Axam 1, 2, 3

Exam

1) What characteristic of life involves the removal of waste products that result from metabolic processes?

A) irritability

B excretion

C) reproduction

D) growth

2) The type of feedback that increases or enhances the effects of the variable is:

A) positive.

C) negative.

B) responsive.

C) water molecules.

D) neutral.

3) Which organ system includes blood vessels and the heart?

A) respiratory system

C) endocrine system

B cardiovascular system

D) lymphatic system

4) Which two organ systems include the pancreas as a

digestive and urinary systems
endocrine and lymphatic systems
respiratory and cardiovascular systems
digestive and endocrine systems

5) Which of the following is the most complex structural level of organization?

A) chemical level

C) organ level

B) tissue level

D) cellular level

6) Blood pressure in arteries is higher than the blood pressure in capillaries. Blood flows from arteries to capillaries due to the presence of a:

A) positive feedback loop.

C) negative feedback loop.

B) gradient,

D) homeostatic

imbalance.

7) What is NOT one of the four core principles related to homeostasis?

come

DaCK

A) gradients

B) cell-cell communication

C) metabolism

D) feedback loops

8) A cell or organ that responds to the directions of the control center in a negative feedback loop is termed a(n):

A) receptor. effector.

B) stimulus.

D) regulator.

9) The completion of cytokinesis accompanies:

A) anaphase.

B) prophase.

D) telophase.

C) metaphase.

10) The unit of DNA that specifies a certain amino acid is_ the same unit of mRNA is called a which, during protein synthesis, is of tRNA.

matched by the

A) triplet, codon, anticodon

B) nucleotide, triplet, gene

C) gene, triplet, amino acid

D) triplet, anticodon, codon

11) Resting membrane potential is due to unequal concentrations of:

A) phosopholipids and proteins.

B) acids and bases.

C) water molecules.

D) ions.

12) Within the nucleus, where does ribosome assembly occur?

A) nucleolus

C) nucleoplasm

B) centromere

D) nuclear pore

13) Cancer cells:

are indistinguishable from normal body cells.
do not spread into other body tissues.
may exhibit metastasis.
have a slower mitotic rate than normal body cells.

14) Which of the following processes are functionally opposite to one another?

phagocytosis and pinocytosis
endocytosis and exocytosis
simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion
osmosis and simple diffusion

15) Which of the following best describes a cell's response to being placed into an extracellular solution that is hypertonic to the cytosol?

A) lysis

C) no net gain or loss of water

B) crenation

D)swelling

16) What process divides the cytosol, organelles, and proteins?

A) prophase

C) mitosis

3 cytokinesis

D) synthesis

17) What are the two steps of protein synthesis that produce a protein from a gene?

replication and translation
transcription and translation
replication and transcripton
mitosis and cytokinesis

18) Where does protein synthesis occur?

A) mitochondria

B) ribosomes

C) peroxisomes

D) lysosomes

19) The main component of the cytosol IS:

B water.

A) organelles.

D the nucleus.

C) sugars.

20) The Na*/K+ pump transports three sodium ions out of the cell for every two potassium ions moved into the cell. This is an example of:

B facilitated diffusion.

A) a uniport pump.

D) a symport pump.

21) What is NOT a function of the plasma membrane?

structural support
isolate the cell from its surroundings
communication with other cells
catalyze macromolecules into subunits

22) During which phase of mitosis are sister chromatids separated when the mitotic spindle fibers shorten?

A) metaphase

B) telophase

C) anaphase

D) prophase

23) The tRNA molecule binds a start codon of the mRNA

molecule during:

A) transcription.

C) termination.

B) elongation.

D) initiation.

24) Human cells that lack centrioles cannot:

A) move.

B) divide.

C) synthesize proteins.

D) metabolize sugars.

25) Squamous cell carcinoma arises from:

melanocytes.
keratinocytes in stratum basale.
C) keratinocytes in stratum spinosum.dook back
D) keratinocytes in stratum corneum.

26) Exercise often makes the skin flush red, a condition known as:

A) cyanosis.

C) erythema.

B) pallor.

D) jaundice.

27) Thick skin lacks:

A) hair follicles.

C) stratum lucidum.

B) stratum granulosum.

D) sweat glands.

28) Where are blood vessels housed that nourish the epidermis?

the reticular layer of the dermis
dermal papillae
lamellated (Pacinian) corpuscles
stratum basale of the epidermis

29) Which of the following is an appropriate skin response to cold?

dermal blood vessels vasoconstrict
vitamin D production increases
sebaceous gland secretions increase
dermal blood vessels vasodilate

30) Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin?

