a. Changing direction rapidly
      b. Stopping suddenly
      c. Landing from a jump
      d. All of the above

    • Correct Answer: d. All of the above

  • Question: Which word describes red blood cells?

    • Options:
      a. Leukocytes
      b. Erythrocytes
      c. Thrombocytes
      d. Electrolytes

    • Correct Answer: b. Erythrocytes

  • True or False: Plasma makes up 55% of whole blood.

    • Answer: a. True

  • True or False: Platelets (thrombocytes) are a component of whole blood that do not contain a nucleus. Therefore, platelets are not truly cells.

    • Answer: a. True

  • True or False: The DualWave arthroscopy pump is designed to operate as either an inflow/outflow or an inflow-only pump.

    • Answer: a. True

  • Question: One major advantage of the DualWave Pump over traditional Inflow-Only Pumps is:

    • Options:
      a. Inflow-Only pumps allow for regulation of fluid pressure automatically by controlling outflow
      b. DualWave Pumps require constant manual adjustment of outflow to maintain fluid pressure in the joint
      c. DualWave Pumps automatically regulate inflow and outflow to maintain a constant fluid pressure in the joint
      d. DualWave Pumps only feature active outflow, making the technology much more efficient and simple to use

    • Correct Answer: c. DualWave Pumps automatically regulate inflow and outflow to maintain a constant fluid pressure in the joint

General Onboarding Module Three

  • Question: This type of shoulder dislocation is the most common, occurring 95% of the time.

    • Options:
      a. Anterior
      b. Posterior
      c. Multidirectional

    • Correct Answer: a. Anterior

  • Question: A simple stitch for shoulder instability repair is also referred to as a:

    • Options:
      a. Cinch Stitch
      b. Cerclage Stitch
      c. Racking Stitch
      d. Mattress Stitch

    • Correct Answer: a. Cinch Stitch

  • Question: In identifying tears causing instability of the glenohumeral joint, ALPSA stands for?

    • Options:
      a. Anterior Large Partial Subscapularis Avulsion
      b. Anterior Large Partial Supraspinatus Avulsion
      c. Anterior Labrum Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion
      d. Always Leave Piles of Sales Ads

    • Correct Answer: c. Anterior Labrum Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion

  • Question: The treatment for an engaging Hill-Sach lesion is known as:

    • Options:
      a. Latarjet
      b. Remplissage
      c. SCR
      d. None of the above

    • Correct Answer: b. Remplissage

  • Question: What does SLAP stand for?

    • Options:
      a. Single Labral Anchor Percutaneous
      b. Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior
      c. Shoulder Labrum Anterior Punch
      d. Superior Lateral Anterior Posterior

    • Correct Answer: b. Superior Labrum Anterior to Posterior

  • Question: A patient experiencing pain with shoe wear and swelling for several months located at the posterior aspect of their heel is more likely to have what type of Achilles tendon disorder?

    • Options:
      a. Midsubstance Achilles tendon rupture
      b. Plantar Fasciitis
      c. Insertional Achilles Tendinitis
      d. Gastroc Strain

    • Correct Answer: c. Insertional Achilles Tendinitis

  • Question: What two muscles make up your calf muscles and come together to form the Achilles tendon?

    • Options:
      a. Flexor hallucis longus and plantaris
      b. Flexor digitorum longus and brevis
      c. Gastrocnemius and soleus
      d. Gastrocnemius and flexor hallucis longus

    • Correct Answer: c. Gastrocnemius and soleus

  • Question: The Distal Biceps has what type of attachment to which corresponding forearm bone?

    • Options:
      a. Round/Ulnar Tuberosity
      b. Oval/Radial Tuberosity
      c. Ribbon-Like/Radial Tuberosity
      d. Oval/Ulnar Tuberosity
      e. Ribbon-Like/Sublime Tubercle

    • Correct Answer: c. Ribbon-Like/Radial Tuberosity

  • True or False: The biceps muscle is the primary flexor of the elbow.

    • Answer: a. True

  • True or False: The Coracoclavicular (CC) Ligaments are composed of the Conoid and Trapezoid Ligaments.

    • Answer: a. True

  • Question: When using the offset guide for AC InternalBrace Technique as described by Dr. Mackay, what is the distance built into the guide to ensure proper bone socket placement in the acromion?

    • Options:
      a. 3mm
      b. 4mm
      c. 5mm
      d. 6mm

    • Correct Answer: c. 5mm

  • Question: Which of the following is a goal of meniscus resection?

