cna

✅100 CNA Practice Test Questions

Safety & Infection Control (1–20)

1. The most important step in handwashing is:
   A. Turning off the faucet
   B. Rubbing hands together to create friction
   C. Using warm water
   D. Using paper towels

2. A CNA should wear gloves when:
   A. Feeding a resident
   B. Brushing a resident’s hair
   C. Removing soiled linens
   D. Reading a care plan

3. Standard precautions require the CNA to treat all blood and body fluids as:
   A. Infectious
   B. Harmless
   C. Water-like
   D. Non-contagious

4. When applying restraints, the CNA should check the resident every:
   A. 15 minutes
   B. 1 hour
   C. 2 hours
   D. 4 hours

5. A resident begins choking but can speak and cough. The CNA should:
   A. Perform abdominal thrusts
   B. Encourage coughing
   C. Start CPR
   D. Call a code blue

6. When transferring a resident using a gait belt, the CNA should place the belt:
   A. Over bare skin
   B. Around the chest
   C. Around the waist
   D. On the resident’s neck

7. A restraint-free facility means:
   A. Restraints are never used
   B. Restraints are used only as a last resort
   C. Only chemical restraints are used
   D. Only family may apply restraints

8. When cleaning a spill, the CNA should:
   A. Use paper towels
   B. Use gloves and follow facility procedures
   C. Leave it for housekeeping
   D. Mop with water only

9. To prevent falls, the CNA should:
   A. Leave clutter in hallways
   B. Adjust lighting
   C. Raise all side rails
   D. Ignore call lights

10. A resident with oxygen should NOT:
    A. Use petroleum jelly
    B. Have tubing on their face
    C. Have their bedding changed
    D. Drink water

11. When ambulating a resident, the CNA should walk:
    A. Directly in front
    B. Behind and to the side
    C. Far behind
    D. On the resident’s weak side only

12. Good body mechanics include:
    A. Bending from the waist
    B. Lifting with legs, not back
    C. Keeping feet together
    D. Reaching as far as needed

13. When the fire alarm sounds, the CNA should follow:
    A. RACE
    B. CPR
    C. STOP
    D. PASS only

14. The “P” in PASS stands for:
    A. Pull
    B. Push
    C. Press
    D. Point

15. A resident at risk for pressure sores should be repositioned every:
    A. 15 minutes
    B. 30 minutes
    C. 1 hour
    D. 2 hours

16. If the CNA finds a frayed electrical cord, they should:
    A. Use it anyway
    B. Tape it
    C. Report it immediately
    D. Hide it

17. A CNA enters a room and finds a resident on the floor. The FIRST action is:
    A. Move the resident to the bed
    B. Call for help
    C. Get the nurse
    D. Check for injuries

18. When leaving a resident in bed, ensure:
    A. The bed is high
    B. Side rails are all up
    C. Call light is within reach
    D. Lights are off

19. Transmission-based precautions include:
    A. Contact, airborne, droplet
    B. Water-based
    C. Temperature-based
    D. Radiation-based

20. For a resident on contact precautions, the CNA should wear:
    A. Gloves only
    B. Gloves and gown
    C. Mask only
    D. Shoe covers only

Personal Care Skills (21–40)

21. Oral care for an unconscious resident requires the CNA to:
    A. Use large amounts of water
    B. Place the resident supine
    C. Use minimal fluid and turn head to side
    D. Skip mouth care

22. When giving perineal care, wipe:
    A. Back to front
    B. Front to back
    C. In a circular motion
    D. With dry wipes only

23. A partial bath includes washing the:
    A. Arms, face, hands, perineal area
    B. Entire body
    C. Hair only
    D. Back and legs only

24. When dressing a resident with a weak arm, dress the:
    A. Strong side first
    B. Weak side first
    C. Either side first
    D. Whichever is closest

25. Proper denture care includes:
    A. Using hot water
    B. Holding over a sink lined with a towel
    C. Scrubbing with bleach
    D. Storing in a dry cup

26. When shaving with a razor, the CNA should:
    A. Shave against hair growth
    B. Use cold water
    C. Use short strokes
    D. Skip shaving cream

27. Foot care for diabetics requires:
    A. Soaking feet in hot water
    B. Cutting toenails
    C. Checking for sores daily
    D. Applying lotion between toes

28. When giving a bed bath, the CNA should start with the:
    A. Perineal area
    B. Face
    C. Feet
    D. Axilla

29. The purpose of back rubs includes:
    A. Soothing the resident
    B. Making lotion smell good
    C. Keeping skin wet
    D. Increasing hair growth

30. A resident wearing TED hose should have them removed:
    A. Never
    B. Every 8 hours
    C. Once per week
    D. Only at bedtime

31. Fingernails should be cleaned:
    A. With a sharp tool
    B. During a bath
    C. Never by a CNA
    D. Only by a doctor

