LU3.2ai SCAQ Practice

Schistosomiasis (Blood Flukes)

1. What is the primary mode of transmission for Schistosomiasis?

   • a) Ingestion of contaminated food

   • b) Skin penetration by cercariae in contaminated water

   • c) Bite from an infected mosquito

   • d) Direct person-to-person contact

2. Which of the following Schistosoma species is known to produce the highest number of eggs?

   • a) Schistosoma mansoni

   • b) Schistosoma haematobium

   • c) Schistosoma japonicum

   • d) Schistosoma intercalatum

3. What is the main symptom of chronic Schistosoma haematobium infection?

   • a) Bloody diarrhea

   • b) Dysuria and haematuria

   • c) Enlargement of the colon

   • d) Muscle paralysis

4. What is the main target of praziquantel in treating Schistosomiasis?

   • a) Killing cercariae in water

   • b) Paralyzing adult Schistosoma worms

   • c) Preventing egg production

   • d) Destroying snail intermediate hosts

5. In the life cycle of Schistosoma, how long does it take for S. japonicum cercariae to reach the dermis after skin penetration?

   • a) 30 minutes

   • b) 2 hours

   • c) 12 hours

   • d) 24 hours

6. What is a common complication of chronic Schistosoma mansoni infection?

   • a) Bladder cancer

   • b) Colonic polyposis and portal hypertension

   • c) Neurological disorders

   • d) Megacolon

7. What diagnostic method is commonly used to detect Schistosoma eggs?

   • a) Blood culture

   • b) Stool or urine microscopy

   • c) PCR of blood samples

   • d) Skin biopsy

8. What is the characteristic immune response in acute Schistosomiasis (Katayama fever)?

   • a) Decreased IgG levels

   • b) Eosinophilia and elevated IgE

   • c) Suppression of T-cell response

   • d) Reduced inflammatory response

9. What is a major risk factor for Schistosomiasis transmission?

   • a) Eating undercooked meat

   • b) Swimming in contaminated freshwater

   • c) Mosquito exposure

   • d) Poor hand hygiene

10. What intervention helps control the intermediate host of Schistosoma?

• a) Vector spraying

• b) Use of mosquito nets

• c) Molluscicides in water sources

• d) Mass vaccination campaigns

Trypanosomiasis (Sleeping Sickness & Chagas Disease)

11. What is the primary vector of African trypanosomiasis?

• a) Tsetse fly

• b) Sandfly

• c) Triatomine bug

• d) Anopheles mosquito

12. Which Trypanosoma species causes West African sleeping sickness?

• a) Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

• b) Trypanosoma cruzi

• c) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

• d) Trypanosoma rangeli

13. In Chagas disease, what is a common chronic complication?

• a) Encephalitis

• b) Cardiac arrhythmias and heart failure

• c) Kidney failure

• d) Liver cirrhosis

14. What is the characteristic early sign of Chagas disease?

• a) Romaña sign (swelling of eyelid)

• b) Jaundice

• c) Rash with vesicles

• d) Hematuria

15. How is Trypanosoma cruzi transmitted to humans?

• a) Bite from an infected tsetse fly

• b) Contaminated water ingestion

• c) Feces of triatomine bugs entering through broken skin

• d) Respiratory droplet transmission

16. What organ system is primarily affected in late-stage African sleeping sickness?

• a) Respiratory system

• b) Gastrointestinal system

• c) Central nervous system

• d) Renal system

17. What is the drug of choice for early-stage African sleeping sickness caused by T. brucei gambiense?

• a) Benznidazole

• b) Suramin

• c) Ivermectin

• d) Chloroquine

18. Which laboratory test is most commonly used to diagnose Trypanosomiasis?

• a) Blood smear for trypomastigotes

• b) ELISA for antigen detection

• c) PCR of urine samples

• d) CSF analysis for antibodies

19. What is the primary prevention method for Chagas disease?

• a) Use of insecticide-treated bed nets

• b) Vector control by spraying homes

• c) Vaccination

• d) Avoiding contaminated water sources

20. How does T. brucei evade the host immune system?

• a) Producing immune-suppressing toxins

• b) Altering its surface glycoproteins

• c) Hiding within red blood cells

• d) Mimicking host proteins

Leishmaniasis

21. What is the vector for Leishmaniasis?

• a) Anopheles mosquito

• b) Tsetse fly

• c) Sandfly

• d) Triatomine bug

22. Which species is responsible for visceral leishmaniasis?

• a) Leishmania tropica

• b) Leishmania braziliensis

• c) Leishmania donovani

• d) Leishmania mexicana

23. What is the hallmark sign of visceral leishmaniasis?

• a) Cutaneous ulcers

• b) Black discoloration of skin ("Kala azar")

• c) Swelling at the insect bite site

• d) Pulmonary fibrosis

24. In cutaneous leishmaniasis, what is the typical lesion progression?

• a) Papule → ulcer → healing

• b) Vesicle → necrosis → rash

• c) Macule → scarring → granuloma

• d) Nodules → widespread rash

25. Which species primarily causes mucocutaneous leishmaniasis?

• a) Leishmania tropica

• b) Leishmania donovani

• c) Leishmania braziliensis

• d) Leishmania mexicana

26. What is the gold standard diagnostic method for Leishmaniasis?

• a) Serology

• b) Microscopic detection of amastigotes in tissue samples

• c) PCR of urine

• d) ELISA for antigen detection

27. Which population is at greatest risk for Leishmaniasis?

• a) Urban residents with high sanitation

• b) People with poor housing and malnutrition

• c) Farmers using pesticides

• d) Individuals with strong immune systems

28. What is the recommended treatment for cutaneous leishmaniasis?

• a) Metronidazole

• b) Pentavalent antimonials

• c) Albendazole

• d) Artemisinin

29. Which environmental factor increases Leishmaniasis transmission?

• a) Urbanization

• b) Freezing temperatures

• c) High altitude

• d) Increased air pollution

30. What is a key preventive measure against Leishmaniasis?

• a) Vaccination

• b) Spraying houses with insecticides

• c) Boiling drinking water

• d) Wearing mosquito repellent patches

Answer Key

1 b 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. b 9. b 10. c

11 a 12. c 13. b 14. a 15. c 16. c 17. b 18. a 19. b 20. b

21 c 22. c 23. b 24. a 25. c 26. b 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. b