Filtration and Digestion

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📘 DIGESTIVE SYSTEM FLASHCARDS — PART 1

DO NOW

Q1: What is the “Do Now” task about?
A: “What do you already know?” — Label the parts of the digestive system.

DIGESTIVE SYSTEM — OVERVIEW

Q3: Why do all cells require nutrients?
A: All cells require nutrients in order to provide energy for the cell’s activities and materials for cell growth, cell production, secretion, and other metabolic processes.

Q4: What is the main function of the digestive system?
A: The digestive system extracts nutrients from the food we eat and absorbs them into the body for use by the cells.

Q5: What are the six basic functions of the digestive system?
A:

1. Ingestion of food and water

2. Mechanical digestion of food

3. Chemical digestion of food

4. Movement of food along the alimentary canal

5. Absorption of digested food and water into the blood and lymph

6. Elimination of material that is not absorbed

TYPES OF DIGESTION

Q6: What is digestion?
A: Digestion is the process of breaking down food into particles small enough to be absorbed into the bloodstream.

Q7: What are the two types of digestion?
A: Mechanical digestion and chemical digestion.

MECHANICAL DIGESTION

Q8: What is mechanical digestion?
A: Mechanical digestion is the physical breakdown of food particles.

Q9: Where does mechanical digestion occur and how?
A:

• Mouth: The teeth cut, tear, and grind the food.

• Stomach: Churning action breaks the food down.

• Small intestine: The gall bladder releases bile, which emulsifies fat into smaller droplets.

Q10: Why is breaking food into smaller pieces important?
A: It increases surface area, allowing more effective chemical digestion.

CHEMICAL DIGESTION

Q11: What is chemical digestion?
A: Chemical digestion uses enzymes to break down large, complex molecules into smaller, simpler molecules.

DIGESTIVE SYSTEM ORGANS

Q12: What is the alimentary canal?
A: The continuous tube that runs from the mouth to the anus through which food passes.

Q13: What are accessory organs, and which organs are included?
A: Accessory organs are part of the digestive system but not part of the alimentary canal. They include the liver, pancreas, gall bladder, and salivary glands.

THE MOUTH – INGESTION

Q14: What mechanical digestion happens in the mouth?
A:

• Chewing (mastication): Teeth break food down to increase surface area.

• Swallowing: Tongue shapes food into a lump known as a bolus and pushes it down the pharynx to the oesophagus.

Q15: What prevents food from entering the wrong places when swallowing?
A:

• The epiglottis prevents the bolus from entering the trachea.

• The uvula prevents the bolus from entering the nasal cavity.

Q16: What chemical digestion occurs in the mouth?
A:

• Enzyme: Salivary amylase, secreted by the salivary glands.

• Function: Digests polysaccharides (starch) into disaccharides (maltose).

TEETH – DENTITION

Q17: What are incisors like and what is their function?
A: Shape: Chisel-shaped. Function: Cutting.

Q18: What are canines like and what is their function?
A: Shape: Pointed and sharp. Function: Tearing and ripping.

Q19: What are premolars and molars like and what is their function?
A: Shape: Broad and flat. Function: Crushing and grinding.

Q20: How many of each type of tooth are there?
A:

• Incisors: 4

• Canines: 2

• Premolars: 4

• Molars: 6

OESOPHAGUS

Q21: What is the oesophagus?
A: A long tube connecting the pharynx to the stomach.

Q22: What type of muscles does the oesophagus contain, and what do they do?
A: It contains a double layer of muscle that constricts and pushes the bolus into the stomach.

Q23: What is the wave-like motion in the oesophagus called?
A: Peristalsis.

STOMACH

Q24: What are the mechanical processes of the stomach?
A:

• Churning in the stomach mixes food with gastric juice.

• The extra oblique layer of muscle allows the stomach to churn and mix food and gastric juice to create chyme.

Q25: What are the chemical processes of the stomach?
A:

• Hydrochloric acid: Activates pepsinogen to form pepsin.

• Pepsin: Digests proteins into shorter polypeptides.

Q26: What controls the movement of chyme from the stomach to the small intestine?
A: The pyloric sphincter.

STOMACH – GASTRIC PITS

Q27: What does the lining of the stomach secrete?
A: Gastric juice from the gastric glands located in gastric pits.

Q28: What does gastric juice contain?
A: Hydrochloric acid, mucus, and digestive enzymes.

