Nasm study
1. What do the letters OPT within the OPT model stand for?
Optimum Performance Training
B. Optional Practical Training
Optional Performance Testing
D. Optimum Peak Teaching
2. What are the three levels of the OPT model?
4. Stabilization, strength, and power
B.
Diet, exercise, and recovery
Health, fitness, and wellness
Flexibility, cardiorespiratory, and resistance
3. Which of the following is a necessity for all fitness professionals to remain successful in the industry?
A. Annual certification by NASM B.
Having at least 15 active clients at all times
Keeping up with the latest science and changes in the industry
D.
Occasional publishing in relevant journals
4. When NASM recommends relying on the current best information in making decisions about client care, what is it referring to?
A.
Traditional compliance
B.
Evidence-based practice
C.
Peer-observed procedure
D. Popular theories and methods posted on online fitness forums
5. Which activity best demonstrates evidence-based practice?
Referring to a colleague's practical knowledge
Referencing a social media post
Reading information presented in a blog article
Referencing peer-reviewed research
6. Which component of evidence-based practice refers to a fitness professional's accumulated education, experience, and practical skills?
Individual professional expertise
Best external evidence
Client values and expectations
*. Number of continuing education units earned
7. Which statement best describes the term deconditioned?
A. A state in which a person is dealing with a chronic health condition
B. A state in which the individual is out of breath when climbing a flight of stairs
C. A state in which a person may have a combination of muscle imbalances, poor flexibility, insufficient endurance, or limited joint stability
D. A state in which a person is overweight or obese and at risk for diabetes
8. Which of the following is not a component of an integrated approach to exercise?
A. Speed, agility, and quickness
B Diet supplementation
C. Balance
D. Core strength and stability
9. Which chronic disease is the leading cause of death in the world today?
A Coronary artery disease
B.
Cancer
C.
Diabetes
D. Dementia
10. Which term refers to a person's education, income, and occupation?
A.
C.
D.
Behavioral health
Socioeconomic status
Global state of health
Emotional health
11. The human body is uniquely designed to respond to stress and, if necessary, make changes to maintain optimal health and physiological functioning. What is this process called?
Homeostasis
B.
Fight-or-flight response
Neuromuscular efficiency
D. Excitation-contraction coupling
12. Which condition is an example of a chronic disease?
A. Flu
B. Strep throat
С.)
Type 2 diabetes
D.
Appendicitis
1. What is something that allows a fitness professional to stand out from others in featuring their services?
SWOT analysis
B. Statement of work (SOW)
C. Unique selling proposition (USP)
D. PERT estimate
2. What statement best describes the main benefit for establishing a brand identity?
A. A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.
A brand identity allows a fitness professional to design a colorful logo that attracts attention.
C. A brand identity provides more opportunities for being featured in magazines.
D. A brand identity could make it easier to create a social media profile.
3. Which statement best describes the first stage of the sales process?
A. Discussing pricing options
B.
Asking for referrals
С.
Promoting the benefits of personal training for improving health and longevity
Identifying a customer's needs
4. Which statement best describes the second stage of the sales process?
A. Discussing the customer's budget
B.
Discussing discounts on various personal training packages
Communicating solutions for the customer's needs
D.
Communicating the negative side effects of a sedentary lifestyle
5. Which statement best describes the final stage of the sales process?
A.
Identifying a customer's needs
Making the sale by asking for a financial commitment to solving the customer's needs Asking for referrals
Communicating solutions for the customer's needs
6. How many CEUs does the mandatory CPR/AED certification provide for renewal of the NASM-CPT credential?
A.
0.2
B.
1
C0.5
D. 0.1
7. Identify the correct number of continuing education units (CEUs) that an NASM Certified Personal Trainer needs to complete in a 2-year cycle to renew the certification.
4.5
8. Why is continued education required for NASM Certified Personal Trainers?
To ensure that fitness professionals stay current on the latest understandings and research findings within the industry
B.
C.
D.
To elevate the fitness professional's status and reputation within the fitness community To promote economic prosperity for the fitness industry and certifying organizations To abide by federal guidelines that require continuing education units for allied health professionals
9. What is the purpose of a professional personal training certification?
A.
B.
To demonstrate that an individual is committed to the field of personal training
To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category
To abide by federal guidelines that require certification for fitness professionals
D.
To ensure gyms and health clubs follow rules established by OSHA
10. What statement best describes a low-cost health club?
A. A health club that provides amenities like locker rooms, snack and supplement sales, and group fitness workouts included in the price of membership
B.
A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services
D. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives
11. What statement best describes a premium health club?
A. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
B.
A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities
D.
This statement does not best describe a premium health club.
