Musculoskeletal SCAQ

1. How many bones are there in an adult human skeleton?
   A) 198
   B) 206
   C) 216
   D) 230

2. How many skeletal muscles are in the human body?
   A) 500
   B) 650
   C) 750
   D) 850

3. Which of the following is NOT included in the musculoskeletal system assessment?
   A) Gait
   B) Range of motion (ROM)
   C) Reflexes
   D) Muscle strength

4. Which of the following is NOT a common musculoskeletal complaint?
   A) Joint pain
   B) Muscle weakness
   C) Dizziness
   D) Limited range of motion

5. What is the purpose of inspecting and palpating the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?
   A) Assess jaw alignment
   B) Check for pain and clicking
   C) Evaluate muscle strength
   D) Both A and B

6. What is the normal mouth opening range when assessing the TMJ?
   A) 0.5-1 inch
   B) 1-2 inches
   C) 2-4 inches
   D) 4-6 inches

7. An abnormal finding when palpating the sternoclavicular joint is:
   A) Symmetry
   B) Non-tender joint
   C) Swelling and tenderness
   D) Smooth joint movement

8. Which spinal curves are concave when viewed from the side?
   A) Cervical and lumbar
   B) Thoracic and sacral
   C) Thoracic and lumbar
   D) Cervical and sacral

9. An exaggerated lumbar curvature is known as:
   A) Kyphosis
   B) Lordosis
   C) Scoliosis
   D) Ankylosis

10. To assess cervical spine flexion, the patient is asked to:
    A) Rotate the head
    B) Look up at the ceiling
    C) Touch the chin to the chest
    D) Tilt the head side to side

11. The straight leg raise test is used to assess:
    A) Scoliosis
    B) Herniated disc
    C) Fractured pelvis
    D) Dislocated hip

12. Which condition is characterized by lateral spinal curvature?
    A) Kyphosis
    B) Lordosis
    C) Scoliosis
    D) Osteoarthritis

13. The Trendelenburg gait is caused by weakness of the:
    A) Quadriceps
    B) Hamstrings
    C) Gluteus medius
    D) Gastrocnemius

14. A patient with an ataxic gait may have issues with:
    A) Inner ear infections
    B) Muscle strength
    C) Coordination and balance
    D) Blood circulation

15. When palpating the shoulder, tenderness and swelling may indicate:
    A) Arthritis
    B) Bursitis
    C) Rotator cuff tear
    D) Any of the above

16. The Phalen’s test is used to diagnose:
    A) Carpal tunnel syndrome
    B) Tennis elbow
    C) Shoulder impingement
    D) Rheumatoid arthritis

17. A winged scapula may indicate weakness of which muscle?
    A) Deltoid
    B) Serratus anterior
    C) Trapezius
    D) Latissimus dorsi

18. What is the normal range of motion for shoulder abduction?
    A) 50 degrees
    B) 90 degrees
    C) 120 degrees
    D) 180 degrees

19. Elbow flexion is normally about:
    A) 90 degrees
    B) 120 degrees
    C) 160 degrees
    D) 180 degrees

20. Which condition is commonly known as "tennis elbow"?
    A) Rotator cuff tear
    B) Lateral epicondylitis
    C) Medial epicondylitis
    D) Carpal tunnel syndrome

21. The normal wrist extension range is about:
    A) 50 degrees
    B) 70 degrees
    C) 90 degrees
    D) 110 degrees

22. The knee-jerk reflex (patellar reflex) tests which spinal levels?
    A) L1-L2
    B) L2-L4
    C) S1-S2
    D) T12-L1

23. What is the normal degree of hip flexion when the knee is bent?
    A) 90 degrees
    B) 120 degrees
    C) 150 degrees
    D) 180 degrees

24. A patient with an antalgic gait is likely experiencing:
    A) Muscle weakness
    B) Pain while walking
    C) Poor coordination
    D) Neurological deficits

25. Hip adduction normally allows for how many degrees of movement?
    A) 20 degrees
    B) 30 degrees
    C) 50 degrees
    D) 70 degrees

26. When assessing the knees, swelling and tenderness may indicate:
    A) Arthritis
    B) Ligament injury
    C) Bursitis
    D) Any of the above

27. A positive straight leg test may indicate:
    A) Knee arthritis
    B) Sciatic nerve compression
    C) Hip dislocation
    D) Ankle sprain

28. The Achilles reflex tests which spinal levels?
    A) L2-L4
    B) S1-S2
    C) C5-C6
    D) L5-S1

29. Which test assesses fine touch and object recognition?
    A) Phalen’s test
    B) Romberg test
    C) Stereognosis test
    D) Babinski test

30. A positive Babinski sign in an adult is indicative of:
    A) Normal reflex response
    B) Upper motor neuron lesion
    C) Lower motor neuron lesion
    D) Peripheral nerve damage

31. What is the normal range for ankle dorsiflexion?
    A) 10 degrees
    B) 20 degrees
    C) 30 degrees
    D) 40 degrees

32. Which movement involves turning the palm upward?
    A) Pronation
    B) Supination
    C) Flexion
    D) Extension

33. When assessing muscle strength, a grade of 5 indicates:
    A) No muscle movement
    B) Full ROM against gravity and resistance
    C) Weak contraction
    D) Partial ROM

34. The most commonly affected joint in osteoarthritis is:
    A) Shoulder
    B) Hip
    C) Knee
    D) Elbow

35. A bunion is also known as:
    A) Hallux valgus
    B) Pes planus
    C) Hammer toe
    D) Gout

Answer Key

1 B | 2. B | 3. C | 4. C | 5. D | 6. B | 7. C | 8. A | 9. B | 10. C

11 B | 12. C | 13. C | 14. C | 15. D | 16. A | 17. B | 18. D | 19. C | 20. B

21 B | 22. B | 23. B | 24. B | 25. B | 26. D | 27. B | 28. B | 29. C | 30. B

31 B | 32. B | 33. B | 34. C | 35. A