SMALL INTESTINE — STRUCTURE

Q29: How long is the small intestine and what are its three parts?
A: Roughly 7 meters long with a small diameter.

1. Duodenum: First part (25 cm) responsible for most chemical digestion.

2. Jejunum: Middle section mostly responsible for absorption of carbohydrates and proteins.

3. Ileum: Last part responsible for absorption of vitamins, bile salts, and remaining nutrients.

SMALL INTESTINE — DIGESTION

Q30: What mechanical digestion occurs in the small intestine?
A: Contraction of circular muscles (segmentation) narrows the intestine, helping break up the bolus and mix it with juices and bile.

Q31: What chemical digestion occurs in the small intestine?
A:

• Pancreatic juice: Secreted into the small intestine, contains many enzymes.

• Intestinal juice: Secreted by the small intestine, also contains many enzymes.

BILE

Q32: Where is bile produced, stored, and secreted?
A: Produced in the liver, stored in the gall bladder, and secreted into the duodenum.

Q33: What is the function of bile?
A: Emulsifies fat, breaking it into smaller droplets to increase surface area for chemical digestion by lipases.

Q34: What type of digestion is emulsification?
A: Mechanical digestion.

PANCREATIC JUICE

Q35: Where is pancreatic juice secreted and what does it do?
A: Secreted from the pancreas into the duodenum (first part of the small intestine). It helps neutralise the acidic environment from the stomach.

Q36: What are the enzymes in pancreatic juice and their functions?
A:

1. Pancreatic protease / trypsin: Digests polypeptides into peptides.

2. Pancreatic amylase: Digests starch and disaccharides into glucose and maltose.

3. Pancreatic lipase: Digests fats into fatty acids and glycerol.

4. Ribonuclease and deoxyribonuclease: Digest RNA and DNA.

INTESTINAL JUICE

Q37: Where is intestinal juice secreted and what does it contain?
A: Secreted throughout the small intestine, mostly into the jejunum.
Enzymes include:

1. Maltase, sucrase, lactase: Break down disaccharides (maltose, sucrose, lactose) into monosaccharides (galactose, glucose, fructose).

2. Intestinal lipase: Breaks down lipids into fatty acids and glycerol.

3. Peptidase: Breaks down peptides into amino acids.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q38: The enzyme pepsin is secreted by which organ and what does it digest?
A: a) Stomach and digests proteins. ✅

Q39: Digestive enzymes and hydrochloric acid are produced in the stomach, but these do not digest the wall of the stomach because:
A: c) The mucus lining the stomach protects the cells of the stomach wall from the enzyme activity. ✅

Q40: People who develop gall stones sometimes have their gall bladder removed. What type of nutrient group are they told to avoid eating and give two examples of foods containing this nutrient?
A: They are told to avoid fats/lipids. Examples: butter, cheese, oils, fatty meats, etc.

Q41: Extended answer: What role do enzymes play in digestion of macromolecules within the digestive system?
A: Enzymes break down macromolecules such as proteins and lipids into smaller units for absorption.

Q42: Which organs are involved in the digestion of proteins and lipids, and how does each assist?
A:

• Stomach: Pepsin breaks proteins into polypeptides.

• Pancreas: Produces proteases and lipases for digestion.

• Small intestine: Produces peptidase and lipase for final breakdown and absorption.

Q43: Extended answer: What is the role of organs external to the digestive system that produce secretions aiding digestion?
A:

• Liver: Produces bile that emulsifies fats.

• Pancreas: Produces pancreatic enzymes (amylase, lipase, protease, nucleases).

• Salivary glands: Produce saliva with amylase that begins carbohydrate digestion.

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📘 Digestive System – Absorption and Elimination

🧠 DIGESTIVE SYSTEM: ABSORPTION AND ELIMINATION — FLASHCARDS

DO NOW – MATCH THE CHEMICAL TO ITS DESCRIPTION

Q1: What is the description of bile?
A: Bile emulsifies fat. (e)

Q2: What is the description of pepsin?
A: Pepsin is the activated form of pepsinogen. (b)

Q3: What is the description of amylase?
A: Amylase digests starch into maltose. (f)

Q4: What is the description of hydrochloric acid?
A: Hydrochloric acid activates pepsinogen. (d)

Q5: What is the description of trypsin?
A: Trypsin digests polypeptides into peptides. (a)

Q6: What is the description of peptidase?
A: Peptidase breaks down peptides into amino acids. (c)

SMALL INTESTINE — FUNCTION

Q7: What happens to the products of digestion in the small intestine?
A: The products of digestion, along with substances such as vitamins, minerals, and water, are absorbed through the wall of the small intestine into the blood.