The role of psychology in fitness and wellness is strongly rooted in which area?
A. Eating disorders
B.
Behavioral change
D.
Social physique anxiety
Depression
2. The field of psychology focuses on which of the following domains?
The mind and behavior
B. Physiological systems
C. Pathology of disease
D. Neuromuscular adaptations
3. Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior?
A.
B.
Sport and exercise psychology
Health psychology
Social psychology
D.
Developmental psychology
4. Which type of professionals are qualified to counsel individuals who are diagnosed with depression, using exercise as a supplemental treatment?
A. Registered dietitian or nutritionist
B. Corrective exercise specialist or certified exercise physiologist
C. Psychologist or psychiatrist
D. Certified Personal Trainer or certified fitness professional
5. The intensity and direction of someone's effort describes which of the following?
A. Ambition
B. Initiative
C. Aspiration
D. Motivation
6. The social standing of a person or group that includes education, income, and occupation describes which term?
A. Socioeconomic status
B. Net worth
C.
Social influence
D. Income status
7. A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting?
A. Establish shart- and long-term goals.
8. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.
C.
Create a plan for overcoming barriers.
D.
Start establishing an emotional support system.
8. Extrinsic mativation is characterized by which of the following?
Being motivated by the process of changing behaviors
A drive to be good at something
Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others
Being motivated by a fear of failure
9. Which type of motivation would be characterized by a dient who enjoys the process of becoming
more hit?
A.
Extrinsic motivation
B.
Achievement motivation
Affiliation motivation
Intrinsic motivation
10. Long-term exercise adherence is associated with which type of motivation?
Extrinsic motivation
Amotivation
C.
Intrinsic motivation
D. Incentive motivation
11. A long-term client has recently indicated that she wants to start training for a fitness competition driving her?
and, due to her competitive nature, she indicates that she wants to win. Which type of motivation is
Intrinsic motivation
Extrinsic motivation
Affiliation motivation
Autonomy motivation
12. When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating?
Competition with others
Improved physical appearance
C.
Being a part of a social group
D. Health and well-being
13. A new client is having trouble managing her busy schedule and has cancelled her last 3 personal training sessions. What is the best option for the fitness professional?
Help the client determine her barriers, and talk through strategies to overcome them.
Let the client know that cancelling sessions costs them money without providing any benefits.
1. Which of the following is an example of a client's intrinsic motivation for exercise?
A. Exercising because they feel guilty
B.
C.
Exercising because it is fun
D.
Exercising because a doctor tells them to Exercising because they value the health benefits
2. If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client improve their technique by using guided practice to enhance confidence, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?
A. Self-efficacy
B. Intention
C. Self-regulation
D. Outcome expectations
3. A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client's outcome expectations for resistance training.
What behavior change technique might they use?
A. Improving their confidence for their technique
B. Helping them make a plan
C.
Helping make the exercises fun
D. Providing information on the health benefits
4. A client is asked to record what exercises they perform, how much they eat, and how much they sleep.
Which of these strategies is the client using?
A. Imagery
B. Goal setting
C. Self-monitoring
D. Contemplation
5. What is the correct order of the Stages of Change?
A. Contemplation, precontemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
В.
Precontemplation, action, preparation, contemplation, maintenance
C.
Preparation, precontemplation, contemplation, action, maintenance
D. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
6. A client is asked, "Why do you want to lose weight?" This is an example of what kind of question?
A. Directive
B. Open-ended
C. Closed-ended
D. Contemplation
1. Which of the following is an example of a client's intrinsic motivation for exercise?
A. Exercising because they feel guilty
B. Exercising because it is fun
C. Exercising because a doctor tells them to
D. Exercising because they value the health benefits
2. If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client improve their technique by using guided practice to enhance confidence, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?
A. Self-efficacy
B. Intention
C. Self-regulation
D. Outcome expectations
3. A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client's outcome expectations for resistance training.
What behavior change technique might they use?
A.
Improving their confidence for their technique
B. Helping them make a plan
C. Helping make the exercises fun
D. Providing information on the health benefits
4. A client is asked to record what exercises they perform, how much they eat, and how much they sleep.
Which of these strategies is the client using?
A. Imagery
B. Goal setting
C. Self-monitoring
D. Contemplation
5. What is the correct order of the Stages of Change?
A. Contemplation, precontemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
B. Precontemplation, action, preparation, contemplation, maintenance
C. Preparation, precontemplation, contemplation, action, maintenance
D. Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
6. A client is asked, "Why do you want to lose weight?" This is an example of what kind of question?
A. Directive
B. Open-ended
C. Closed-ended
D. Contemplation
7. What stage of change is a person in if they are not planning on exercising within the next 6 months?
A. Precontemplation
B. Action
C. Contemplation
D. Maintenance
8. What stage of change is a person in if they are planning on exercising within the next 6 months?
A. Action
B. Maintenance
С.