    • Options:
      a. Remove degenerative tissue
      b. Spare as much meniscus as possible
      c. Reproduce meniscus contour
      d. All of the above

    • Correct Answer: d. All of the above

  • Question: The zones of the meniscus are determined by:

    • Options:
      a. Size
      b. Tear Pattern
      c. Blood Supply
      d. None of the above

    • Correct Answer: c. Blood Supply

  • Question: This is the more “c-shaped” meniscus that has connections with the ACL and the capsule/MCL.

    • Options:
      a. Medial
      b. Lateral

    • Correct Answer: a. Medial

  • Question: What condyle of the knee is 4 times greater risk to have an osteochondral defect?

    • Options:
      a. Anterior
      b. Posterior
      c. Medial
      d. Lateral

    • Correct Answer: c. Medial

  • Question: Using the Outer bridge classification, advanced Bone-on-Bone arthritis would be classified as?

    • Options:
      a. Grade 1
      b. Grade 2
      c. Grade 3
      d. Grade 4

    • Correct Answer: d. Grade 4

  • True or False: Biocartilage allograft contains living chondrocytes.

    • Answer: b. False

  • True or False: The Jumpstart bandage generates electricity to kill pathogens including many drug-resistant bacteria.

    • Answer: a. True

  • Question: What type of carrier is within AlloSync DBM, putty, gel, and paste that allows it to become more viscous and harden at body temperature?

    • Options:
      a. Calcium Sulfate
      b. Glycerol
      c. Reverse Phase Medium
      d. Sodium hyaluronate

    • Correct Answer: c. Reverse Phase Medium

  • Question: What types of tissue can the GraftNet Autologous Tissue Collector collect?

    • Options:
      a. Bone
      b. Cartilage
      c. Soft Tissue
      d. Hair follicle
      e. A, B, & C
      f. All of the above

    • Correct Answer: f. All of the above

  • Question: In Standard (STD) oscillation mode, how often will the handpiece change direction at an RPM of 1,000 or more?

    • Options:
      a. Every 0.2 seconds
      b. Every 0.3 seconds
      c. Every 0.5 seconds

    • Correct Answer: c. Every 0.5 seconds

  • True or False: The Synergy Resection Console can control two handpieces independently as well as simultaneously.

    • Answer: a. True

  • Question: The metal detection feature on the SynergyRF Bipolar Ablation System performs what function?

    • Options:
      a. Increases fluid flow in the system when metal is detected in the joint
      b. Suspends power to probe when the tip is in close proximity to scope or metal instruments
      c. Shuts down the system when an error message is shown on the console screen
      d. Prevents the surgeon from using the product on patients with metal implants

    • Correct Answer: b. Suspends power to probe when the tip is in close proximity to scope or metal instruments

  • Question: The bipolar ablation breaks down tissue by the following process?

    • Options:
      a. Pyrolysis - decomposition brought about by high temperatures
      b. Ultrasound - high density waves to destroy tissue
      c. Chemical reaction - gently breaks down tissue at the molecular level
      d. Radioactive iodine - radioactive iodine is injected to destroy tissue

    • Correct Answer: a. Pyrolysis - decomposition brought about by high temperatures

Sports Onboarding Module

  • Question: In the beach chair position, when viewing from the posterior portal looking anterior on a right shoulder, which structure will be on the left side of the screen?

    • Options:
      a. Glenoid
      b. Humeral Head
      c. Biceps Tendon
      d. Subscapularis Tendon

    • Correct Answer: a. Glenoid

  • True or False: The glenoid labrum is continuous with the long head of the biceps, the glenohumeral ligaments, and the joint capsule.

    • Answer: a. True

  • True or False: The Shoulder Joint has the most movement of all of the joints in the body.

    • Answer: a. True

  • Question: What type of suture should you suggest to create a broader and a more secure footprint? (i.e. for SpeedBridge or InternalBrace™ implant)

    • Options:
      a. FiberLoop
      b. FiberSnare
      c. FiberTape
      d. FiberStick

    • Correct Answer: c. FiberTape

  • Question: During a case, all of the following can help improve exposure of a subscapularis tear, EXCEPT:

    • Options:
      a. Use of a 70 Degree Arthroscope
      b. Flexion of the arm
      c. Internal Rotation of the arm
      d. External Rotation of the arm

    • Correct Answer: d. External Rotation of the arm

  • Question: Which portion of the humerus serves as the attachment site for the subscapularis tendon?