INCREASING SURFACE AREA

Q8: Why does the small intestine need a large internal surface area?
A: To increase absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream.

Q9: How is a large surface area achieved in the small intestine?
A:

• The small intestine is long (6–7 meters).

• It has mucosal folds.

• It contains villi.

• Each villus has microvilli.

STRUCTURE OF A VILLUS

Q10: What is the structure of a villus ideally suited for?
A: Its structure is ideally suited to its function of nutrient absorption.

Q11: How long is each villus?
A: Approximately 1 mm long.

Q12: What type of cell layer does each villus have?
A: A single layer of cells.

Q13: What does each villus contain internally?
A: A lacteal (lymph capillary) surrounded by blood capillaries.

SMALL INTESTINE — ABSORPTION

Q14: On what does the method of absorption depend?
A: It depends on the type of molecule being absorbed.

Q15: What are the two main transport routes for absorbed nutrients in the villi?
A: Blood capillaries and lacteals.

BLOOD CAPILLARIES

Q16: What substances are absorbed into the blood capillaries from the villi?
A: Simple sugars, amino acids, water, and water-soluble vitamins.

Q17: After absorption into blood capillaries, where are these substances transported?
A: They are carried via the blood to other cells or further processed in the liver.

LACTEALS

Q18: What substances are absorbed into lacteals?
A: Fatty acids and glycerol.

Q19: What happens to fatty acids and glycerol in the cells of the villi?
A: They recombine in the cells to form fats, along with the fat-soluble vitamins.

Q20: How are these fats transported after recombining?
A: They are transported by the lymphatic system.

LARGE INTESTINE — STRUCTURE

Q21: How does the large intestine compare in size to the small intestine?
A: The large intestine is shorter than the small intestine but has a larger diameter.

Q22: What are the four parts of the large intestine?
A: The caecum, colon, rectum, and anus.

Q23: What is the caecum and what is attached to it?
A: The caecum is a small pouch where the small intestine joins the large intestine, and the appendix is attached to the caecum.

Q24: What is the colon?
A: The colon is the U-shaped part of the large intestine.

Q25: What is the rectum?
A: The rectum is the last part of the large intestine.

Q26: What is the anus?
A: The anus is the external opening at the end of the rectum.

LARGE INTESTINE — FUNCTION

Q27: How long does material typically move through the large intestine?
A: Movement through the large intestine is slow, taking approximately 18–24 hours.

Q28: What are the two main functions of the large intestine?
A:

1. Absorption of water to produce faeces.

2. Further breakdown of remaining organic compounds by bacteria.

Q29: What do bacteria in the large intestine release during the breakdown of compounds?
A: Vitamins and minerals.

Q30: What remains after absorption in the large intestine?
A: Faeces.

Q31: What are the components of faeces?
A:

• Water

• Undigested food (e.g. cellulose)

• Bacteria

• Bile pigments (give faeces their colour)

• Remains of cells that have broken away from the internal lining of the alimentary canal.

ELIMINATION

Q32: Why is “defecation” better referred to as “elimination” rather than “excretion”?
A: Because excretion is the removal of metabolic wastes produced by metabolic activities, which does not describe the types of wastes found in faeces.

Q33: What is the nature of the material left in the colon after water absorption?
A: Semi-solid material.

Q34: How does the semi-solid material move into the rectum?
A: It is pushed into the walls of the rectum by peristalsis.

Q35: What triggers the process of defecation?
A: The stretching of the rectum walls as they fill with faeces triggers defecation.

Q36: How is faeces expelled from the body?
A: The muscle around the anus (the anal sphincter) relaxes, allowing the faeces to be passed out.

Perfect! I’ll now create detailed Q&A flashcards from your Blood Groups and Transfusions section, keeping every single piece of information, including all practice questions and answers. Syllabus points and success criteria will be excluded, as requested.

