Exam 2 Patho Hematology

Hematology — RBCs + Hemostasis/Coagulation

Red Blood Cells (Chapter 13)

  1. Increased RBC Production in High Altitude

    • A patient moves to a high-altitude location and develops increased RBC production.

    • Correct sequence:

      • C. Kidney senses hypoxia → releases EPO → bone marrow increases erythrocytes.

  2. Location of Erythropoiesis

    • Primary occurrence of erythropoiesis:

      • B. Bone marrow.

  3. Nucleus Expulsion during RBC Maturation

    • The nucleus is expelled at which stage:

      • C. Reticulocyte stage.

  4. RBC Lifespan

    • Correct lifespan of RBCs:

      • B. RBCs circulate about 120 days and are removed by the spleen.

  5. Function of the Spleen

    • The spleen is referred to as the “graveyard” of RBCs because it:

      • C. Removes aged/lysed/dead RBCs.

  6. Reticulocytosis Situations

    • An increased reticulocyte count may be seen in:

      • A. Acute bleeding

      • B. Rapid RBC destruction

      • D. Excessive RBC loss with early release.

  7. Decreased Reticulocyte Count

    • A decreased reticulocyte count most strongly suggests:

      • B. Bone marrow suppression.

  8. Shape of RBCs

    • RBCs are biconcave primarily to:

      • B. Increase surface area for diffusion.

  9. Color of RBCs

    • Why are RBCs red in color?

      • B. They contain large amounts of hemoglobin.

  10. Oxygen Transport in Blood

    • Most oxygen in the blood is transported:

      • B. Attached to hemoglobin.

  11. Oxygen Dissolved in Plasma

    • Approximately what percent of oxygen is dissolved in plasma?

      • D. 5%.

  12. Nutrients for Healthy RBC Production

    • Required nutrients include:

      • A. Protein

      • B. Iron

      • C. Vitamin B12

      • D. Folic acid.

  13. Composition of Hemoglobin

    • Hemoglobin is composed of:

      • B. Heme and globin.

  14. Hemoglobin Metabolism Pigment Sequence

    • Hemoglobin metabolism leads to which pigment sequence?

      • B. Biliverdin → bilirubin.

  15. Hyperbilirubinemia Findings

    • Hyperbilirubinemia can cause:

      • B. Jaundice.

  16. Jaundice Presentation

    • Jaundice is most likely to present as:

      • A. Yellowing of the skin

      • B. Yellowing of the sclera

      • E. Yellowing of the white part of the eyes.

  17. Composition of Adult Hemoglobin (HbA)

    • Adult hemoglobin (HbA) contains:

      • A. Two alpha and two beta polypeptide chains.

  18. Maximum Oxygen Carried by Hemoglobin

    • Each hemoglobin molecule can carry a maximum of how many oxygen molecules?

      • C. 4.

  19. Where Oxygen Attaches to Hemoglobin

    • Oxygen attaches to hemoglobin primarily in the:

      • B. Pulmonary capillaries.

  20. Effect of Iron Deficiency on RBCs

    • Not enough iron results in RBCs that:

      • B. Have less hemoglobin and decreased oxygen-carrying capacity.

  21. Hemoglobin F (HbF)

    • Hemoglobin F (HbF) is best described as:

      • B. Fetal hemoglobin replaced by HbA after birth.

  22. Definition of Hemoglobinopathy

    • Hemoglobinopathy refers to:

      • B. Abnormal hemoglobin structure due to genetic mutation.

  23. Sickle Cell Disease

    • Sickle cell disease involves RBCs becoming:

      • B. Crescent-moon shaped (“sickled”).

  24. Iron Absorption Site

    • Iron is absorbed primarily in the:

      • B. Duodenum and upper jejunum.

  25. Iron Transportation

    • Iron is transported in the blood mainly by:

      • B. Transferrin.

  26. Iron Storage

    • Iron is stored primarily as:

      • B. Ferritin complexes.

  27. Common Iron Storage Sites

    • Common iron storage sites include:

      • A. Bone marrow

      • B. Liver

      • C. Spleen.

  28. Dietary Factor Increasing Iron Absorption

    • Which dietary factor increases iron absorption?

      • B. Vitamin C.

  29. Dietary Factor Decreasing Iron Absorption

    • Which dietary factor decreases iron absorption?

      • C. Tannates in tea.

  30. Iron during RBC Breakdown

    • When the spleen breaks down old RBCs, the iron is primarily:

      • C. Recycled.

  31. Percentage of Whole Blood that is RBCs

    • Which value is the percentage of whole blood that is RBCs?

      • B. Hematocrit (Hct).

  32. CBC Component Reflecting Clotting Ability

    • Which CBC component reflects clotting ability most directly?

      • B. Platelets.

  33. Normal Reticulocyte Percentage

    • Reticulocytes normally make up about what percent of total RBCs?

      • C. 1%.