    • Options:
      a. Humeral Head
      b. Greater Tuberosity
      c. Lesser Tuberosity
      d. Anatomic Neck

    • Correct Answer: c. Lesser Tuberosity

  • True or False: The Suture Snare passer can penetrate tissue, pass, and retrieve suture for soft tissue repair.

    • Answer: a. True

  • Question: Which is NOT an advantage of SutureTape over standard round suture?

    • Options:
      a. Increased tissue pull-through resistance
      b. Stronger knotted fixation
      c. Tighter, smaller knot stacks
      d. Less likely to hurt fingers while tying
      e. All of the above are advantages

    • Correct Answer: e. All of the above are advantages

  • True or False: LabralTape should NOT be used with the 2.4mm PushLock® anchor.

    • Answer: a. True

  • Question: Which type of shoulder dislocation is often associated with seizures or electrical shock?

    • Options:
      a. Anterior
      b. Posterior
      c. Multidirectional

    • Correct Answer: b. Posterior

  • Question: The Knotless SutureTak includes what type of suture?

    • Options:
      a. 0 FiberLink
      b. #2 TigerWire
      c. #2 Coreless FiberWire Suture
      d. #5 Coreless FiberWire Suture

    • Correct Answer: c. #2 Coreless FiberWire Suture

  • Question: What size FiberWire® suture is found in the 2mm SutureTaks?

    • Options:
      a. 0 FiberWire
      b. #1 FiberWire
      c. #2 FiberWire
      d. #5 FiberWire

    • Correct Answer: a. 0 FiberWire

  • True or False: Retrodrilling in the knee during ACL reconstruction is advantageous because it creates a clean hole inside the joint where the graft will contact the bone.

    • Answer: a. True

  • In the ACL deficient knee:

    • a. The tibia will abnormally translate posteriorly

    • b. The tibia will abnormally translate anteriorly

    • c. The tibia will abnormally translate medially

    • d. The tibia will abnormally translate laterally

    • e. All of the above

    • Correct Answer: b. The tibia will abnormally translate anteriorly

  • Question: What is the benefit of the FastThread™ having 22% less material than previous BioComposite Screws?

    • Options:
      a. Preserve bone-stock
      b. Greater interface for healing
      c. Biologic delivery
      d. All of the above

    • Correct Answer: d. All of the above

  • Question: When performing an ACLR using a BTB graft, the femoral bone block should be no greater than what length?

    • Options:
      a. 15mm
      b. 20mm
      c. 25mm
      d. 30mm

    • Correct Answer: b. 20mm

  • Question: The ACL is made up of how many bundles?

    • Options:
      a. 1
      b. 2
      c. 3
      d. 4

    • Correct Answer: b. 2

  • Question: Which of the following features and benefits applies to the ACL flexible reamers?

    • Options:
      a. Flexible link design provides increased strength and flexibility versus "puzzle-piece" designs
      b. Low-profile head facilitates atraumatic passage through the portal and past the condyle
      c. Provided sterile for a sharp, clean reamer for every patient
      d. All of the above

    • Correct Answer: d. All of the above

  • Question: The ridge of bone that separates the anteromedial (AM) and posterolateral (PL) bundles of the ACL on the FEMUR is?

    • Options:
      a. Residents Ridge
      b. Bifurcate Ridge
      c. Soleal Ridge
      d. Gerdy’s Tubercle
      e. Medial Epicondyle

    • Correct Answer: b. Bifurcate Ridge

  • Question: When performing a pediatric ACL reconstruction the potential complication from drilling across the physis is?

    • Options:
      a. Post-op stiffness of the knee
      b. Fractures
      c. Nerve injury
      d. Arterial injury
      e. Premature bone growth arrest

    • Correct Answer: e. Premature bone growth arrest

  • True or False: The bundles of the ACL are named for their insertion sites on the tibia.

    • Answer: a. True

  • True or False: ACD-A can be added to the ACP syringe after the fact if you realize you need more time before the application.

    • Answer: a. True

  • Question: Which blood component is lightest in weight?

    • Options:
      a. Red Blood Cells
      b. White Blood Cells
      c. Platelets

    • Correct Answer: c. Platelets

  • Question: The "RINSE" feature of the DualWave Pump increases the suction rate of which suction structure?

    • Options:
      a. Waste
      b. Shaver
      c. Cannula
      d. Inflow

    • Correct Answer: d. Inflow

General Onboarding Module Four

  • Question: Which of the following is NOT an indication for SCR?

    • Options:
      a. Symptomatic Rotator Cuff Tear
      b. Significant bone loss
      c. Large, Irreparable Supraspinatus, or Supraspinatus/Infraspinatus Tear
      d. Minimal to No Glenohumeral arthritis

    • Correct Answer: d. Minimal to No Glenohumeral arthritis

  • Question: Which of the following is NOT one of the traditional treatment options for irreparable rotator cuff tears?

    • Options:
      a. Debridement of Rotator Cuff
      b. Partial Repair
      c. Primary Total Shoulder Arthroplasty
      d. Latissimus dorsi transfer

    • Correct Answer: c. Primary Total Shoulder Arthroplasty

  • Question: Which zone of the meniscus has the LEAST chance of healing?

    • Options:
      a. Red-Red
      b. Red-White
      c. White-White
      d. Meniscal Root
      e. None of the above

    • Correct Answer: c. White-White

  • Question: The zones of the meniscus are determined by:

    • Options:
      a. Size
      b. Tear Pattern
      c. Blood Supply
      d. None of the above

    • Correct Answer: c. Blood Supply

  • Question: Which surgeon initially described a remarkably constant avulsion fracture pattern at the proximal-lateral tibia as a result of forced internal rotation?

    • Options:
      a. Sonnery-Cottet
      b. Hughston
      c. Segond
      d. Claes

    • Correct Answer: a. Sonnery-Cottet

  • True or False: The pull-out strength of the 3 mm Knotless SutureTak is better than the 3 mm SutureTak?

    • Answer: a. True

  • Question: What are the dimensions of the Knotless SutureTak?

    • Options:
      a. 3.0 mm x 14 mm
      b. 2.6 mm x 12.4 mm
      c. 3.0 mm x 17.2 mm
      d. 3.0 mm x 12.7 mm

    • Correct Answer: a. 3.0 mm x 14 mm

  • True or False: When using the Forked Tip SwiveLock® anchor, the surgeon should drill 0.5mm - 1.0mm larger than the size of the intended screw.

    • Answer: a. True

  • True or False: The Superior Capsule of the shoulder is a distinct structure from the Rotator Cuff.

    • Answer: b. False

Sports Onboarding Module Five

  • Question: All of the following are hip flexor muscles, EXCEPT:

    • Options:
      a. Rectus Femoris
      b. Gluteus Medius
      c. Sartorius
      d. All of the above

    • Correct Answer: b. Gluteus Medius

  • Question: All of the following pathologies can be addressed in the Peritrochanteric space, EXCEPT:

    • Options:

    • Correct Answer: a. Ligamentum Teres Tear

  • True or False: The most commonly damaged nerve during hip arthroscopy is the:

    • Answer: a. Femoral Nerve

  • Question: The three bones that make up the acetabulum are the:

    • Options:
      a. Ilium, Ischium, Femur
      b. Pubis, Ilium, Ischium
      c. Femur, Tibia, Fibula
      d. Ilium, Pubis, Femur

    • Correct Answer: b. Pubis, Ilium, Ischium

  • Question: The two main portals used in hip arthroscopy are the:

    • Options:
      a. posterolateral and midanterior
      b. anteromedial and anterior
      c. anterolateral and midanterior
      d. posterolateral and anteromedial

    • Correct Answer: a. posterolateral and midanterior

  • True or False: All hip arthroscopy portals should be made lateral to the Anterior Superior Iliac Spine to avoid damage to the Femoral Artery, Vein, and Nerve.

    • Answer: a. True

  • Question: Which of the following is a benefit of the TRIM-IT™ Custom Hip Cannula?

    • Options:

    • Correct Answer: d. All of the above

  • Question: Capsular closure in all settings is still a controversial topic but most surgeons agree that closure should be performed in which of the following surgical scenarios.

    • Options:

    • Correct Answer: a. T capsulotomy

  • Question: All of the following are functions of the Acetabular Labrum, EXCEPT:

    • Options:
      a. Adds stability to the hip by deepening the “socket”
      b. Provides a suction seal to the hip
      c. Serves as an attachment for the Ligamentum Teres
      d. Acts as a shock absorber, with its most thick portion superiorly

    • Correct Answer: c. Serves as an attachment for the Ligamentum Teres

  • True or False: The articular cartilage of the acetabulum has a horseshoe shape.