Here’s your full flashcard set:

🧠 BLOOD GROUPS AND TRANSFUSIONS — FLASHCARDS

DO NOW

Q1: What is the “Do Now” task for this lesson?
A:

1. Read Procedure for Act 5.6 – Blood Grouping Practical (pg 134).

2. Copy the table into your books – ready to collect data.

ABO BLOOD GROUPS — RED BLOOD CELL ANTIGENS

Q2: What are antigens?
A: Antigens are sugar/protein markers that label a red blood cell as a particular type.

Q3: What type of blood does a person have if their RBCs contain only the A antigen?
A: Type A blood.

Q4: What type of blood does a person have if their RBCs contain only the B antigen?
A: Type B blood.

Q5: What type of blood does a person have if their RBCs contain both A and B antigens?
A: Type AB blood.

Q6: What type of blood does a person have if their RBCs contain neither A nor B antigens?
A: Type O blood.

ABO BLOOD GROUPS — PLASMA ANTIBODIES

Q7: What are antibodies?
A: Antibodies are substances produced by the body that attack and destroy foreign cells by recognizing antigens, producing an immune response.

Q8: Which antibody is produced by a person with Type A blood?
A: Antibody B.

Q9: Which antibody is produced by a person with Type B blood?
A: Antibody A.

Q10: Which antibodies are produced by a person with Type AB blood?
A: No antibodies are produced.

Q11: Which antibodies are produced by a person with Type O blood?
A: Both Antibody A and B.

Q12: How are the antibodies a person produces related to their blood type?
A: The antibodies produced are opposite to their blood type.

RH BLOOD GROUPS

Q13: What is the Rh blood group related to?
A: The Rh blood group relates to the antigen (D antigen) and the antibody that the blood cells and plasma contain.

Q14: What is the antigen/antibody status of a person with Rh-negative blood?
A: No antigen is present, but D antibodies are produced.

Q15: What is the antigen/antibody status of a person with Rh-positive blood?
A: The D antigen is present, and no antibodies are produced.

BLOOD GROUP COMPATIBILITY

Q16: What two factors must be considered when determining who a person can donate to or receive blood from?
A:

1. The antibodies in the recipient’s plasma.

2. The antigens on the donor’s RBCs.

Q17: Why can a person with Type A blood not donate to a person with Type B blood?
A:

• The recipient (Type B) has A antibodies in their plasma.

• The donor (Type A) has A antigens on their RBCs.

• The antibodies recognize the antigen and destroy the cells, causing agglutination.

BLOOD GROUP PRACTICAL

Q18: What are the three steps of the Blood Group Practical?
A:

1. Collect Materials

2. Collect Data

3. Discuss Results (Optional: Additional Questions)

PRACTICE QUESTIONS — DETAILED

Q19: Question 1: What blood type is considered a universal donor and why?
A:

• Blood Type O.

• Has no antigens on RBC, therefore cannot cause blood clotting/agglutination.

Q20: Question 2: If all donors’ blood bags are unlabelled, who could the blood be given to and why?
A:

• Recipient: Blood Type AB+.

• Has no antibodies in plasma.

• Therefore, will not cause blood clotting/agglutination.

Q21: Question 3: A patient with A- blood needs a transfusion. Which blood types can they receive and why?
A:

• Patient Blood Type: A-

  • Antigen A on RBC

  • Antibody B in plasma

• Donor must be Blood Type A or O

  • Blood Type A has the same antigens on RBCs

  • Blood Type O has no antigens on RBCs

• Therefore, the patient’s antibodies will not recognize donor blood as foreign, preventing agglutination.

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🧠 CIRCULATORY SYSTEM — STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION — FLASHCARDS

HEART STRUCTURES

Q1: What are the main chambers of the heart and their functions?
A:

• Atria: Receive blood from the body (Right Atrium) and lungs (Left Atrium).

• Ventricles: Pump blood to the lungs (Right Ventricle) and the upper and lower body (Left Ventricle).

BLOOD VESSELS

Q2: What is the function of veins?
A: Veins carry blood towards the heart.

Q3: What is the function of arteries?
A: Arteries carry blood away from the heart.

Q4: What is the function of the vena cava?
A: Carries blood from the upper (superior) and lower (inferior) body towards the right atrium.

Q5: What is the function of the pulmonary vein?
A: Carries blood from the lungs (left and right) towards the left atrium.

Q6: What is the function of the aorta?
A: Carries blood from the left ventricle to the cells of the body.

Q7: What is the function of the pulmonary artery?
A: Carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs (left and right).

HEART VALVES

Q8: What is the general function of a heart valve?
A: Prevents the backflow of blood between chambers (atrioventricular valves: tricuspid and mitral) or from arteries into chambers (semilunar valves: pulmonary and aortic).

Q9: What are semilunar valves and their functions?
A:

• Pulmonary valve: Prevents backflow from the pulmonary artery into the right ventricle.

• Aortic valve: Prevents backflow from the aorta into the left ventricle.

Q10: What are atrioventricular valves and their functions?
A:

• Tricuspid valve: Prevents backflow from the right ventricle into the right atrium.

• Mitral (bicuspid) valve: Prevents backflow from the left ventricle into the left atrium.

COMPARISON OF ARTERIES AND VEINS

Q11: Compare the structure of arteries and veins.
A:

Q12: Compare the functions of arteries and veins.
A:

CAPILLARIES

Q13: What are capillaries?
A: Capillaries are microscopic blood vessels that link arteries and veins, forming a network to carry blood close to nearly every cell in the body.

Q14: What is the function of capillaries?
A: They allow cells to receive nutrients and oxygen from the blood and pass waste products into the blood.

Q15: What is the structure of capillaries?
A: Capillaries are one cell thick, allowing substances to pass easily between blood and surrounding cells.

PULMONARY AND SYSTEMIC CIRCULATION

Q16: What is pulmonary circulation?
A: Pulmonary circulation carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs and returns oxygenated blood to the left atrium. The right ventricle is the pump for this circulation.

Q17: What is systemic circulation?
A: Systemic circulation carries oxygenated blood from the left ventricle to all tissues of the body and returns deoxygenated blood to the right atrium. The left ventricle is the pump for this circulation.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q18: Identify and explain the following structures in the human heart. (4 marks)
A:

• Right Atrium: Receives deoxygenated blood from the body.

• Left Atrium: Receives oxygenated blood from the lungs.

• Right Ventricle: Pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs.

• Left Ventricle: Pumps oxygenated blood to the body.

Q19: Compare and contrast the structure and function of veins and arteries. (6 marks)

Answer (detailed):

Structure:

• Arteries: Thick walls, narrow lumen, more elastic tissue, more smooth muscle, less fibrous tissue, located deeper within skin.

• Veins: Thin walls, large lumen, less elastic tissue, less smooth muscle, more fibrous tissue, located closer to the skin, valves present to prevent backflow.

Function:

• Arteries: Carry blood away from the heart, pulsatile flow, usually oxygenated, high pressure, deep to protect from damage.

• Veins: Carry blood towards the heart, valves prevent backflow, usually deoxygenated, low pressure, superficial to protect from damage.

Here’s a fully detailed flashcard set for your Gas Exchange section, keeping every piece of information and including practice questions. Syllabus links and success criteria are excluded as requested.

🫁 GAS EXCHANGE — FLASHCARDS

DO NOW

Q1: What is the “Do Now” task for this lesson?
A: Identify the components of inspired air and expired air by completing the table below:

GAS EXCHANGE PROCESS

Q2: What are the levels of CO₂ and O₂ in blood entering the alveoli via pulmonary arteries?
A:

• High levels of CO₂

• Low levels of O₂

Q3: What are the levels of CO₂ and O₂ in the air inhaled into the alveoli?
A:

• Low levels of CO₂

• High levels of O₂

Q4: What are the levels of CO₂ in air exhaled from the alveoli?
A: High levels of CO₂

Q5: What are the levels of CO₂ and O₂ in blood exiting through capillaries to the pulmonary veins?
A:

• Low levels of CO₂

• High levels of O₂

Q6: What drives the gas exchange process?
A: The presence of a concentration gradient between blood in the capillaries and air in the alveoli, with differing concentrations of CO₂ and O₂, drives diffusion of gases.

STRUCTURES AND FUNCTION OF ALVEOLI

Q7: How do thin walls of alveoli and capillaries aid gas exchange?
A: Less distance for gases to diffuse through, increases rate of diffusion.

Q8: How does having a large number of alveoli with large surface area aid gas exchange?
A: Provides more surface for gases to diffuse, increases rate of diffusion.

Q9: How does the moist surface of alveoli aid gas exchange?
A: Allows gases to dissolve, increases rate of diffusion.

Q10: How does a continuous supply of blood through capillaries aid gas exchange?
A: Maintains high concentration gradients, increases rate of diffusion.

Q11: How does continuous inhalation and exhalation aid gas exchange?
A: Maintains high concentration gradients, increases rate of diffusion.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q12: MCQ Practice Question (Example)

• Typically involves selecting correct gas concentrations, direction of diffusion, or alveolar adaptations.
  A: Answers will depend on question wording, but should reflect:

• O₂ diffuses from alveoli → blood

• CO₂ diffuses from blood → alveoli

Q13: Short Answer Practice Question (Example)

• Describe the process of gas exchange between alveoli and lung capillaries.
  A:

1. Blood enters alveolar capillaries via pulmonary arteries with high CO₂ and low O₂.

2. Air inhaled into alveoli has high O₂ and low CO₂.

3. O₂ diffuses down its concentration gradient into the blood; CO₂ diffuses down its concentration gradient into alveoli.

4. Blood exiting capillaries into pulmonary veins has high O₂ and low CO₂, ready for systemic circulation.

INDEPENDENT PRACTICE

Q14: What pages from Biozone cover gas transport and lung function?
A:

• Gas Transport: pages 254–255

• Measuring Lung Function: pages 259–260

\Here’s a fully detailed flashcard set for your Respiratory System notes, keeping every piece of information and providing detailed answers, including practice questions. Syllabus links and success criteria are excluded.

🫁 RESPIRATORY SYSTEM — FLASHCARDS

STRUCTURES: ORAL AND NASAL CAVITY

Q1: How does air enter and leave the body?
A: Air enters and leaves the body through the nose, where it is cleaned, warmed, and moistened before entering the respiratory tract.

Q2: How does the nasal cavity help destroy bacteria?
A: Nasal secretions contain an anti-bacterial enzyme called lysozyme, which can destroy some bacteria.

Q3: What is the function of mucus in the nasal cavity and upper airways?
A: The mucous lining traps dirt particles and microbes before they enter the lungs.

• Goblet cells in the epithelial lining secrete clear, sticky mucus.

• The mucus traps particles, preventing infection and protecting the lungs.

BRONCHIAL TREE

Q4: What structures make up the bronchial tree?
A: The bronchial tree consists of the larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles.

Q5: How does the trachea and bronchi maintain airway structure?
A: They contain C-shaped cartilage that prevents the airways from closing under pressure during inhalation.

Q6: How do the trachea and bronchi clean the air?
A:

• Lined with ciliated mucous membrane.

• Sticky mucus traps dirt and microbes.

• Cilia sweep the dirty mucus up the trachea into the throat, keeping airways clean.

ALVEOLI

Q7: What are alveoli and their function?
A:

• Bronchioles terminate in microscopic clusters of air sacs called alveoli.

• Gas exchange occurs in the alveoli between the air and the blood in capillaries.

RESPIRATION

Q8: What is respiration?
A: Respiration is the transport of oxygen from air to tissues and the transport of carbon dioxide from tissues to air.

Q9: What is internal respiration?
A: The exchange of O₂ and CO₂ between the blood and the tissues.

Q10: What is external respiration?
A: The movement of O₂ and CO₂ between the lungs and the bloodstream.

INHALATION AND EXHALATION

Q11: What happens to the diaphragm during inhalation and exhalation?

Q12: What happens to the external intercostal muscles during inhalation and exhalation?

Q13: What happens to the ribcage during inhalation and exhalation?

Q14: How does thoracic volume and pressure change during inhalation and exhalation?

Q15: Which way does air move during inhalation and exhalation?

GAS EXCHANGE AT ALVEOLI

Q16: How is air delivered to blood in alveoli?
A: Oxygen from inhaled air diffuses from alveoli into blood capillaries.

Q17: How is blood delivered to alveoli for gas exchange?
A: Carbon dioxide in blood diffuses from capillaries into alveoli to be exhaled.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q18: Describe the role of the nasal cavity in cleaning and preparing air for respiration.
A: Air entering through the nasal cavity is cleaned, warmed, and moistened.

• Nasal secretions contain lysozyme to destroy bacteria.

• Mucus traps dirt and microbes, which are swept away by cilia, preventing lung contamination.

Q19: Explain how the structures of the bronchial tree prevent airway collapse and remove debris.
A:

• C-shaped cartilage in trachea and bronchi prevents collapse under inhalation pressure.