  34. MCV Usage

    • MCV is used to evaluate:

      • B. RBC size.

  35. Expected MCV in Microcytic RBCs

    • Microcytic RBCs would be expected with:

      • B. Decreased MCV.

  36. Hypochromic RBCs Indication

    • Hypochromic RBCs most closely indicate:

      • B. Decreased hemoglobin per cell (pale RBCs).

  37. Pattern of Low MCV and Color

    • A pattern of low MCV + low “color” is most consistent with:

      • B. Microcytic hypochromic anemia (iron deficiency).

  38. Pattern of Normal MCV and MCHC

    • A pattern of normal MCV + normal MCHC is most consistent with:

      • A. Normocytic normochromic anemia; commonly blood loss.

  39. Definition of Thalassemia

    • Thalassemia is best defined as:

      • B. Deficiency of one hemoglobin polypeptide chain.

  40. Findings in Thalassemia

    • In thalassemia, findings/mechanisms consistent with the study guide include:

      • A. Reduced hemoglobin synthesis

      • B. Decreased RBC production

      • C. Excess chains can build up and damage RBC development

      • D. Heinz bodies may form

      • E. Bone marrow expansion may thin bone (osteopenia).

  41. Most Severe Form of Beta Thalassemia

    • The most severe form of beta thalassemia is called:

      • B. Cooley’s anemia.

Platelets, Hemostasis & Coagulation (Chapter 14)

  1. Sequence of Hemostasis

    • Hemostasis involves:

      • B. Vasoconstriction → platelet plug → coagulation.

  2. Primary Hemostasis

    • Primary hemostasis refers mainly to:

      • B. Platelet aggregation/plug formation.

  3. Secondary Hemostasis

    • Secondary hemostasis refers mainly to:

      • B. Coagulation cascade leading to fibrin formation.

  4. Occlusive Thrombus Danger

    • An occlusive thrombus is dangerous because it can:

      • B. Obstruct blood flow in arteries or veins.

  5. Origin of Platelets

    • Platelets come from:

      • B. Megakaryocytes.

  6. Platelet Lifespan

    • Platelet lifespan is approximately:

      • C. 7–10 days.

  7. Synthesis of Thrombopoietin

    • Thrombopoietin is synthesized primarily by the:

      • B. Liver.

  8. Endothelial Injury and Platelet Function

    • Endothelial injury exposes collagen and releases vWF, which:

      • B. Attracts platelets to the injury site.

  9. Intrinsic Pathway Measurement

    • The intrinsic pathway is measured by:

      • B. aPTT.

Respiratory Concepts — Structure, Function, Pathophysiology Anatomy, Defense, Gas Exchange

  1. Right Lung Lobes

    • The right lung has:

      • C. 3 lobes.

  2. Left Lung Lobes

    • The left lung has:

      • B. 2 lobes.

  3. Aspiration Risk

    • Aspiration is more likely to affect the right lung because:

      • B. The right side has increased aspiration risk per anatomy emphasized.

  4. Airflow Pathway to Gas Exchange Units

    • Correct pathway for airflow to gas exchange units is:

      • B. Trachea → bronchi → bronchioles → alveolar ducts → alveoli.

  5. Mucociliary Escalator Composition

    • The mucociliary escalator consists of:

      • B. Ciliated pseudostratified epithelial cells and goblet cells.

  6. Disruptors of Mucociliary Escalator

    • Disruptors of the mucociliary escalator include:

      • A. Smoking

      • B. Respiratory infections.

  7. Location of Gas Exchange

    • Gas exchange occurs primarily at the:

      • B. Alveolar-capillary membrane.

  8. Factors Impairing Gas Exchange

    • Gas exchange is impaired by:

      • A. Reduced surface area (e.g., emphysema concept)

      • B. Increased membrane thickness (e.g., edema/fibrosis concepts)

      • C. V/Q mismatch.

  9. Normal PaO₂ Range

    • Normal PaO₂ range is:

      • C. 80–100 mmHg.

  10. Normal PaCO₂ Range

    • Normal PaCO₂ range is:

      • B. 35–45 mmHg.

  11. Pulse Oximetry (SpO₂) Estimate

    • Pulse oximetry (SpO₂) primarily estimates:

      • A. Hemoglobin saturation with oxygen.

  12. Limitations of Pulse Oximetry

    • Limitations of pulse oximetry include:

      • A. Does not measure CO₂

      • B. Can be inaccurate with poor perfusion

      • C. Dark nail polish can interfere

      • D. Carbon monoxide poisoning can give falsely high SpO₂.

  13. Suspicion of Hypoxia

    • A patient is restless, confused, tachycardic, and cyanotic; the nurse should suspect:

      • B. Hypoxia.

  14. Erythropoietin (EPO) Production

    • EPO production is primarily from the:

      • B. Kidney (90%) and liver (10%).

Mechanics of Breathing, V/Q, Regulation

  1. Primary Muscle of Inspiration

    • The primary muscle of inspiration is the:

      • B. Diaphragm.

  2. Nerve Critical for Diaphragm Control

    • The nerve emphasized for diaphragm control is the:

      • B. Phrenic nerve.

  3. Indication of Retractions

    • Retractions indicate:

      • B. Increased work of breathing and distress.

  4. Definition of Ventilation (V)

    • Ventilation (V) refers to:

      • B. Air reaching alveoli.

  5. Definition of Perfusion (Q)

    • Perfusion (Q) refers to:

      • B. Blood reaching alveoli.

  6. Example of Pulmonary Embolism (PE)

    • A pulmonary embolism (PE) is a classic example of:

      • B. Ventilated but not perfused alveoli.

  7. Hypoxic Pulmonary Vasoconstriction

    • Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction occurs when:

      • B. An alveolus has low oxygen and nearby arterioles constrict.

  8. Chronic Hypoxia Consequences

    • Chronic hypoxia can lead to:

      • A. Pulmonary hypertension.

  9. Central Chemoreceptors Response

    • Central chemoreceptors primarily respond to changes in:

      • B. CO₂ and pH.

  10. Peripheral Chemoreceptors Response

    • Peripheral chemoreceptors primarily respond to:

      • B. Decreased arterial oxygen.

  11. Hypoxic Drive Activation

    • Hypoxic drive becomes strongly activated when PaO₂ falls below about:

      • C. 60 mmHg.

  12. Common Cause of Hypercapnia

    • Hypercapnia most commonly results from:

      • B. Hypoventilation.

Respiratory Pathophysiology Terms & “Fluid Where It Shouldn’t Be”

  1. Definition of Dyspnea

    • Dyspnea is best defined as:

      • B. Subjective shortness of breath.

  2. Orthopnea Definition

    • Orthopnea refers to dyspnea that:

      • B. Worsens when lying flat.

  3. Productive Cough

    • A cough that produces sputum is described as:

      • B. Productive.

  4. Definition of Hemoptysis

    • Hemoptysis is:

      • B. Sputum containing blood.

  5. Atelectasis Definition

    • Atelectasis is best defined as:

      • B. Collapse of a small number of alveoli.

  6. Importance of Atelectasis Post-op

    • Atelectasis increases risk for:

      • B. Pneumonia.

  7. Function of Incentive Spirometry

    • Incentive spirometry helps primarily by:

      • B. Reopening alveoli and reducing collapse.

  8. Definition of Hypoxemia

    • Hypoxemia means:

      • B. Insufficient oxygen in the blood.

  9. Definition of Hypoxia

    • Hypoxia means:

      • A. Insufficient oxygen for tissue needs.

  10. Mild Hypoxemia SpO₂ Range

    • Mild hypoxemia generally around SpO₂:

      • C. 90–94%.

  11. Moderate Hypoxemia SpO₂ Range

    • Moderate hypoxemia generally around SpO₂:

      • B. 85–89%.

  12. Severe Hypoxemia SpO₂ Description

    • Severe hypoxemia generally:

      • D. <85%.

  13. Acute Pharyngitis Definition

    • Acute pharyngitis is inflammation of the:

      • B. Pharynx.

  14. Laryngitis Definition

    • Laryngitis is inflammation of the:

      • A. Larynx.

  15. Bronchodilation Association

    • Bronchodilation is primarily associated with:

      • A. Sympathetic nervous system.

  16. Bronchoconstriction Association

    • Bronchoconstriction is primarily associated with:

      • B. Parasympathetic nervous system.

  17. Reduced Lung Compliance Definition

    • Reduced lung compliance means the lungs are:

      • A. Stiffer and harder to expand.

  18. Pleural Membrane Function

    • The pleural membrane helps lung expansion mainly by maintaining:

      • B. Negative intrathoracic pressure.

  19. Pleural Effusion Definition

    • Pleural effusion is best described as:

      • B. Fluid in the pleural cavity around the lung.

  20. Pulmonary Edema Definition

    • Pulmonary edema is best described as:

      • B. Fluid at/around alveoli interfering with diffusion.

  21. Common Cause of Pulmonary Edema

    • The most common cause of pulmonary edema is:

      • B. Left ventricular heart failure.

  22. Nursing Priority for Pleural Effusion

    • A nursing priority for a patient with pleural effusion is to:

      • A. Position upright to support breathing and assess respiratory status.

  23. Interpreting SpO₂ with Confusion

    • A patient’s SpO₂ reads 99% but the patient is confused; the best interpretation is:

      • B. Pulse oximetry is limited; assess clinically and consider ABG if indicated.

  24. Findings Prompting Concern for Hypoxia

    • Findings that should prompt concern for hypoxia:

      • A. Confusion

      • B. Restlessness

      • C. Cyanosis

      • D. Tachycardia.