LU5.2 Nursing Care for Burns
1. What is the most immediate concern for a patient with severe burns?
a) Infection
b) Hypovolemia
c) Psychological trauma
d) Scar formation
2. Which of the following is a primary function of the skin that is lost due to burn injuries?
a) Vitamin C production
b) Protection against infection
c) Production of digestive enzymes
d) Regulation of blood sugar levels
3. What is the main goal of fluid resuscitation in burn patients?
a) Improve digestion
b) Restore circulating blood volume
c) Promote scar formation
d) Reduce pain sensation
4. The Parkland formula is used to estimate:
a) The percentage of burns affecting the body
b) The amount of fluid resuscitation needed
c) The severity of burn pain
d) The duration of burn treatment
5. A patient with 30% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) burns requires fluid resuscitation using the Parkland formula. What percentage of the calculated fluid should be administered in the first 8 hours?
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 100%
6. Which of the following is an early sign of burn shock?
a) Increased urine output
b) Hypotension and tachycardia
c) Decreased respiratory rate
d) Hyperactive bowel sounds
7. Which nursing intervention is essential for a burn patient with suspected inhalation injury?
a) Administering antibiotics
b) Performing early intubation
c) Applying cool compresses to the face
d) Elevating the patient’s legs
8. Why is an indwelling urinary catheter inserted in burn patients with >20% TBSA burns?
a) To monitor urine output and assess fluid resuscitation effectiveness
b) To prevent urinary tract infections
c) To promote early ambulation
d) To administer antibiotics
9. Which of the following indicates adequate fluid resuscitation in a burn patient?
a) Urine output of at least 30-50 mL/hour
b) Heart rate above 120 bpm
c) Persistent hypotension
d) Decreased body temperature
10. What is the first step in managing a burn wound?
a) Debridement
b) Application of silver sulfadiazine
c) Cooling the burn area with water
d) Covering the burn with an occlusive dressing
11. Which type of dressing is best suited for facial burns?
a) Silver sulfadiazine cream
b) Hydrogel dressing
c) Open dressing technique
d) Alginate dressing
12. What is the rationale for "deroofing" burn blisters?
a) To increase wound drainage
b) To allow assessment of the wound bed and reduce infection risk
c) To promote scarring
d) To prevent fluid loss
13. Why should silver sulfadiazine (SSD) cream be avoided in patients with G6PD deficiency?
a) It may cause hemolysis
b) It increases the risk of bacterial infection
c) It reduces pain relief effectiveness
d) It interferes with oxygen absorption
14. Which of the following factors affects wound healing in burn patients?
a) Nutritional status
b) Hair color
c) Sun exposure
d) Body mass index
15. What is the recommended intervention for a burn patient experiencing severe itching during wound healing?
a) Frequent dressing changes
b) Administration of antihistamines
c) Avoiding moisturizers
d) Increased exposure to sunlight
16. Which of the following is an indication for an escharotomy?
a) Presence of hypertrophic scars
b) Circumferential burns leading to compromised circulation
c) Mild superficial burns
d) Delayed wound healing
17. Which is the best intervention to prevent contractures in burn patients?
a) Early ambulation and physical therapy
b) Keeping the patient immobilized
c) Applying pressure garments immediately
d) Avoiding range-of-motion exercises
18. Pressure garments are used in burn patients to:
a) Prevent hypertrophic scarring
b) Provide warmth to the skin
c) Increase blood flow to the wound
d) Reduce pain
19. Which of the following should be avoided when performing wound care for burn patients?
a) Aseptic technique
b) Prolonged dressing changes that delay healing
c) Applying antimicrobial agents
d) Using non-adherent dressings
20. What is the primary psychological concern for burn patients?
a) Sleep disorders
b) Body image disturbance
c) Increased appetite
d) Decreased pain perception
21. When should a burn patient be placed in the recovery position?
a) When they have inhalation injuries
b) When they are unconscious but breathing
c) When they are actively bleeding
d) When they are experiencing severe pain
22. What is the primary goal of early nutritional support in burn patients?
a) Prevent weight gain
b) Reduce the risk of infection
c) Promote wound healing and prevent muscle loss
d) Reduce fluid intake
23. Which electrolyte imbalance is most common during the early phase of burn injury?
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypocalcemia
c) Hypokalemia
d) Hypernatremia
24. Which of the following is a sign of burn wound infection?
a) Dry, peeling skin
b) Increased pain, redness, and purulent drainage
c) Decreased urine output
d) Normal body temperature
25. How can nurses help prevent pressure ulcers in burn patients?
a) Encouraging bed rest
b) Providing frequent repositioning and pressure relief
c) Avoiding wound dressings
d) Increasing sedation
26. Why is elevating the affected limb important in burn patients?
a) To promote better breathing
b) To prevent airway obstruction
c) To reduce edema and improve circulation
d) To increase skin elasticity
27. Which intervention is appropriate for a patient with circumferential burns on the lower limbs?
a) Applying elastic bandages tightly
b) Keeping the legs dependent
c) Monitoring for signs of compartment syndrome
d) Avoiding fluid resuscitation
28. Which of the following is NOT a component of burn wound healing principles?
a) Maintaining adequate perfusion
b) Promoting bacterial growth
c) Providing optimal wound environment
d) Minimizing inflammation
29. How long should moisturizing creams be applied to healed burn wounds?
a) Until complete scar resolution
b) For at least 6 months to prevent dryness
c) Only when itching occurs
d) Only during the first week post-healing
30. What is the best method to educate burn patients about post-healing care?
a) Providing written instructions and demonstrations
b) Telling them verbally without reinforcement
c) Relying only on the physician’s instructions
d) Avoiding discussions about wound care
Answer Key
1 b | 2. b | 3. b | 4. b | 5. b | 6. b | 7. b | 8. a | 9. a | 10. c |
11 c | 12. b | 13. a | 14. a | 15. b | 16. b | 17. a | 18. a | 19. b | 20. b |
21 b | 22. c | 23. a | 24. b | 25. b | 26. c | 27. c | 28. b | 29. b | 30. a |