SCAQ LU 5
1. Which of the following best represents a concrete concept in nursing?
A. Empathy
B. Wellness
C. Weight
D. Compassion
2. In the context of nursing theory, the term “phenomenon” refers to:
A. A proven scientific fact
B. A vague idea needing clarification
C. A consciously experienced aspect of reality
D. A fixed nursing assumption
3. A nurse observes increased aggression in patients following certain medications. This becomes a phenomenon only when:
A. It is documented in patient charts
B. It is seen repeatedly
C. A link is proposed between medication and aggression
D. It is taught in pharmacology class
4. A statement reads: “As nurse workload increases, patient satisfaction decreases.” This is an example of:
A. Positive association
B. Causal statement
C. Negative association
D. Phenomenological claim
5. Which of the following reflects a causal statement?
A. Nurses who sleep less tend to be less focused
B. Spiritual care improves patient satisfaction
C. Extended shift causes a drop in nurse morale
D. Nurses with higher education are more empathetic
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Section B: Abstract and Research-Based Concepts
6. Which is an abstract concept relevant to nursing research?
A. Oxygen saturation
B. Pulse rate
C. Self-care
D. Blood glucose
7. In research, when concepts are used for measurement, they are often referred to as:
A. Assumptions
B. Hypotheses
C. Variables
D. Models
8. An example of a relational statement in nursing theory would be:
A. Pain is subjective
B. As stress increases, sleep quality decreases
C. Patient safety is important
D. Nurses should maintain confidentiality
9. When stating that “smoking causes low birth weight,” which concept is independent?
A. Smoking
B. Birth weight
C. Pregnancy
D. Oxygen supply
10. The phrase “Human beings require continuous input to function” is best classified as:
A. Theory
B. Assumption
C. Hypothesis
D. Phenomenon
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Section C: Theory and Theorists
11. Which is the primary function of nursing theory?
A. To standardize care
B. To organize concepts and explain relationships
C. To determine nurse-to-patient ratios
D. To define nurse licensing laws
12. Florence Nightingale’s assertion that “fresh air improves health” is an example of:
A. Philosophical assumption
B. Empirical law
C. Theoretical proposition
D. Operational definition
13. Which of the following theories emphasizes cultural care diversity?
A. Roy’s Adaptation Model
B. Leininger’s Theory
C. Orem’s Self-Care Deficit
D. Orlando’s Theory
14. What distinguishes a theory from a hypothesis?
A. A theory is tested and validated; a hypothesis is a tentative proposal
B. A hypothesis is more complex than a theory
C. Theories are always qualitative
D. Hypotheses are created only after data collection
15. Orem’s theory emphasizes:
A. Holistic adaptation
B. Self-care deficit and independence
C. Patient communication cues
D. Cultural influences
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Section D: Theory Development Process