    • Answer: a. True

  • Question: Cam impingement can be defined as:

    • Options:
      a. An osteophyte on the top of the femoral head
      b. Gluteus Medius Tear
      c. External Snapping Hip
      d. Trochanteric Bursitis

    • Correct Answer: a. An osteophyte on the top of the femoral head

  • Question: In which compartment of the hip should you address a CAM lesion?

    • Options:
      a. Central
      b. Peripheral
      c. Peritrochanteric

    • Correct Answer: a. Central

  • True or False: A CAM deformity is a bony overgrowth of the femoral neck and is associated with chondral defects on the acetabular transitional zone cartilage, while a Pincer deformity is an overgrowth of the acetabulum and is associated with "pinching" of the labrum and labral tears.

    • Answer: a. True

  • True or False: FAI can be defined as the repetitive abutment between the femoral neck and acetabular rim that occurs within ranges of motion which cause symptoms.

    • Answer: a. True

  • True/False: Most Femoracetabular Impingement (FAI) contains mixed Pincer/Cam Lesion:

    • Answer: a. True

  • Question: Which ligament is connected to the femoral head and aids in stabilizing the femoral head to the hip socket?

    • Options:
      a. Inguinal Ligament
      b. Sacrospinous Ligament
      c. Ligamentum Teres
      d. Transverse Acetabular Ligament

    • Correct Answer: c. Ligamentum Teres

  • True or False: The acetabular labrum extends around the entirety of the hip socket.

    • Answer: b. False

  • Question: Which muscle/tendon causes internal snapping of the hip?

    • Options:
      a. Gluteus Medius
      b. Iliotibial Band
      c. Iliopsoas
      d. Tensor Fascia Latae

    • Correct Answer: c. Iliopsoas

  • Question: Identify Structure 8

    • Options:
      a. Vastus Medialis Muscle
      b. Quadriceps Tendon
      c. Medial Retinaculum
      d. Lateral Retinaculum
      e. Patellar Tendon

    • Correct Answer: b. Quadriceps Tendon

  • Question: When referring to knee lower limb alignment, what is the normal Q angle for a female?

    • Options:
      a. 10 degrees
      b. 14 degrees
      c. 18 degrees
      d. 20 degrees

    • Correct Answer: c. 18 degrees

  • Question: TT-TG distance is considered abnormal if?

    • Options:
      a. < 12mm b. >20mm
      c. There is no malalignment of the PF joint
      d. There is no trochlear dysplasia
      e. >15mm

    • Correct Answer: e. >15mm

  • Question: The allograft GraftLink® technique construct can be made from all of the following tendons, EXCEPT:

    • Options:
      a. Semitendinosus
      b. Gracilis
      c. Anterior Tibialis
      d. Palmaris Longus

    • Correct Answer: c. Anterior Tibialis

  • Question: What is the shelf life of Arthrex Amnion™ Matrix?

    • Options:
      a. 1-year
      b. 2-years
      c. 3-years
      d. 4-years
      e. 5-years

    • Correct Answer: c. 3-years

General Onboarding Module Six

  • Question: The distal locking screws in the Clavicle Plate and Screw System are what size?

    • Options:
      a. 2.7 mm
      b. 1.7 mm
      c. 4.0 mm
      d. 1.7 mm

    • Correct Answer: a. 2.7 mm

  • Question: Which of the following is an advantage of our clavicle fracture plate?

    • Options:
      a. Low profile
      b. Integration of the Dog Bone™ button technique for AC joint repair
      c. Stainless Steel
      d. All of the above

    • Correct Answer: d. All of the above

  • Question: When performing a Dog Bone AC joint repair, the case is done?

    • Options:
      a. Open
      b. Arthroscopic
      c. Mini open
      d. All of the above

    • Correct Answer: d. All of the above

  • True or False: The AC Dog Bone™ button technique can be used for both acute and chronic AC repairs.

    • Answer: a. True

  • True or False: The Coracoclavicular (CC) Ligaments are composed of the Conoid and Trapezoid Ligaments.

    • Answer: a. True

  • Question: What nerve lies close to the inferior aspect of the Glenoid?

    • Options:
      a. Axillary nerve
      b. Suprascapular nerve
      c. Ulnar nerve
      d. Radial nerve

    • Correct Answer: a. Axillary nerve

  • Question: Which of the following are benefits of the Humeral SuturePlate for proximal humeral fractures?

    • Options:

    • Correct Answer: d. All of the above

  • Question: What is the most common site for a proximal humerus fracture?