32. When assisting with a shower, water temperature should be:
    A. Hot
    B. Cold
    C. Warm
    D. As hot as tolerated

33. A resident who is NPO can have:
    A. Ice chips
    B. Water
    C. Nothing by mouth
    D. Sips of juice

34. A bedpan should be placed with the wider end:
    A. Toward the foot
    B. Toward the head
    C. Anywhere
    D. Sideways

35. If a resident has a catheter, the drainage bag must be kept:
    A. Above bladder level
    B. On bed rails
    C. Below bladder level
    D. On the floor

36. Oral care should be done at least:
    A. Once daily
    B. Twice daily
    C. Weekly
    D. Monthly

37. Good grooming helps residents:
    A. Feel dignified
    B. Look older
    C. Sleep less
    D. Eat more

38. When washing hair in bed, protect the bed with:
    A. Plastic bags
    B. A waterproof pad
    C. Nothing
    D. Dirty linens

39. Proper nail care helps prevent:
    A. Hand swelling
    B. Infections
    C. Hair loss
    D. Weight gain

40. For a resident with dry skin, the CNA should:
    A. Scratch the dry areas
    B. Use harsh soap
    C. Apply lotion
    D. Avoid bathing

Basic Nursing Skills (41–60)

41. Normal oral temperature is:
    A. 94°F
    B. 95–96°F
    C. 98.6°F
    D. 102°F

42. A rectal temperature is:
    A. Higher than oral
    B. Lower than oral
    C. Same as axillary
    D. No longer used

43. The normal pulse range for adults is:
    A. 30–50
    B. 60–100
    C. 120–150
    D. 160–200

44. A blood pressure of 150/90 should be:
    A. Documented only
    B. Ignored
    C. Reported
    D. Rechecked next week

45. When weighing a resident, weigh them:
    A. In different clothing each time
    B. At different times of day
    C. On the same scale each time
    D. After large meals

46. Edema refers to:
    A. High blood pressure
    B. Fluid retention
    C. Fever
    D. Anxiety

47. A resident with dysphagia has difficulty:
    A. Speaking
    B. Chewing
    C. Swallowing
    D. Breathing

48. Intake includes:
    A. IV fluids
    B. Urine
    C. Stool
    D. Perspiration

49. Output includes:
    A. Ice chips
    B. Water
    C. Vomit
    D. Soup

50. A CNA suspects an infection when the resident has:
    A. Temperature 97°F
    B. Redness and swelling
    C. Normal appetite
    D. Normal urine color

51. A resident who suddenly becomes confused may have:
    A. Dementia
    B. A urinary infection
    C. Normal aging
    D. A cough

52. The CNA should report pain that is:
    A. 0/10
    B. Mild
    C. New or worsening
    D. Eliminated by rest

53. A resident with a Foley catheter complains of pain. The CNA should:
    A. Remove catheter
    B. Pull the tubing
    C. Check for kinks and report
    D. Ignore

54. A pulse oximeter measures:
    A. Blood pressure
    B. Oxygen saturation
    C. Blood sugar
    D. Temperature

55. Signs of dehydration include:
    A. Moist mouth
    B. Sunken eyes
    C. Normal urine output
    D. Weight gain

56. When giving oxygen care, the CNA may:
    A. Adjust the flow rate
    B. Remove the cannula
    C. Check for skin irritation
    D. Turn the tank on and off

57. A CNA notes the resident’s urinary output is very dark and small in amount. This may indicate:
    A. Hydration
    B. Dehydration
    C. Overeating
    D. Anxiety

58. The CNA should report a pulse rate below:
    A. 60
    B. 90
    C. 100
    D. 120

59. If a resident has a seizure, the CNA should:
    A. Put something in their mouth
    B. Hold them down
    C. Protect their head
    D. Leave the room

60. Signs of hypoglycemia include:
    A. Sweating and shakiness
    B. Slow pulse
    C. Fever
    D. Increased energy

Mental Health & Social Needs (61–80)

61. A resident with dementia becomes agitated. The CNA should:
    A. Speak calmly
    B. Argue
    C. Restrain them
    D. Give orders loudly

62. Validation therapy involves:
    A. Disagreeing with the resident
    B. Redirecting harshly
    C. Acknowledging the resident’s feelings
    D. Ignoring behaviors

63. A good way to promote independence is to:
    A. Do tasks for the resident
    B. Offer choices
    C. Rush care
    D. Avoid involving them

64. A resident who isolates may be:
    A. Enjoying privacy
    B. Depressed
    C. Angry
    D. Eating well

65. Socialization helps prevent:
    A. Infection
    B. Boredom and depression
    C. Fever
    D. Weight loss

66. Residents have the right to:
    A. Be abused
    B. Make personal choices
    C. Be restrained
    D. Be ignored

67. A resident refusing care should be:
    A. Forced
    B. Respected and reoffered later
    C. Ignored
    D. Yelled at

68. Sundowning refers to:
    A. Nighttime confusion
    B. Excessive hunger
    C. Fever at night
    D. Good sleep

69. When talking with a depressed resident, the CNA should:
    A. Tell them to cheer up
    B. Listen and show empathy
    C. Ignore them
    D. Change the subject

70. Residents with hearing loss benefit from:
    A. Shouting
    B. Speaking slowly and clearly
    C. Turning away while talking
    D. Talking fast

71. If a resident is crying, the CNA should:
    A. Tell them to stop
    B. Close the door and leave
    C. Offer comfort
    D. Ignore it

72. A resident with anxiety may:
    A. Shake
    B. Calm down instantly
    C. Sleep constantly
    D. Stop talking

73. A resident who becomes aggressive should be:
    A. Approached calmly
    B. Restrained immediately
    C. Threatened
    D. Ignored

74. Residents with dementia often repeat questions because:
    A. They enjoy it
    B. They forget they asked
    C. They want attention
    D. They are angry

75. If a resident believes others are stealing from them, the CNA should:
    A. Argue
    B. Validate feelings and report
    C. Laugh
    D. Ignore

76. The CNA can prevent loneliness by:
    A. Involving residents in activities
    B. Isolating them
    C. Closing their door
    D. Ignoring call bells

77. When a resident complains of not sleeping well, the CNA should:
    A. Report it
    B. Give sleeping pills
    C. Turn off oxygen
    D. Remove blankets

78. Sexual behavior in residents with dementia:
    A. Should be punished
    B. Is always intentional
    C. May be a symptom
    D. Should be ignored without reporting

79. Family involvement can:
    A. Decrease quality of care
    B. Improve emotional well-being
    C. Confuse residents
    D. Prevent CNA responsibilities

80. A resident crying about a recent diagnosis needs:
    A. Emotional support
    B. Redirection only
    C. To be left alone always
    D. To be told it’s not a big deal

Rights, Ethics & Legal Issues (81–100)

81. Abuse includes:
    A. Yelling
    B. Pushing
    C. Neglect
    D. All of the above

82. Neglect means:
    A. Accidentally bumping a resident
    B. Failing to provide needed care
    C. Talking to a resident
    D. Offering choices

83. The CNA must maintain:
    A. Confidentiality
    B. Gossip
    C. Resident secrets from the care team
    D. No documentation

84. HIPAA protects:
    A. Resident health information
    B. Clothing choices
    C. Activities
    D. Food preferences

85. A resident’s chart is:
    A. A legal document
    B. Optional
    C. A CNA notebook
    D. Private property

86. Informed consent means the resident:
    A. Is forced
    B. Understands and agrees
    C. Must sign everything
    D. Cannot refuse

87. When witnessing abuse, the CNA must:
    A. Report immediately
    B. Ignore
    C. Join in
    D. Wait for proof

88. Residents have the right to:
    A. Refuse treatment
    B. Be restrained
    C. Be ignored
    D. Have no privacy

89. When documenting, the CNA should:
    A. Use pencil
    B. Document before care
    C. Use objective information
    D. Document other CNAs’ care

90. A CNA should NOT:
    A. Report changes
    B. Chart accurately
    C. Give medications
    D. Respect privacy

91. In the nursing home, the ombudsman:
    A. Investigates resident complaints
    B. Writes care plans
    C. Gives medications
    D. Supervises CNAs

92. CNA scope of practice includes:
    A. Assessing residents
    B. Diagnosing
    C. Providing basic care
    D. Changing sterile dressings

93. If a CNA is asked to perform a task they aren’t trained for, they should:
    A. Do it anyway
    B. Ask another CNA
    C. Refuse and report
    D. Guess

94. To protect resident privacy during care, the CNA should:
    A. Leave doors open
    B. Cover the resident
    C. Work in hallways
    D. Invite others to watch

95. Ethical behavior means:
    A. Doing what is right
    B. Doing what is easiest
    C. Doing what benefits the CNA
    D. Punishing residents

96. A resident requests to see their chart. The CNA should:
    A. Give it to them
    B. Tell them no
    C. Report to the nurse
    D. Hide it

97. The CNA should knock before entering to:
    A. Save time
    B. Prevent falls
    C. Show respect
    D. Avoid documentation

98. Informed choice means:
    A. The resident has no say
    B. The resident chooses freely
    C. Staff choose
    D. Doctor chooses

99. When handling money for a resident, the CNA should:
    A. Borrow from it
    B. Keep receipts
    C. Hide it
    D. Spend it

100. If a resident complains of missing items, the CNA should:
     A. Ignore
     B. Blame the resident
     C. Report the concern
     D. Replace it secretly