16. The first process in developing a theory is:
A. Conducting randomized controlled trials
B. Creating conceptual meaning
C. Testing theoretical relationships
D. Applying in clinical practice
17. Creating conceptual meaning often involves:
A. Hospital audits
B. Literature review and reflection
C. Finalized definitions from dictionaries
D. Pre-written standards
18. During conceptual development, which example best shows tentative criteria?
A. Self-esteem measured by validated scales
B. “Mother” defined by role and attributes like affection
C. Pulse rate recorded in BPM
D. Oxygen saturation monitored hourly
19. Structuring a theory involves:
A. Selecting a clinical site
B. Generating statistics
C. Clarifying context and defining concepts
D. Avoiding subjective analysis
20. Which step involves designing relational statements?
A. Conceptual refinement
B. Contextual analysis
C. Structuring theory
D. Empirical validation
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Section E: Testing and Application
21. Empirical grounding of theory occurs in:
A. Philosophical debates
B. Naturalistic observations in clinical settings
C. Focus group interviews only
D. Theoretical textbook comparisons
22. Naming empiric indicators is necessary when:
A. You use standard protocols
B. Concepts are abstract and need measurable proxies
C. Ethics approval is pending
D. Indicators are not needed in qualitative studies
23. Anxiety and self-esteem are commonly measured using:
A. Direct physical tools
B. Blood tests
C. Validated psychometric tools
D. Body Mass Index (BMI)
24. In validating a theoretical relationship, researchers must:
A. Apply statistical tests without observations
B. Assume results will confirm theory
C. Design a study to isolate and test specific variables
D. Avoid repeating previous studies
25. A theorist studying maternal-infant gaze must ensure:
A. The outcome is not influenced by non-maternal stimuli
B. The study is repeated only once
C. Observation occurs in dark rooms
D. Infants are not involved in the analysis
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Section F: Application in Practice (Scenario-Based)
26. A nurse implements a pain alleviation theory in her ward. What is the first step?
A. Change all patient routines
B. Collect baseline data before applying the theory
C. Announce the theory in a meeting
D. Apply the theory blindly
27. To apply theory to practice, outcome variables must be:
A. Statistically irrelevant
B. Patient complaints
C. Nursing-sensitive indicators like care quality
D. Policy changes
28. Which example best shows application of theory in practice?
A. Teaching about Florence Nightingale
B. Using Parse’s theory to structure chronic illness counseling
C. Reading about Leininger’s model without implementation
D. Critiquing Roy’s model without using it
29. When selecting a clinical setting for theory testing, it should:
A. Match the theoretical relationship under study
B. Be large and well-known
C. Be remote and unmonitored
D. Be an administrative office
30. A nurse researcher implements theory X, measures patient outcomes, and compares data before and after application. This is an example of:
A. Ethical review
B. Audit process
C. Formal application and evaluation of theory
D. Literature-based criticism
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Section G: Theory Integration and Nursing Science
31. The final aim of nursing theory development is to:
A. Reduce the workload for nurses
B. Replace practice with research
C. Contribute to the scientific development of nursing
D. Eliminate traditional knowledge
32. Theory revision is often based on:
A. Policy recommendations
B. Nurse preferences
C. Testing and feedback from application
D. Changes in legislation
33. The ongoing process of theory testing ensures that:
A. All theories remain unchanged
B. Nursing practices are simplified
C. Theories remain relevant and evidence-based
D. Theories are phased out
34. A student nurse notices that a patient’s self-care improves when autonomy is supported. This could lead to:
A. An assumption
B. A relational statement
C. A change in medication
D. A moral dilemma
35. Concept revision occurs when:
A. There is legal pressure
B. The concept becomes outdated or fails in testing
C. Another theorist disagrees
D. A hospital policy changes
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Section H: Challenge and Synthesis
36. What best explains the need for interrelated processes in theory development?
A. To confuse researchers
B. Because nursing care requires only one model
C. To refine and integrate concepts, application, and testing
D. Because research budgets demand it
37. Nursing theory is considered incomplete unless:
A. It’s endorsed by hospital administration
B. It has philosophical backing only
C. It has been tested and applied
D. It uses complex language
38. Which example best shows assumption in theory?
A. Data show increased sleep after meditation
B. The researcher presumes humans are holistic beings
C. Study participants prefer shorter surveys
D. Graphs show a downward trend
39. A theory built without concept clarity is likely to:
A. Be more innovative
B. Win awards
C. Lack explanatory power and validity
D. Reduce care time
40. Why are nursing theories foundational for practice?
A. They provide legal protocols
B. They reduce documentation
C. They organize knowledge to guide practice and research
D. They replace empathy with efficiency
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✅ Answer Key
1. C
2. C
3. C
4. C
5. C
6. C
7. C
8. B
9. A
10. B
11. B
12. C
13. B
14. A
15. B
16. B
17. B
18. B
19. C
20. C
21. B
22. B
23. C
24. C
25. A
26. B
27. C
28. B
29. A
30. C
31. C
32. C
33. C
34. B
35. B
36. C
37. C
38. B
39. C
40. C