Exam Review

Question 1 (1 point)

A covalent bond is likely to be polar when

a

one of the atoms sharing electrons is much more electronegative than the other atom.

b

the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative.

c

the two atoms sharing electrons are the same element.

d

oxygen is one of the two atoms sharing electrons.

e

the two atoms sharing electrons are different elements.

Question 2 (1 point)

What is the difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds?

a

Covalent bonds involve the sharing of pairs of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of single electrons between atoms.

b

Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of protons between atoms.

c

Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the electrical attraction between atoms.

d

Covalent bonds involve the transfer of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms.

e

Covalent bonds are formed between atoms to form molecules; ionic bonds are formed between atoms to form compounds.

Question 3 (1 point)

Which of the following is a correct monomer/polymer pairing?

a

amino acid/polypeptide

b

amino acid/polysaccharide

c

monosaccharide/polypeptide

d

glycerol/triglyceride

Question 4 (1 point)

Which of the following is an example of a dehydration reaction?

a

the reaction of two amino acids, forming a peptide bond with the consumption of water

b

the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the release of water

c

the reaction of a fat with glycerol, forming fatty acids with the release of water

d

the reaction of two monosaccharides, forming a disaccharide with the release of water

Question 5 (1 point)

Large organic molecules are generally synthesized by polymerization of a few types of simple subunits. Which of the following is an exception to this statement?

a

a steroid

b

cellulose

c

DNA

d

an enzyme

Question 6 (1 point)

Which of the following statements regarding saturated fatty acids is true?

a

They are usually produced by plants.

b

They are the predominant fatty acid in corn oil.

c

They are usually liquid at room temperature.

d

They are the principal molecules in lard and butter.

e

They have double bonds between the carbon atoms of the fatty acids.

Question 7 (1 point)

How many peptide bonds are present in a polypeptide that contains 45 amino acids?

a

45

b

44

c

90

d

46

Question 8 (1 point)

If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 35S, which of these molecules will be radioactively labeled?

a

starch

b

nucleic acids

c

proteins

d

phospholipids

Question 9 (1 point)

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Figure 3.8

Which of the following statements regarding the molecule illustrated in Figure 3.8 is true?

a

It is an entirely nonpolar molecule.

b

It is a saturated fatty acid.

c

Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.

d

It would be highly soluble in water.

Question 10 (1 point)

Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following molecules?

a

nucleic acids

b

proteins

c

cellulose

d

glycogen

e

lipids

Question 11 (1 point)

The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the following structures is primarily involved in this process and therefore abundant in liver cells?

a

rough ER

b

nuclear envelope

c

smooth ER

d

Golgi apparatus

e

lysosomes

Question 12 (1 point)

Which of the following statements correctly describes a function of the Golgi apparatus?

a

synthesis of cytoplasmic proteins

b

detoxification of toxins

c

assembly of ribosomal subunits

d

protein modification and sorting

Question 13 (1 point)

One of the key innovations in the evolution of eukaryotes from a prokaryotic ancestor is the endomembrane system. Which eukaryotic organelles or features might have evolved as a part of, or as an elaboration of, the endomembrane system?

a

nuclear envelope

b

mitochondria

c

chloroplasts

d

plasma membrane

Question 14 (1 point)

The chemical reactions involved in respiration in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are virtually identical. In eukaryotic cells, ATP is synthesized primarily on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. In light of the endosymbiont theory for the evolutionary origin of mitochondria, where is most ATP synthesis likely to occur in prokaryotic cells?

a

on the plasma membrane

b

in the cytoplasm

c

on the endoplasmic reticulum

d

on the nucleoid membrane

Question 15 (1 point)

The primary structural components of the cell membrane are

a

phospholipids and cellulose.

b

phospholipids and proteins.

c

cholesterol and proteins.

d

glycoproteins and cholesterol.

e

proteins and cellulose.

Question 16 (1 point)

The fluid mosaic model of the membrane proposed that membranes

a

consist of a phospholipid bilayer between two layers of hydrophilic proteins.

b

consist of a single layer of phospholipids and proteins.

c

consist of protein molecules embedded in a fluid bilayer of phospholipids.

d

consist of a phospholipid bilayer composed of a variety of fatty acids.

Question 17 (1 point)

A primary function of cholesterol in the plasma membranes of some animals is to

a

enable the membrane to stay fluid more easily when the temperature drops.

b

facilitate the removal of hydrogen atoms from saturated phospholipids.

c

facilitate cell-cell interactions by binding to receptors on neighboring cells.

d

make the membrane more rigid, allowing it to resist pressure from outside the cell.

Question 18 (1 point)

The cell membranes of Antarctic ice fish might have which of the following adaptations?

a

a high percentage of trans fatty acids

b

a high percentage of unsaturated fatty acids

c

no cholesterol

d

a high percentage of very long chain saturated fatty acids

Question 19 (1 point)

Submerging a red blood cell in a hypertonic solution will result in

a

plasmolysis of the cell.

b

lysis of the cell.

c

the cell wall shriveling.

d

the cell becoming turgid.

Question 20 (1 point)

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Figure 5.1

For the following questions, match the labeled component of the cell membrane in Figure 5.1 with its description.

Which component in the figure is a peripheral protein?

a

B

b

A

c

D

d

C

e

E

Question 21 (1 point)

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Figure 5.3

The solutions in the arms of a U-tube (Figure 5.3) are separated at the bottom of the tube by a selectively permeable membrane. The membrane is permeable to sodium chloride but not to glucose. Side A is filled with a solution of 0.4 M glucose and 0.5 M sodium chloride (NaCl), and side B is filled with a solution containing 0.8 M glucose and 0.4 M sodium chloride. Initially, the volume in both arms is the same. Refer to the figure to answer the following questions.

At the beginning of the experiment, side A in the figure

a

is isotonic to side B.

b

is hypertonic to side B with respect to glucose.

c

is hypertonic to side B.

d

is hypotonic to side B.

e

is hypotonic to side B with respect to sodium chloride.

Question 22 (1 point)

Which of the following describes the critical role that ATP plays in cellular metabolism?

a

It is one of the four building blocks for RNA synthesis.

b

ATP serves as an energy shuttle in the cell, coupling exergonic and endergonic reactions.

c

The terminal phosphate group of ATP is attached by a particularly strong covalent bond that releases extra energy when broken.

d

Hydrolysis of ATP provides energy to drive exergonic reactions in the cell.

Question 23 (1 point)

Which of the following statements regarding enzymes is true?

a

Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by making the reaction more exergonic.

b

Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by lowering the activation energy barrier.

c

Enzymes change the equilibrium point of the reactions they catalyze.

d

Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by reducing the rate of reverse reactions.

Question 24 (1 point)

Increasing the enzyme concentration in an enzymatic reaction could overcome which of the following?

a

allosteric inhibition

b

saturation of the enzyme activity

c

denaturation of the enzyme

d

competitive inhibition

Question 25 (1 point)

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Figure 6.3 Activity of various enzymes (a) at various temperatures and (b) at various pH.

Which temperature and pH profile curves on the graphs in Figure 6.3 were most likely generated from analysis of an enzyme from a human stomach, where conditions are strongly acid?

a

curves 1 and 4

b

curves 1 and 5

c

curves 2 and 5

d

curves 2 and 4

e

curves 3 and 4

Question 26 (1 point)

The following question(s) are based on the reaction A + B ↔ C + D shown in Figure 6.4.

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Figure 6.4

Which of the following in Figure 6.4 would be the same in either an enzyme-catalyzed or a noncatalyzed reaction?

a

d

b

e

c

c

d

a

e

b

Question 27 (1 point)

When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a direct by-product of

a

chemiosmosis.

b

electron transfer in photosystem I.

c

reducing NADP+.

d

electron transfer in photosystem II.

e

splitting water molecules.

Question 28 (1 point)

In chemiosmosis in mitochondria, protons flow from the intermembrane space into the matrix, whereas in chemiosmosis in chloroplasts, protons flow from

a

the matrix into the stroma.

b

the stroma into the thylakoid space.

c

the thylakoid space to into the stroma.

d

the stroma into the cytosol.

e

the intermembrane space into the stroma.

Question 29 (1 point)

Which of the following statements about the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration is true?

a

In cellular respiration the biochemical pathways of photosynthesis run in reverse.

b

In photosynthesis the biochemical pathways of cellular respiration run in reverse.

c

There is a net consumption of ATP in cellular respiration and a net production of ATP in photosynthesis.

d

Cellular respiration occurs only in animals and photosynthesis occurs only in plants.

e

Cellular respiration is catabolic and photosynthesis is anabolic.

Question 30 (1 point)

Generation of proton gradients across membranes occurs during

a

photosynthesis only.

b

cellular respiration only.

c

both photosynthesis and cellular respiration.

d

neither photosynthesis nor cellular respiration.

Question 31 (1 point)

Reduction of oxygen to form water occurs during

a

both the light reactions of photosynthesis and cellular respiration.

b

the Calvin cycle only.

c

the light reactions of photosynthesis only.

d

both the light reactions of photosynthesis and the Calvin cycle.

e

cellular respiration only.

Question 32 (1 point)

Which of the following indicates a primary path by which electrons travel downhill energetically during aerobic respiration?

a

glucose ® NADH ® electron transport chain ® oxygen

b

glucose ® glycolysis ® electron transport chain ® NADH ® ATP

c

glucose ® glycolysis ® citric acid cycle ® NADH ® ATP

d

glucose ® citric acid cycle ® ATP ® NAD+

e

glucose ® pyruvate ® acetyl CoA ® ATP ® oxygen

Question 33 (1 point)

Substrate-level phosphorylation accounts for approximately what percentage of the ATP formed by the electron transport chain?

a

38%

b

10%

c

2%

d

100%

e

0%

Question 34 (1 point)

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Figure 7.2

Which of the following is an accurate description of the events that occur along the electron transport chain depicted in Figure 7.2?

a

The potential energy of electrons increases at each step in the pathway.

b

Each electron transfer between carriers results in oxidation of one carrier and reduction of another.

c

ATP is generated directly at three points in the pathway.

d

Electron transfer is directly coupled to chemiosmosis.

Question 35 (1 point)

Which of the following is the most likely fate of animal cells that lack receptors for local paracrine signal molecules?

a

They would be unable to grow and divide in response to growth factors from nearby cells.

b

They would be unable to respond to hormone signals delivered through the bloodstream.

c

They would grow and divide normally.

d

They would bind locally secreted growth factors, but intracellular signal pathways would be blocked.

Question 36 (1 point)

The mechanism by which testosterone alters cell function is by

a

acting as a steroid signal receptor that activates ion channel proteins.

b

serving as a transmembrane signal receptor that activates cell-signaling pathways.

c

binding to a receptor protein that enters the nucleus and activates specific genes.

d

serving as a second messenger that activates cell-signaling pathways.

Question 37 (1 point)

The primary function of transcription factors is

a

to transmit signals from an activated receptor to intracellular G proteins.

b

to regulate gene expression.

c

to regulate the conversion of ATP into cAMP.

d

to regulate DNA synthesis.

Question 38 (1 point)

The primary function of phosphatases in signal transduction is to

a

amplify the second messenger cAMP.

b

amplify signal transduction so it activates multiple relay molecules.

c

transfer a phosphate group from a kinase to the next relay molecule in a series.

d

inactivate protein kinases to turn off signal transduction.

Question 39 (1 point)

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Figure 5.5

Which of the following types of signaling is represented in Figure 5.5?

a

autocrine

b

hormonal

c

paracrine

d

synaptic

Question 40 (1 point)

What is shown in the diagram below?

a

intracellular receptor

b

gated ion channel

c

G protein coupled receptor

d

phosphorylation cascade

Question 41 (1 point)

A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately before beginning mitosis and is found to have an average of 16 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms would be in a cell nucleus following completion of mitosis and cytokinesis?

a

8

b

16

c

32

d

4

Question 42 (1 point)

What is a cleavage furrow?

a

a groove in the plasma membrane between daughter nuclei

b

the metaphase plate where chromosomes attach to the spindle

c

a ring of vesicles forming a cell plate

d

an indentation between daughter prokaryotic cells

Question 43 (1 point)

Most animal cells exhibit anchorage dependence, which means that in order to divide

a

nonkinetochore microtubules from opposite poles must overlap and be attached by motor proteins.

b

all chromosomes must be attached to spindle microtubules.

c

cells must be attached to a substrate or extracellular matrix of a tissue.

d

cell-surface phospholipids must be attached to those of adjoining cells.

Question 44 (1 point)

Please use the following information to answer the question(s) below.

The unlettered circle at the top of Figure 9.1 shows a diploid nucleus with four chromosomes that have not yet replicated. There are two pairs of homologous chromosomes, one long and the other short. One haploid set is black, and the other is gray. The circles labeled A-E show various combinations of these chromosomes.

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Figure 9.1

Which image displays the chromosomal composition of one daughter nucleus at telophase of mitosis?

a

D

b

A

c

B

d

C

e

E

Question 45 (1 point)

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Figure 9.3

In Figure 9.3, G1 is represented by which numbered parts of the cycle?

a

III only

b

II or IV

c

I or V

d

V only

e

IV only

Question 46 (1 point)

Which of the following describes a karyotype?

a

a natural cellular arrangement of chromosomes in the nucleus

b

a display of all the cell types in an organism

c

organized images of a cell's chromosomes

d

a display of a cell's mitotic stages

Question 47 (1 point)

For the following question(s), match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below.

I.

prophase I

V.

prophase II

II.

metaphase I

VI.

metaphase II

III.

anaphase I

VII.

anaphase II

IV.

telophase I

VIII.

telophase II



Homologous chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the spindle.

a

I

b

VI

c

II

d

IV

Question 48 (1 point)

Independent assortment of chromosomes during meiosis is a result of

a

the random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during anaphase II.

b

the random and independent way in which each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I.

c

the relatively small degree of homology shared by the X and Y chromosomes.

d

the random nature of the fertilization of ova by sperm.

Question 49 (1 point)

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Figure 10.2

Refer to the drawings in Figure 10.2 of a single pair of homologous chromosomes as they might appear during various stages of either mitosis or meiosis. Which diagram(s) represent(s) anaphase II of meiosis?

a

II only

b

III only

c

V only

d

either II or V

Question 50 (1 point)



If the DNA content of a diploid cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle is represented by x, then the DNA content of the same cell at metaphase of meiosis I would be

a

0.5x.

b

x.

c

0.25x.

d

2x.

Question 51 (1 point)

      Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. Two people with normal color vision have a color-blind son. What are the genotypes of the parents?

a

XNXn and XnY

b

XnXn and XNY

c

XNXN and XnY

d

XNXn and XNY

Question 52 (1 point)

What do we mean when we use the term dihybrid cross?

a

A dihybrid cross is performed for two generations.

b

A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters.

c

A dihybrid cross involves two parents.

d

A dihybrid cross produces two offspring.

Question 53 (1 point)

 

What is the probability that individual III-1 is Ww?

a

0%

b

50%

c

25%

d

75%

Question 54 (1 point)

The figure below shows a pedigree chart for a family, some of whose members exhibit the dominant trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle.

  If you were not told that the patten in the pedigree above was showing the inheritance of a dominant trait, which of the following would be evidence to support that fact?

a

The trait skips a generation

b

The trait is present in every generation

c

The trait is equally common in males and females.

d

The trait is more common in males than females.

Question 55 (1 point)

The pedigree below follows the inheritance of hemophilia. 

 

  Using the pedigree above what evidence supports that this is a sex linked recessive trait?

a

More females are affected and an affected child can be born to unaffected parents

b

More females are affected and it is present in every generation

c

More males are affected and an affected child can be born to unaffected parents

d

More males are affected and it is present in every generation

Question 56 (1 point)

Tallness (T) in snapdragons is dominant to dwarfness (t), and red (CR) flower color is not dominant to white (Cr). The heterozygous condition results in pink (CRCr) flower color.

    A dwarf red snapdragon is crossed with a plant homozygous for tallness and white flowers. What are the genotype and phenotype of the F1 individuals?

a

ttCRCr–dwarf and pink

b

ttCrCr–dwarf and white

c

TtCRCr–tall and red

d

TtCRCr–tall and pink

Question 57 (1 point)

In the following pedigree, squares represent males, circles represent females and shaded individuals are affected with a disorder.

__     What is the inheritance pattern in the pedigree shown above?

a

x linked dominant

b

autosomal recessive

c

autosomal dominant

d

x linked recessive

Question 58 (1 point)

In a particular plant, leaf color is controlled by gene locus D. Plants with at least one D allele have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one, and the F1 offspring is allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of the F2 is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown in Figure 11.1, where 1, 2, 3, and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within the square.

   Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond(s) to plants with light green leaves?

a

2

b

4

c

3

d

1

Question 59 (1 point)

 

Which of the boxes above corresponds to true breeding genotypes?

a

1

b

2

c

3

d

4

e

1 and 4

f

2 and 3

g

1 and 2