Endocrine Structure & Function and Related Systems

LAB 39 – Endocrine Structure & Function

  1. Endocrine glands and hormones

    • Endocrine glands secrete true hormones into the blood.

      • Options:

      • a. neurotransmitters

      • b. true hormones

      • c. paracrine substances

      • d. autocrine substances

      • Answer: b

  2. Influence of true hormones

    • True hormones influence target cells around the body.

      • Options:

      • a. blood cells

      • b. the secreting cells

      • c. neighboring cells

      • d. target cells around the body

      • Answer: d

  3. Hormone binding

    • Hormones bind to receptors on target cells.

      • Options:

      • a. phospholipids

      • b. synapses

      • c. receptors

      • d. vesicles

      • Answer: c

  4. Endocrine vs. exocrine glands

    • The pancreas is an example of an endocrine gland that is also exocrine.

      • Options:

      • a. pancreas

      • b. thyroid

      • c. thymus

      • d. adrenal

      • Answer: a

  5. Proximity of endocrine glands

    • The thyroid and parathyroid glands are in the closest proximity.

      • Options:

      • a. pancreas & thymus

      • b. thymus & thyroid

      • c. thyroid & parathyroid

      • d. pituitary & thyroid

      • Answer: c

  6. Hormone storage

    • The endocrine gland that stores hormones synthesized by the hypothalamus is the posterior pituitary.

      • Options:

      • a. posterior pituitary

      • b. anterior pituitary

      • c. adrenal cortex

      • d. adrenal medulla

      • Answer: a

LAB 40 – Diabetic Physiology

  1. Insulin production

    • The beta cells of the pancreatic islets produce insulin.

      • Options:

      • a. alpha

      • b. beta

      • c. delta

      • d. PP

      • Answer: b

  2. Type 1 diabetes

    • Type 1 diabetes mellitus usually exhibits rapid onset.

      • Options:

      • a. occurs in older adults

      • b. affects 90% of diabetics

      • c. has gradual onset

      • d. has rapid onset

      • Answer: d

  3. Location of insulin-secreting cells

    • Most insulin-secreting cells are located near the central portion of the islet.

      • Options:

      • a. scattered evenly

      • b. near the periphery

      • c. near the central portion

      • d. among exocrine cells

      • Answer: c

  4. Beta cell occupancy

    • Beta cells occupy about 80% of the islet.

      • Options:

      • a. 1%

      • b. 5%

      • c. 15%

      • d. 80%

      • Answer: d

  5. Onset of type 2 diabetes

    • The least influential factor in the onset of type 2 diabetes is sleep patterns.

      • Options:

      • a. sleep patterns

      • b. obesity

      • c. heredity

      • d. lack of exercise

      • Answer: a

  6. Insulin levels

    • Insulin levels are highest directly after a meal.

      • Options:

      • a. during sleep

      • b. directly after a meal

      • c. between meals

      • d. when glucose is low

      • Answer: b

  7. Prevalence of diabetes types

    • Type 1 diabetes occurs less often than type 2 diabetes.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: b

  8. Risk factors for type 2 diabetes

    • Obesity and lack of exercise increase the risk for type 2 diabetes.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: a

LAB 41 – Blood Cells

  1. Function during bleeding

    • The formed elements that function mainly during bleeding are platelets.

      • Options:

      • a. erythrocytes

      • b. leukocytes

      • c. platelets

      • d. plasma

      • Answer: c

  2. Classification of white blood cells

    • An agranulocyte is exemplified by a monocyte.

      • Options:

      • a. monocyte

      • b. neutrophil

      • c. eosinophil

      • d. basophil

      • Answer: a

  3. Nuclear variation in WBCs

    • The white blood cell with the greatest nuclear variation is the monocyte.

      • Options:

      • a. monocyte

      • b. neutrophil

      • c. basophil

      • d. platelet

      • Answer: a

  4. Nucleus presence in cells

    • The cell that lacks a nucleus is an erythrocyte.

      • Options:

      • a. erythrocyte

      • b. lymphocyte

      • c. monocyte

      • d. neutrophil

      • Answer: a

  5. Nucleus structure

    • The cell that has a large nucleus filling most of the cell is a lymphocyte.

      • Options:

      • a. basophil

      • b. neutrophil

      • c. eosinophil

      • d. lymphocyte

      • Answer: d

  6. Abundance of leukocytes

    • The most abundant leukocyte is the neutrophil.

      • Options:

      • a. basophil

      • b. eosinophil

      • c. neutrophil

      • d. monocyte

      • Answer: c

  7. Allergic reactions

    • Eosinophils increase during allergic reactions.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: a

  8. Erythrocyte classification

    • Erythrocytes are not granulocytes.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: b

LAB 42 – Blood Testing

  1. Hematocrit definition

    • The percentage of red blood cells in whole blood is called hematocrit.

      • Options:

      • a. plasma

      • b. hemoglobin

      • c. hematocrit

      • d. buffy coat

      • Answer: c

  2. Centrifugation results

    • The layer containing leukocytes and platelets after centrifugation is the buffy coat.

      • Options:

      • a. plasma

      • b. erythrocyte layer

      • c. buffy coat

      • d. serum

      • Answer: c

  3. Hemoglobin components

    • The heme portion of hemoglobin contains iron (Fe).

      • Options:

      • a. calcium

      • b. sodium

      • c. iron (Fe)

      • d. iodine

      • Answer: c

  4. Oxygen binding in hemoglobin

    • Oxygen binds to the iron of hemoglobin.

      • Options:

      • a. globin

      • b. plasma

      • c. iron

      • d. fibrin

      • Answer: c

  5. Oxygen dissociation curve

    • A shift left on the oxygen dissociation curve indicates that more O₂ is bound to hemoglobin.

      • Options:

      • a. more O₂ bound to hemoglobin

      • b. less O₂ bound

      • c. hemoglobin destroyed

      • d. no oxygen present

      • Answer: a

  6. Hematocrit determination

    • Hematocrit is determined using a centrifuge.

      • Options:

      • a. microscope

      • b. slide

      • c. centrifuge

      • d. pipette

      • Answer: c

  7. Coagulation process

    • Coagulation culminates in the formation of insoluble threads of fibrin.

      • Options:

      • a. fibrin

      • b. fibrinogen

      • c. thrombin

      • d. platelets

      • Answer: a

  8. Normal coagulation timing

    • Coagulation should normally occur within 8 minutes.

      • Options:

      • a. 10 seconds

      • b. 1 minute

      • c. 8 minutes

      • d. 1 hour

      • Answer: c

  9. Cholesterol levels

    • A normal total cholesterol level is less than 200 mg/dL.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: a

  10. HDL classification

    • HDL is not the “bad” cholesterol.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: b

LAB 43 – Blood Typing

  1. ABO blood group antigens

    • The antigens related to the ABO blood group are located on the red blood cell membrane.

      • Options:

      • a. on the red blood cell membrane

      • b. within the red blood cell nucleus

      • c. within the red blood cell cytosol

      • d. on the red blood cell ribosome

      • Answer: a

  2. Antibody reaction

    • When B antibodies (anti-B) react with B antigens, agglutination occurs.

      • Options:

      • a. coagulation

      • b. agglutination

      • c. transfusion

      • d. proliferation

      • Answer: b

  3. Rh factor prevalence

    • The D antigen related to the Rh factor is present in about 85% of Americans.

      • Options:

      • a. 4%

      • b. 38%

      • c. 47%

      • d. 85%

      • Answer: d

  4. Universal donor blood type

    • Blood type O is considered the universal donor within the ABO blood group.

      • Options:

      • a. A

      • b. B

      • c. AB

      • d. O

      • Answer: d

  5. Universal recipient blood type

    • Blood type AB is considered the universal recipient within the ABO blood group.

      • Options:

      • a. A

      • b. B

      • c. AB

      • d. O

      • Answer: c

  6. Cross-matching implications

    • In cross-matching, if there is no agglutination, then a transfusion can safely be done.

      • Options:

      • a. a transfusion reaction will occur

      • b. a transfusion can safely be done

      • c. a transfusion cannot be safely done

      • d. RBC hemolysis will occur

      • Answer: b

  7. Hemolytic disease of the newborn

    • Hemolytic disease of the newborn could occur when there’s an Rh- mother & Rh+ fetus.

      • Options:

      • a. Rh+ mother & Rh- fetus

      • b. Rh- mother & Rh+ fetus

      • c. both Rh+

      • d. both Rh-

      • Answer: b

  8. Common blood type in the US

    • Blood type B is not the most common in the United States.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: b

  9. Blood type O characteristics

    • An individual with blood type O lacks both A and B antigens.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: a

LAB 44 – Heart Structure

  1. Heart structure

    • The inferior pointed tip of the heart is called the apex.

