NEET-PG 2023 Recall (PYQs) – Integrated Bullet-Note Compendium
Microbiology (Q 1-10)
Dengue – classical clinical triad & lab clues (Q1)
• High-grade fever + arthralgia + extensive petechiae → capillary leak & thrombocytopenia.
• Labs: Hb (hemoconcentration absent yet), WBC , platelets , prolonged bleeding time with normal clotting time = platelet dysfunction, not coagulation factor loss.
• DDx ruled out: malaria (no hemolysis + normal BT/CT), scrub typhus (eschar), typhoid (rose spots, neutropenia).
• Take-home: thrombocytopenia + petechiae + normal CT → think Dengue.Trichomonas vaginalis pearls (Q2)
• Pear-shaped, flagellated trophozoite; no cystic stage.
• Exhibits characteristic “twitching / tumbling” motility on wet mount (true statement).
• Cultivable in Diamond’s medium; sexually transmitted; causes strawberry cervix.Leishmania tropica – cutaneous CL (Q3)
• Desert Belt (West Rajasthan).
• Ulcer with erythematous margin; biopsy shows Leishman-Donovan bodies (dark nucleus + bar-shaped kinetoplast).
• Trypanosoma/Babesia blood parasites; Histoplasma → intracellular yeast.Cytomegalovirus – “owl-eye” cells in urine (Q4)
• Large basophilic intranuclear inclusions.
• Congenital infection → sensorineural deafness, chorioretinitis.
• Differs from EBV (Downey cells) & HSV (Cowdry A).Clonorchis sinensis & cholangiocarcinoma (Q5)
• Oriental liver fluke, encysts in intra-hepatic ducts.
• Chronic infestation → biliary inflammation, pigment stones, carcinoma.Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (Q6)
• HIV pt, non-productive cough, weight loss; sputum culture negative (doesn’t grow on routine fungal media).
• Gomori methenamine silver → crescent/boat-shaped cysts with central dot.Leptospirosis – MAT as investigation of choice (Q7)
• Sewage worker triad: jaundice, conjunctival suffusion, hemorrhage (Weil disease).
• Microscopic agglutination test = gold standard serology.Rotavirus – stool Ag detection (Q8)
• ELISA/latex agglutination for VP6 antigen; rapid & sensitive.Plasmodium falciparum – HRP-2 positive (Q9)
• HRP-2 based RDT detects histidine-rich protein-2 produced only by P. falciparum.
• Vivax diagnosed by pLDH & aldolase kits.Haemophilus influenzae meningitis (Q10)
• Pleomorphic gram-negative coccobacilli; chocolate agar with X & V factors.
• Satellitism around Staph. aureus (choice 3 – true).
• Non-lactose fermenter on MacConkey.
Radiology (Q 12-13)
Cephalhematoma vs. subgaleal etc. (Q12)
• Confined by suture lines; parietal swelling since birth; resolves spontaneously.
• Subgaleal crosses sutures; encephalocele connects intracranially.Putty Kidney – renal TB (Q13)
• Autonephrectomised, dense calcification replacing renal outline; sterile pyuria.
Anatomy (Q 14-18)
- Deep inguinal ring defect → fascia transversalis (Q14).
- TMJ articular disc attachment – lateral pterygoid (Q15).
- Histology slide showing glomerulus (Q16).
- PDA due to 6th left aortic arch persistence (Q17).
- Urachus → median umbilical ligament from allantois (marker 4) (Q18).
Biochemistry (Q 20-33)
- -Glutamyl carboxylase needs factors & protein C/S (Vit K) (Q20).
- Pellagra triad → Vit B3 (niacin) deficiency (Q21).
- McArdle (Type V) – muscle glycogen phosphorylase defect; exercise-induced cramps, low lactate (Q22).
- Polished rice → Thiamine deficiency; RBC transketolase ↑ after TPP (Q23).
- Wernicke (confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia) – acute thiamine lack in alcoholics (Q24).
- Glycogen synthase deficiency – no hepatic glycogen, fasting hypoglycemia (Q25).
- Wet beriberi – edema, cardiomegaly due to thiamine lack (Q26).
- Alcohol → ↑NADH/NAD⁺ ratio → hyperuricemia & hyperlactatemia precipitating gout (Q27).
- Acrodermatitis, poor wound healing → Zinc deficiency (Q28).
- Scurvy due to defective collagen hydroxylation (Vit C) (Q29).
- Low insulin:glucagon → hormone-sensitive lipase activation (Q30).
- Black urine → alkaptonuria (homogentisate dioxygenase) (Q31).
- Avidin from raw eggs binds biotin → dermatitis, alopecia (Q32).
- **Cherry-red macula without hepatosplenomegaly → Tay–Sachs (Hexosaminidase-A) (Q33).
Ophthalmology (Q 34-38, 176-180)
- Right homonymous hemianopia → lesion in left optic tract (Q34).
- Immature senile cataract → phaco + IOL (Q35).