• Lined with ciliated mucous membrane that traps dirt and microbes.

• Cilia move mucus upward to throat to remove debris.

Q20: Describe the steps of inhalation.
A:

1. Diaphragm contracts, flattens, moves down.

2. External intercostal muscles contract, ribcage moves up and out.

3. Thoracic volume increases, pressure decreases below atmospheric.

4. Air moves into lungs from high-pressure atmosphere to low-pressure lungs.

Q21: Describe the steps of exhalation.
A:

1. Diaphragm relaxes, moves up.

2. External intercostal muscles relax, ribcage moves down and in.

3. Thoracic volume decreases, pressure increases above atmospheric.

4. Air moves out of lungs from high-pressure lungs to low-pressure atmosphere.

Q22: Explain how alveoli structure aids gas exchange.
A:

• Thin walls: short diffusion distance, faster gas exchange.

• Large surface area from many alveoli: more space for diffusion.

• Moist surface: allows gases to dissolve for efficient diffusion.

• Continuous blood flow: maintains concentration gradients.

• Continuous breathing: maintains oxygen and CO₂ gradients for diffusion.

INDEPENDENT PRACTICE

Q23: Which Biozone pages cover the respiratory system and gas transport?
A: Pages 251, 252, and 256.

Here’s a fully detailed flashcard set for your Urine Production / Excretory System notes, including all the information from your document with detailed answers:

🧬 URINE PRODUCTION — FLASHCARDS

KIDNEY OVERVIEW

Q1: How does blood enter and leave the kidney?
A: Blood enters the kidney via the renal artery and leaves via the renal vein after filtration and reabsorption. Urine leaves the kidney via the ureter.

Q2: What are the three major processes occurring in the kidney during urine formation?
A:

1. Glomerular filtration – filtering blood plasma.

2. Selective reabsorption – reclaiming useful substances.

3. Tubular secretion – adding substances from blood to filtrate.

NEPHRONS — STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION

Q3: What is a nephron and its function?
A: The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney, where urine is formed. Each kidney contains approximately 1.2 million nephrons, which span the cortex and medulla.

Q4: What are the main parts of a nephron?
A:

• Renal corpuscle: glomerulus + Bowman’s capsule.

• Renal tubule:

  • Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)

  • Loop of Henle

  • Distal convoluted tubule (DCT)

  • Collecting duct (CD)

Q5: How is the nephron supplied with blood?
A:

• Afferent arteriole → glomerulus (capillary knot).

• Blood exits via efferent arteriole, which forms the peritubular capillaries around the tubules.

• Walls of glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule are one cell thick to allow filtration.

GLOMERULAR FILTRATION

Q6: How does glomerular filtration occur?
A:

• Blood pressure is high in glomerulus due to narrow efferent arteriole.

• Water and dissolved substances (glucose, amino acids, fatty acids, urea, ions, hormones, toxins) are forced into Bowman’s capsule, forming filtrate.

• Red and white blood cells and plasma proteins are too large and remain in the blood.

Q7: How much plasma is filtered daily?
A: About 125 mL/min, equating to 180 L/day, but only ~1% leaves as urine; the rest is reabsorbed.

SELECTIVE REABSORPTION

Q8: Why is selective reabsorption necessary?
A: Filtrate contains nutrients the body needs (glucose, ions, water), so they are reabsorbed into peritubular capillaries.

Q9: How is reabsorption optimized?
A:

• Long length of convoluted tubules

• High number of nephrons → large surface area

• Microvilli in PCT increase surface area for reabsorption

Q10: What substances are reabsorbed in each part of the nephron?

TUBULAR SECRETION

Q11: What is tubular secretion and its purpose?
A: Addition of substances from blood to filtrate in PCT and DCT.

• Maintains blood pH (7.4–7.5) by removing excess H⁺ and NH₄⁺.

• Maintains urine pH (normally 6).

URINE FORMATION AND EXCRETION

Q12: What is urine and how is it eliminated?
A:

• Clear, transparent fluid, usually amber-colored.

• Collected in bladder and expelled through urethra.

• Average 24-hour urine output: ~1,200 mL.

Q13: How does urine travel from the kidney to the bladder?
A:

• From collecting ducts → renal pelvis → ureters.

• Ureters use peristaltic waves (muscle contraction) to push urine 25–30 cm to the bladder.

COMPOSITION OF URINE

Q14: What is the composition of urine?
A:

• 96% water

• 4% solutes:

  • Urea (~2%)

  • Creatinine

  • Uric acid

  • Sodium, chloride, other ions (~1.5%)

• Normally no glucose or significant protein

Q15: What are uric acid and creatinine?
A:

• Uric acid: from metabolism of purines (from nucleic acids in dead cells and some foods).

• Creatinine: from breakdown of creatine phosphate in muscles.

PRACTICE TABLE

INDEPENDENT PRACTICE

• Nelson Worksheet – Kidneys

• Biozone pages 310–311

Here’s a fully detailed flashcard set for your Excretory System notes, including all information from your document with detailed answers:

💧 EXCRETORY SYSTEM — FLASHCARDS

DEFINITION AND PURPOSE

Q1: What is excretion?
A: Excretion is the removal of metabolic wastes from the body. These wastes are by-products of metabolism that can be toxic if accumulated. Excretion removes them before they reach harmful levels.

Q2: Name the main organs involved in excretion and their roles.
A:

• Lungs: excrete carbon dioxide from cellular respiration.

• Liver: processes chemicals into safer forms, performs deamination, detoxifies drugs and alcohol, breaks down hormones, and produces bile pigments.

• Sweat glands: excrete salts, urea, lactic acid, and some drugs.

• Alimentary canal: excretes bile pigments.

• Kidneys: excrete nitrogenous wastes and maintain chemical composition of body fluids.

SKIN (SWEAT GLANDS)

Q3: How much sweat is produced per day and what does it contain?
A: Sweat glands produce about 500 mL/day, containing:

• Water

• Sodium chloride (salt)

• Urea

• Lactic acid

• Some drugs

LIVER AND DEAMINATION

Q4: How does the liver contribute to excretion?
A:

• Processes chemicals into safer forms for excretion.

• Detoxifies alcohol and many drugs.

• Deactivates hormones for kidney excretion.

• Breaks down haemoglobin to produce bile pigments.

Q5: Why must excess amino acids be excreted?
A: Proteins cannot be stored in excess. If amino acids are in surplus or need to be used for energy, they undergo deamination to remove the amino group (NH₂).

Q6: What is deamination and where does it occur?
A:

• Deamination is the removal of an amino group (NH₂) from an amino acid, catalyzed by the enzyme deaminase in the liver.

• The remaining molecule becomes a carbohydrate, which can be stored as glycogen/fats or used for energy.

• The amino group is converted into ammonia (NH₃), then quickly converted into urea, which is less toxic and excreted via urine or sweat.

Q7: Write the chemical reactions for deamination and urea formation.
A:

1. Amino acid + O₂ → Ammonia (NH₃) + Carbohydrate (via deaminase)

2. Ammonia + CO₂ + energy → Urea + H₂O

URINARY SYSTEM STRUCTURE

Q8: What are the main organs of the urinary system and their functions?
A:

• Kidney: filters blood, excretes nitrogenous wastes.

• Ureter: transports urine from kidney → bladder.

• Bladder: stores urine.

• Urethra: carries urine from bladder → exterior.

Q9: Describe the structure of the kidney.
A:

• Renal capsule: tough fibrous outer layer.

• Renal artery: brings blood into kidney.

• Renal vein: carries blood away.

• Cortex: outer part of kidney.

• Medulla: inner part of kidney.

• Columns: extensions of cortex dividing medulla into pyramids.

• Pyramids: sections of medulla.

• Calyces: collect urine from pyramids.

• Renal pelvis: collects urine before ureter.

NITROGENOUS WASTES

Q10: Name the main nitrogenous wastes, their sources, amounts, and toxicity.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Q11: What is the tube that connects each kidney to the bladder?
A: Ureter ✅

Q12: What is deamination?
A: The removal of an amino group (NH₂) from an amino acid. ✅

Q13: Why does deamination occur?
A: To remove excess protein and convert amino groups into urea, which can be excreted safely. ✅

Q14: Outline the difference between excretion and elimination.
A:

• Excretion: removal of metabolic wastes (e.g., urea, CO₂, bile pigments).

• Elimination: removal of undigested food or non-metabolic waste (e.g., feces).

This set now fully covers all your Excretory System notes, including definitions, organ functions, deamination, kidney structure, urine formation, and nitrogenous wastes with detailed answers.

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