      • Options:

      • a. base

      • b. apex

      • c. septum

      • d. sulcus

      • Answer: b

  2. Location of oxygen-rich blood

    • Oxygen-rich blood is located in the left-side chambers.

      • Options:

      • a. left-side chambers

      • b. right-side chambers

      • c. superior chambers

      • d. inferior chambers

      • Answer: a

  3. Superior heart chambers

    • The two superior chambers are the atria.

      • Options:

      • a. ventricles

      • b. septa

      • c. atria

      • d. valves

      • Answer: c

  4. Atrioventricular (AV) valve

    • The mitral valve is an example of an Atrioventricular (AV) valve.

      • Options:

      • a. aortic

      • b. pulmonary

      • c. semilunar

      • d. mitral

      • Answer: d

  5. Heart chamber lining

    • The lining of the heart chambers is called the endocardium.

      • Options:

      • a. endocardium

      • b. myocardium

      • c. epicardium

      • d. pericardium

      • Answer: a

  6. Left atrium and ventricle valve

    • The valve between the left atrium and left ventricle is the mitral valve.

      • Options:

      • a. tricuspid

      • b. mitral

      • c. aortic

      • d. pulmonary

      • Answer: b

  7. Types of heart valves

    • The aortic and pulmonary valves are classified as semilunar valves.

      • Options:

      • a. AV

      • b. bicuspid

      • c. tricuspid

      • d. semilunar

      • Answer: d

  8. Pulmonary veins function

    • Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: a

  9. Pulmonary circuit purpose

    • The pulmonary circuit does not supply blood to body tissues.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: b

  10. Right ventricle function

    • The right ventricle does pump blood to the lungs.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: a

LAB 45 – Cardiac Cycle & ECG

  1. Heart pacemaker

    • The pacemaker of the heart is the SA node.

      • Options:

      • a. SA node

      • b. AV node

      • c. bundle branches

      • d. Purkinje fibers

      • Answer: a

  2. Ventricular wall fibers

    • The fibers located throughout the ventricular walls are Purkinje fibers.

      • Options:

      • a. AV node

      • b. left bundle branch

      • c. right bundle branch

      • d. Purkinje fibers

      • Answer: d

  3. First heart sound (S1)

    • The first heart sound (S1) occurs when the AV valves close.

      • Options:

      • a. AV valves open

      • b. AV valves close

      • c. semilunar valves open

      • d. semilunar valves close

      • Answer: b

  4. Components of a cardiac cycle

    • One cardiac cycle consists of atrial contractions then ventricular contractions.

      • Options:

      • a. ventricular contractions then atrial

      • b. atrial contractions then ventricular

      • c. simultaneous contraction

      • d. ventricular only

      • Answer: b

  5. SA node location

    • The SA node is located in the right atrium.

      • Options:

      • a. right atrium

      • b. left atrium

      • c. left ventricle

      • d. right ventricle

      • Answer: a

  6. QRS complex function

    • The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization.

      • Options:

      • a. atrial depolarization

      • b. ventricular depolarization

      • c. atrial repolarization

      • d. ventricular repolarization

      • Answer: b

  7. Ventricular filling

    • During ventricular diastole, chambers fill with blood.

      • Options:

      • a. diastole

      • b. systole

      • c. contraction

      • d. ejection

      • Answer: a

  8. “Dupp” sound

    • The “dupp” sound occurs when semilunar valves close.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: a

  9. P wave represents

    • The P wave represents atrial depolarization.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: b

LAB 47 – Blood Vessel Structure, Arteries & Veins

  1. Middle layer of blood vessels

    • The middle layer of blood vessels contains mostly smooth muscle.

      • Options:

      • a. connective tissue

      • b. epithelium

      • c. smooth muscle

      • d. nervous tissue

      • Answer: c

  2. Arterial function

    • Arteries carry blood away from the heart.

      • Options:

      • a. away from the heart

      • b. toward the heart

      • c. both directions

      • d. only oxygenated blood

      • Answer: a

  3. Vessels with endothelium

    • Vessels containing only endothelium are capillaries.

      • Options:

      • a. veins

      • b. arterioles

      • c. venules

      • d. capillaries

      • Answer: d

  4. Thickest heart wall

    • The thickest heart wall belongs to the left ventricle.

      • Options:

      • a. left atrium

      • b. right atrium

      • c. left ventricle

      • d. right ventricle

      • Answer: c

  5. Direct branches of the aorta

    • The brachial artery is NOT a direct branch of the aorta.

      • Options:

      • a. coronary artery

      • b. brachiocephalic trunk

      • c. left subclavian artery

      • d. brachial artery

      • Answer: d

  6. Vein locations

    • The brachiocephalic vein is NOT located in the neck.

      • Options:

      • a. vertebral vein

      • b. brachiocephalic vein

      • c. external jugular vein

      • d. internal jugular vein

      • Answer: b

  7. Circle of Willis artery

    • The artery that is part of the circle of Willis is the anterior communicating artery.

      • Options:

      • a. anterior communicating artery

      • b. external carotid artery

      • c. facial artery

      • d. popliteal artery

      • Answer: a

  8. Blood pressure comparison

    • Blood pressure in veins is lower than in arteries.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: b

  9. Left ventricle function

    • The left ventricle does pump into the aorta.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: a

  10. Pulmonary trunk classification

    • The pulmonary trunk is classified as an artery.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: a

LAB 48 – Pulse Rate & Blood Pressure

  1. Pulse wave origin

    • The left ventricle is responsible for the pulse wave in systemic circulation.

      • Options:

      • a. right atrium

      • b. right ventricle

      • c. left atrium

      • d. left ventricle

      • Answer: d

  2. Palpation of pulse

    • The common iliac artery cannot be palpated on the surface.

      • Options:

      • a. facial artery

      • b. dorsalis pedis artery

      • c. common iliac artery

      • d. carotid artery

      • Answer: c

  3. Common pulse site

    • The most common artery for pulse is the radial artery.

      • Options:

      • a. temporal

      • b. radial

      • c. popliteal

      • d. posterior tibial

      • Answer: b

  4. Standard blood pressure artery

    • The standard artery for blood pressure measurement is the brachial artery.

      • Options:

      • a. brachial

      • b. carotid

      • c. femoral

      • d. posterior tibial

      • Answer: a

  5. Hypertension indication

    • The blood pressure reading of 140/90 indicates hypertension.

      • Options:

      • a. 100/60

      • b. 110/76

      • c. 120/80

      • d. 140/90

      • Answer: d

  6. Pulse location in thigh

    • The pulse in the upper medial thigh is found in the femoral artery.

      • Options:

      • a. popliteal

      • b. posterior tibial

      • c. common iliac

      • d. femoral

      • Answer: d

  7. Using the thumb for pulse

    • False: You should not use your thumb to palpate pulse due to potential confusion with your own pulse.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: b

  8. Pulse pressure calculation

    • True: Pulse pressure is defined as systolic minus diastolic.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: a

  9. Capillary vs arterial pressure

    • False: Capillary pressure is not higher than arterial pressure.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: b

  10. Stroke volume definition

    • False: Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped per heartbeat, not per minute.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: b

LAB 49 – Lymphatic System

  1. Lymph flow

    • Lymph flows into lymphatic collecting ducts before entering the bloodstream.

      • Options:

      • a. capillaries

      • b. collecting ducts

      • c. vessels

      • d. trunks

      • Answer: b

  2. Drainage of right lymphatic duct

    • The right lymphatic duct drains the right upper quadrant.

      • Options:

      • a. right upper

      • b. left upper

      • c. right lower

      • d. left lower

      • Answer: a

  3. Lymph node distribution

    • The fewest lymph nodes are found in the plantar region.

      • Options:

      • a. cervical

      • b. axillary

      • c. inguinal

      • d. plantar

      • Answer: d

  4. Largest lymphatic organ

    • The largest lymphatic organ is the spleen.

      • Options:

      • a. thymus

      • b. tonsil

      • c. spleen

      • d. lymph node

      • Answer: c

  5. Thoracic duct drainage point

    • The thoracic duct drains into the left subclavian vein.

      • Options:

      • a. right internal jugular

      • b. right subclavian

      • c. left internal jugular

      • d. left subclavian

      • Answer: d

  6. Non-lymphatic organ

    • The thyroid is NOT a lymphatic organ.

      • Options:

      • a. tonsil

      • b. thymus

      • c. thyroid

      • d. spleen

      • Answer: c

  7. Lymph flow during exercise

    • Lymph flows faster during exercise.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: a

  8. Thymus aging

    • The thymus does not enlarge with age.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: b

  9. Lymphatic capillary structure

    • Lymphatic capillaries are not open at both ends.

      • Options:

      • a. True

      • b. False

      • Answer: b