- Limbal dermoid in child (Q36).
- Kayser–Fleischer ring → order serum ceruloplasmin for Wilson (Q37).
- Corneal ulcer diagnosis → fluorescein dye under cobalt-blue filter (Q38).
- Astigmatism produces “conoid of Sturm” (retinoscopy image) (Q176).
- Congenital glaucoma – buphthalmos, photophobia, tearing (Q179).
- **Index myopia – nuclear cataract increases refractive index; pt removes near glasses (Q180).
Surgery (Selected high-yield: Q 39-47, 51, 58, 60, 62, 63, 65, 70, 72, 75, 84, 85, 88)
- Penile verrucous Ca without nodes → partial penectomy with adequate margin (Q39).
- IO (tibial) access for rapid fluid resuscitation (Q40).
- Fournier gangrene → mixed aerobes & anaerobes; early debridement, broad ABX, HBOT may help (Q41).
- APR – ligation of sup. rectal a. may injure hypogastric plexus → sympathetic retrograde ejaculation & bladder dysfn (Q42).
- Keloid – extends beyond scar, pruritic (Q43).
- Post-lap hernia repair thigh pain → lateral cutaneous nerve entrapment (Q44).
- GCS: E2 V3 M4 = 9 (opens to pain, inappropriate words, withdraws) (Q45).
- Hydatid cyst liver – due to Echinococcus; PAIR / surgery; serology (Q46).
- High AFP >400 + chronic alcohol → hepatocellular carcinoma (Q47).
- Chronic pancreatitis with dilated duct >7 mm → longitudinal pancreaticojejunostomy (Puestow) (Q51).
- Acute aortic dissection – pulse/BP differential, mediastinal widening (Q58).
- Small amoebic liver abscess 25 cc → metronidazole (medical) (Q60).
- Subdural hematoma – crescent shape, weeks after trauma (Q62).
- Necrotizing fasciitis (Meleney) – repeated debridement; HBOT useful (so statement ‘no role’ is false) (Q63).
- Direct inguinal hernia – weakness of conjoint tendon/posterior wall (Q65).
- Hand–arm vibration syndrome – prolonged use of drills → vasospasm (“white finger”) (Q70).
- Rectal juvenile polyp hamartoma causing painless prolapse bleed (Q72).
- Trophic (neuropathic) ulcer over pressure points (Q75).
- CEAP C4a – eczema / pigmentation with varicose veins (Q84).
- Subarachnoid hemorrhage – perform CT angiography / DSA; nimodipine after confirmation (Q85).
- **Corrosive strictures with complete dysphagia – feeding jejunostomy first (Q88).
Pharmacology (Highlights Q 64, 66, 68, 71, 73-78, 140-143)
- Oral candidiasis from ICS → clotrimazole troches (Q64).
- PPH in asthmatic – avoid Carboprost (PGF2α) (bronchospasm) (Q66).
- Omapatrilat inhibits both ACE & neprilysin (acts on RAAS & natriuretic path) (Q68).
- Amiodarone → pulmonary fibrosis, weight gain, fatigue (Q71).
- Aspirin overdose – alkalinize urine with (Q73).
- Clonidine withdrawal → rebound hypertension due to receptor up-regulation (Q74).
- Allopurinol – xanthine oxidase inhibitor, ↓uric acid synthesis (Q76).
- Oprelvekin (IL-11) – thrombopoietic in chemo-induced thrombocytopenia (Q77).
- Losartan additionally blocks TxA2 receptors – ↓platelet aggregation (true statement) (Q78).
- Digoxin toxicity 4 mg/dL; wait two half-lives ≈ 80 h before restart (Q140).
- Atropine infusion → decreased sweating → hyperthermia (Q141).
- **Alteplase – tPA promotes plasmin-mediated fibrin degradation (Q143).
ENT (Q 55, 57, 59, 123, 126, 128)
- Frontal mucocele – delayed proptosis post trauma (CT opacified sinus) (Q55).
- Total laryngectomy stoma picture (Q57).
- Rinne −ve at low freq, +ve at 1 kHz → 30-45 dB conductive loss (Q59).
- Fossa of Rosenmüller marked in nasopharynx image (Q123).
- Tracheostomy tube not for routine upper airway exam (Q126 false).
- **Referred otalgia in tonsillitis via glossopharyngeal tympanic branch (Q128).
Physiology (Q 83, 86, 87, 90, 99, 104, 110)
- Functional residual capacity labelled on spirogram (Q83).
- Heat stroke → anhidrosis (so sweating absent; option 3 ‘sweating’ would NOT be seen) (Q86).
- Renal clearance graph: A glucose (reabsorbed), B bicarbonate (partially), C inulin (GFR), D PAH (secreted) (Q87).
- Refractory period is from B to D on nerve AP curve (Q90).
- Preterm RDS – ↑surface tension, ↓compliance (Q99).
- Hyperkalemia depolarizes RMP → less negative (more positive) (Q104).
- **Myocardial plateau phase (point marked) due to slow prolonged influx (Q110).
Medicine (Selected high-yield Q 93, 96, 98, 101, 106, 109, 111, 114, 134, 135, 136, 137, 138)
- Holosystolic apex murmur radiation to axilla → mitral regurgitation (Q93).
- Ankylosing spondylitis – bamboo spine, enthesitis, uveitis (Q96).
- Thyroid storm with asthma → rate control by diltiazem (non-selective β-blockers contraindicated) (Q98).
- Chronic HBV high load + ↑ALT → start Tenofovir weeks (Q101).
- Rest tremor, rigidity, flat affect → basal ganglia lesion (Q106).
- HSV encephalitis – temporal lobe affinity (Q109).
- Subacute combined degeneration – B12 lack → dorsal columns + CST loss (Q111).
- Prominent ‘a’ wave + mid-diastolic murmur → tricuspid stenosis (Q114).
- Tall peaked T & U wave from hyper-K? No; spironolactone → peaked T, prolonged PR (Q134).
- Lewy bodies in cortex + visual hallucinations → Dementia with Lewy bodies (answer keyed Parkinson variant) (Q135).
- Central diabetes insipidus post-hypophysectomy → lifelong DDAVP (Q136).
- Pancoast tumour – apical lung mass, Horner & C8/T1 pain (Q137).
- **Podagra with normal urate early – acute gout (monosodium urate crystals) (Q138).
Pediatrics (Key Q 112-118, 181-183, 186)
- DKA with shock – ABC + NS 20 mL/kg, insulin after 1 h (ISPAD) (Q112).
- Best growth marker – 25 cm length gain in 1st year (Q113).
- Congenital rubella triad: cataract, PDA, deafness (Q115).
- Cystic fibrosis – sweat chloride >60 mEq/L (Q118).
- Measles – Koplik spots, cephalocaudal rash (Q119).
- Bordetella pertussis
- Laryngotracheobronchitis (croup) – steeple sign, biphasic stridor (Q181).
- Biliary atresia – conjugated jaundice + clay stools, portal fibrosis (Q183).
- **Congenital CMV – periventricular calcification, HSM, thrombocytopenia (Q186).
Pathology (Highlights Q 170-197)
- Gaucher disease – glucocerebrosidase deficiency; crumpled tissue macrophages (Q170).
- Letulle technique – en masse evisceration tongue to prostate (Q171).
- HSV PCR most sensitive for CSF (Q173).
- Yellow rhombic crystals with picric acid → Barberio test for semen (sexual assault) (Q175).
- Hereditary spherocytosis confirmed by osmotic fragility (Q182).
- Membranous nephropathy in Hep B – subepithelial spike & dome (Q188).
- Hodgkin vs. Burkitt jaw mass t(8;14) starry-sky → Burkitt (Q185).
- Spike & dome already covered.
- AML-M3 (APML) t(15;17) with Auer rods, DIC risk (Q197).
- Hemophilia A/B – factors VIII, IX deficiency cause deep bleeds (Q198).
- **Asbestos exposure → malignant mesothelioma (Q199).
PSM & Public Health (Selected Q 116-133, 189, 192, 200)
- Lathyrism – -ODAP (BOAA) from Lathyrus sativus causing spastic paraparesis (Q130).
- qSOFA = SBP ≤100, RR ≥22, GCS
- Tracking phenomenon – BP rank stability from childhood (Q120).
- Retrospective cohort – aniline dye & bladder Ca study (Q117).
- Grey kit for cervical erosion/PID (syndromic STI) (Q124).
- RDA – intake meeting needs (Q200).
- Sputum-negative TB suspect → order CBNAAT per NTEP (Q189).
- **Infant mortality rate = sensitive index of health care (Q192).
Forensic Medicine (Q 166-175, 187, 190)
- Datura poisoning – anticholinergic (dry hot skin, urinary retention); antidote physostigmine (Q166).
- Viper bite – painful bleeding, local necrosis, incoagulable blood (Q190).
- Post-mortem caloricity >37 °C in septicemia, tetanus, pontine hemorrhage (Q187).
- Strychnine – spinal convulsions with opisthotonus, consciousness preserved (Q178).
- **Section 314 IPC – death of mother by act with intent to cause miscarriage (Q184).
Miscellaneous High-Yield Nuggets
- **Tissue plasminogen activator MOA – converts plasminogen → plasmin, fibrinolysis.
- **ASHA workers – behavior change, nutrition counselling for pregnant women (Q122).
- **HPV vaccination advice to teen daughter of Ca-cervix pt (Q157).
- **Hysteroscopy preferred in Asherman’s (intra-uterine adhesions) (Q145).
- **OHSS – enlarged cystic ovaries after gonadotropin stimulation (Q154).
- **Polyhydramnios – SFH > gestation, tense, muffled FHS (Q144).
- **Ectopic <4 cm, hCG <5000, stable → single-dose MTX (Q153).