Contemplation
D.
Precontemplation
9. What stage of change is a person in if they are planning to begin exercising soon and have taken steps
A. Action
B.
Preparation
C. Maintenance
D.
Precontemplation
10. What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising but for less than 6 months?
A. Contemplation
B.
Action
C.
Maintenance
D.
Precontemplation
11. What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising consistently for 6 months or longer?
A. Action
B. Contemplation
C. Maintenance
D. Precontemplation
12. When a person is ambivalent about changing, what stage of change are they likely in?
A. Contemplation
B. Action
C. Precontemplation
D. Maintenance
13. What type of communication includes posture, hand gestures, proximity to others, and facial expressions?
A. Verbal communication
B. Reflective listening
1. Human movement is accomplished through the functional integration of three systems within the human body: the nervous system, the skeletal system, and what other system?
A. Digestive
B. Muscular
C. Vascular
D. Coronary
2. What is the concept that describes the human body as a chain of interdependent links that work together to perform movement?
A. Kinetic chain
B. Golgi tendon organ
C. Nervous system
D. Proprioception
3. Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function?
A. It helps transmit the motor signal.
B. It converts ADP back to ATP.
C. It stimulates actin and myosin activity.
D. It helps the nerve impulse cross from the synapse into the muscle.
4. What best describes the all-or-nothing principle?
A. All muscle fibers contract, or none at all do.
B.
The switch from type I to type Il muscle fibers
C.
The switch from type lla to type lIx muscle fibers
D. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.
5. What is the name of the specialized cell that is the functional unit of the nervous system?
A. Nucleus
B. Neuron
C. Axon
D. Spindles
6. Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries?
A. Type lla
B. Type l
C. Type III
D. Type lIx
7. Which part of a cell is responsible for using nutrients to create energy for the cell?
A. Organelles
B.
Effector sites
C.
Mitochondria
D. Electrolytes
8. One of the two interdependent divisions of the nervous system is the central nervous system. What is
the second division?
A. Autonomic nervous system
B. Somatic nervous system
C. Peripheral nervous system
D. Sympathetic nervous system
9. What are the two components of the central nervous system?
A.
The brain and spinal cord
В.
The nerves and sensory receptors
C.
The somatic and autonomic nervous systems
D. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
10. What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system?
A. To coordinate the activity of all parts of the body
B. To transmit impulses between afferent and efferent neurons
C. To transmit nervous impulses from neuron to neuron
D. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
11. Which system supplies neural input to organs that run the involuntary processes of the body?
A. Somatic nervous system
B. Mechanoreceptors
C. Autonomic nervous system
D. The brain
12. When a client's heart rate is raised during cardio activities, this is being caused by which system?
A. Sympathetic nervous system
B. Parasympathetic nervous system
C. Somatic nervous system
D. Central nervous system
13. Which system puts the body into a relaxed state, termed rest and digest?
A. Sympathetic nervous system
B,
Somatic nervous system
C. Central nervous system
D. Parasympathetic nervous system
1. Which system is comprised of the airways and lungs?
A. Cardiovascular
B. Digestive
C. Respiratory
D. Endocrine
2. The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to provide the body with what gas?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
D. Platelets
3. The cardiovascular and respiratory systems work together to remove what waste product?
A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxide
C.
Water
D. Platelets
4. Where is the heart located in the thoracic cavity?
A. Central to the right and anterior to the spine
B.
Central to the left and posterior to the spine
C.
Central to the right and posterior to the spine
D. Central to the left and anterior to the spine
5. What area of the chest contains the heart?
A. Myofibril
B.
Atrium
C. Ventricle
D. Mediastinum
6. What is the primary muscle type of the heart?
A. Skeletal
B. Cardiac
C. Smooth
D. Myofibril
7. Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins?
A.
Left atrium
B.
Left ventricle
C.
Right atrium
D.
Right ventricle
8. Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs?
A. Left atrium
B.
D.
Right atrium
C. Left ventricle
Pulmonary veins
9. Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs?
A. Right ventricie
B.
C.
Left ventricle
Left atrium
D. Right atrium
10. Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body?
A. Left ventricle
B.
Right ventricle
Left atrium
Right atrium
11. What would be considered a normal resting heart rate for a healthy sedentary person?
120 beats per minute
50 beats per minute
C.
80 beats per minute
D. 105 beats per minute
12. What is cardiac output?
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat or contraction
105 beats per minute
C.
The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
D. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
13. What is stroke volume?
The amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute
The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction