Prokaryotes reproduce asexually by:
Binary Fission
The DNA in prokaryotes is typically:
A single circular molecule
In eukaryotes, DNA is wrapped around proteins called
Histones
What holds sister chromatids together at the centromere?
Cohesins
Which checkpoint ensures that DNA has been properly replicated and is damage-free before mitosis?
The G2/M checkpoint checks for DNA completeness, preventing the initiation of mitosis until any damage is repaired
During metaphase, chromosomes:
Line up single-file on the metaphase plate
What structure in animal cells forms the cleavage furrow during cytokinesis?
Contractile ring made of actin filaments that pinches the cell membrane to separate the two daughter cells
In plant cells, the new cell wall forms from:
Fused vesicles form a cell plate that develops in the center of the dividing cell, eventually leading to the formation of a new cell wall between the two daughter cells
A genotype with two different alleles is:
Heterozygous
Organelles like mitochondria and chloroplasts have:
Circular, maternally inherited DNA
Prokaryotes have a circular genome located in the _______.
Nucleoid region
Small extrachromosomal circles of DNA in bacteria are called ______.
Plasmids
Eukaryotic DNA wraps around ______ proteins to form nucleosomes, which further coil and condense to form ______ structures.
Histone, chromatin
A person with two identical alleles for a gene is said to be ______.
Homozygous
The _________ checkpoint checks for necessary enzymes and DNA damage before duplication.
G1/S checkpoint
During the __ phase, chromosomes are duplicated into sister chromatids.
S phase
In ______, sister chromatids are pulled to opposite _________.
Anaphase, opposite spindle poles
In animal cells, the _____ ______ is formed by a contractile ring made of actin filaments.
Cleavage furrow
Which phase of the cell cycle is associated with protein synthesis and cell growth?
G1
What do homologous chromosomes share?
The same genes, but possibly different alleles
What directly determines the next step in the cell cycle?
Which cyclin is available to bind to CDK
What is the role of cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)?
Phosphorylation targets proteins, leading to the progression of the cell cycle at specific checkpoints, influencing cellular growth and division.
What type of gene is Cdk classified as?
Proto-oncogene
A mutation that causes a proto-oncogene to become overactive results in:
An oncogene
What is the role of p52 in the cell cycle?
Detects DNA damage and halts the cycle
What does p21 do when recruited by p53?
Inhibits the cyclin-Cdk complex
In response to cell growth, what happens to Rb?
Is phosphorylated and stops inhibiting the transcription factor
What is the result of mitosis?
Two genetically identical diploid cells
What is the purpose of tubulin subtraction from microtubules during mitosis?
To create tension and pull chromatids apart during anaphase
Meiosis l is called reduction division because:
It reduces the ploidy from diploid to haploid
When does crossing over occur?
Prophase l
Cyclins activate ___________ (Cdks), which phosphorylate target proteins to move the cell cycle forward.
Cyclin-dependent kinases
If a proto-oncogene mutates to become overactive, it becomes an oncogene, which can lead to _______.
Cancer
Cdk inhibitors, such as ____, stop the cell cycle when conditions are not right for division
P21
The protein ___ either releases cell cycle arrest when DNA is repaired or triggers _______ if damage is beyond repair.
P53, apoptosis
The _______ normally inhibits a transcription factor, but when phosphorylated, it releases that inhibition, allowing the cell to pass the G1/S checkpoint.
Rb protein
______ of meiosis is when crossing over occurs between homologous chromosomes.
Metaphase l
Meiosis II is called an _______ because it separates sister chromatids without changing ploidy.
Equational division
What causes interchromosomal variation during meiosis?
Independent assortment during Metaphase, leading to the random distribution of maternal and paternal chromosomes into gametes
What happens at the end of Telophase l in meiosis?
Two genetically variable haploid cells form, which may enter interkinesis or go straight to meiosis ll
What is the final product of meiosis in human males?
Four haploid sperm
What is the final product of meiosis l in human females?
One haploid secondary oocyte and one polar body
The secondary oocyte completes meiosis ll:
Only after fertilization
What happens to polar bodies?
They disintegrate
What is formed when a sperm fertilizes an egg?
Diploid zygote
In plants, haploid gametes are formed by:
Mitosis in the gametophyte stage
Fertilization of the egg by a sperm forms a ______.
Diploid zygote
A recessive phenotype will only appear if the genotype is:
Homozygous recessive
What is the expected genotypic ratio from a monohybrid cross of two heterozygotes (Aa × Aa)?
1:2:1
In sex-linked inheritance, why are males more likely to express recessive traits?
They only have one x chromosome
A 9:3:3:1 ratio is typical of:
A dihybrid cross with unlinked genes
In codominance, a heterozygote will:
Express both phenotypes only
Which condition is caused by nondisjunction of chromosome 21?
Trisomy 21 (down syndrome)
If two genes are linked and close together on the same chromosome:
Parental allele combinations will be more common
What type of chromosomal mutation involves a flipped segment?
Inversion
Mendel studied ____ in pea plants, each with distinguishable ________.
7 traits, phenotypes
The F2 generation from two heterozygous F1 parents in a monohybrid cross shows a ___ phenotypic ratio and a ____ genotypic ratio.
3:1, 1:2:1
In ____________, the heterozygous phenotype is an intermediate blend of the two alleles.
Incomplete dominance
In ________, both alleles in a heterozygote are fully expressed, such as in blood type AB.
Codominance
A chromosome rearrangement causes a gene to be placed under the control of a different promoter, leading to cancer. What is this mutation type?
Translocation
Aneuploidy refers to:
An abnormal number of a specific chromosome
It is due to trisomy of one of the smallest chromosomes
What helps prevent severe dosage problems for X-linked genes in biological females?
X-inactivation
Nondisjunction in meiosis l results in:
Two n+1 and two n-1 gametes
Which of the following structural mutations involves part of one chromosome moving to a non-homologous chromosome?
Translocation
If two genes have a recombination frequency of 33%, how far apart are they on the chromosome?
33 map units
If two genes are 5cM apart:
They are tightly linked
Aneuploidy is an abnormal number of a specific chromosome, causing problems due to incorrect gene _____.
Dosage
Photosynthesis Lab:
Planted underwater (dark vs. light); measured O2 output (dependent variable)
Alternative hypothesis; difference in O2 output
Measured PH changes, looking for the levels to go up in the presence of light due to increased photosynthetic activity, we wanted to see color changes, which would indicate a shift towards a more alkaline environment, further supporting our hypothesis that light enhances photosynthesis and oxygen production.
Stained for starch in (deus leaves); it is where green pigments are concentrated (indicating the areas of high photosynthetic activity)
Pigment chromatography was used to separate the different pigments present in the leaves, allowing us to identify which pigments were actively involved in the photosynthesis process.
Cell Cycle
What happens in different stages of mitosis (2 genetically identical diploid cells), and meiosis (4 different haploid cells )
Know what each stage looks like
Genetics:
Prophase: Chromatin condenses into visible chromosomes, spindle fibers begin to form, and the nuclear envelope starts to break down.
Metaphase: Chromosomes line up at the cell's equatorial plane, known as the metaphase plate, and spindle fibers attach to the centromeres.
Anaphase: Sister chromatids are pulled apart towards opposite poles of the cell as the spindle fibers shorten.
Telophase: Chromatids reach the poles, nuclear envelopes reform around each set of chromosomes, and chromosomes begin to decondense back into chromatin.
In meiosis:
Prophase I: Homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic material through crossing over, resulting in genetic variation.
Metaphase I: Paired homologous chromosomes align along the metaphase plate.
Anaphase I: Homologous chromosomes separate to opposite poles, reducing the chromosome number by half.
Telophase I: Two new cells form, each containing half the original chromosome number, followed by cytokinesis.
Prophase II: Chromosomes condense again, and new spindle fibers form in each of the two cells.
Metaphase II: Chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate in both cells.
Anaphase II: Sister chromatids are pulled apart to opposite poles.
Telophase II: Four haploid cells are formed, each with unique genetic material.
Know how to do Chi-Square and know about the probabilities
DNA Lab:
DNA isolation & restriction enzymes (what they are and what they do)
Knowing about running DNA on a gel (smaller fragments move faster than larger ones) is essential for analyzing the results of our experiments
Characteristics of DNA
Bacteria + Transcription/Translation Lab:
Transformation, Transcription, and Translation are three fundamental processes that are crucial for understanding how genetic information is expressed in living organisms. Transformation is the uptake of foreign DNA by a cell, while transcription involves the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and translation is the process of synthesizing proteins from RNA.
Know how the system of pGlo works
arabinose —> AraC regulator protein that binds to the arabinose promoter, allowing for the expression of the green fluorescent protein (GFP) when arabinose is present in the growth medium
AMP. resistance, meaning: the bacteria can withstand the effects of the antibiotic ampicillin, which is vital for confirming the successful uptake of the pGlo plasmid.
Coding vs. template: DNA, mRNA, protein