A) sensation

B) protection

C) thermoregulation

D) vitamin A synthesis

31) We have unique patterns on our fingers, toes, palms, and soles created by:

A) cleavage lines.

C) Merkel cells.

B) dendritic (Langerhans) cells.

D) epidermal ridges.

32) Mammary glands are specialized:

A) holocrine glands.

C) sweat glands.

B) sebaceous glands.

D) ceruminous glands.

33) Eccrine glands produce:

A) sebum.

C) hormones.

B) sweat containing mostly water.

D) cerumen.

34) The ABCDE rule is used to distinguish normal moles from:

A) basal cell carcinoma.

C) squamous cell carcinoma.

B) freckles.

D) melanoma.

35) What stands hairs on end, causing piloerection?

A arrector pili muscle

epidermal ridges
epithelial root sheath

D) dermal papillae

36) Exposure to UV radiation causes the skin to darken by increasing the production of:

A) keratin.

C) hemoglobin.

B melanin.

D) collagen.

37) Humans often purchase antiperspirants and deodorants to suppress and mask the odors of secretions from the:

A) apocrine glands.

B) eccrine glands.

C) sebaceous glands.

D) mammary glands.

38) The most superficial layer of the dermis is the:

A) reticular layer.

B) hypodermis.

C) stratum basale.

D) papillary layer.

39) What does cyanosis signify?

A person has been exposed to too much sun.
A person has been kept out of the sun.
A person has oxygen-starved skin.
A person has been exposed to cyanide.

40) What part of the hair dies in response to hormones, such as testosterone, in male pattern baldness?

A) hair follicle

B) hair cortex

C) hair matrix

D) hair medulla

Exam 2

1) What type of bone is adapted to withstand stresses arriving from many directions?

A) osteon bone

C) spongy bone

D) lamellar bone

B) compact bone

2) What type of bone growth do you think a 40-year-old male experiences?

C) lengthwise growth

B) endochondral ossification

D) appositional growth

3) As a result of the increase of testosterone at puberty for

A) epiphyseal plates widen rapidly.

C) The bone would be stronger.

B) intramembranous ossification increases.

D) The bone would be less compressible.

4) What accounts for the majority of bone (osseous) tissue matrix?

A) osteoid

C) calcium salts

b) collagen fibers

D) bone marrow

5) What term implies bone deposition via osteoblasts?

A) calcification

B) resorption

C) degradation

D) keratinization

6) What is the first step of bone repair?

bone callus formation
primary bone is replaced with secondary bone
soft callus formation
D hematoma formation

7) Blood cells are made in the red bone marrow of bones, a process known as:

A) bone resorption.

C) osteoporosis.

B) ossification.

D) hematopolesis.

8) What tissue serves as the model for bones formed during endochondral ossification?

A) fibrocartilage

B) hyaline cartilage

C) compact bone

D) spongy bone

9) Appositional growth produces:

A) growth in width.

intramembranous ossification.
growth in length.
D) endochondral ossification.

10) Which hormone inhibits osteoclast activity and promotes bone deposition?

B) Growth hormone

A) Parathyroid hormone

D) Calcitonin

C) Estrogen

11) In the epiphyseal plate chondrocytes enlarge and mature in the Zone of

A) Ossification

B) Hypertrophy

C) Calcification

D) Proliferation

12) Which type of ossification makes flat bones?

A) Intramembranous ossification.

B) Interstitial ossification

C) Endochondral ossification

D) Periosteal ossification

13) At what age does the process of ossification or

male experiences?

osteogenesis typically begin?

A longitudinal growth B) endochondral ossification

A) 2 years old B) At Birth C) 12 years old

D) In Utero

C) lengthwise growth

D) appositional growth

14) How would the removal of hydroxyapatite crystals from

bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone?

A) The bone would be less flexible.

males:

B) The bone would be more flexible.

A) epiphyseal plates widen rapidly.

C) The bone would be stronger.

D) The bone would be less compressible.

15) What vitamin deficiency causes rickets in children?

A) vitamin K

B) vitamin C

C) vitamin D

D) vitamin A

16) Secondary ossification centers are characteristic of:

appositional growth.
mesenchymal ossification.
endochondral ossification.
intramembranous ossification.

17) What is the role of osteoclasts in bone physiology?

A) Make bone

B) Secrete enzymes to break down bone

c)Secrete bone matrix

DMaintain bone

18) In the epiphyseal plate chondrocytes divide in the Zone of

A) Proliferation

C) Hypertrophy

B Calcification

D) Ossification

19) What is the role of Parathyroid hormone in calcium regulation?

Stimulates the kidneys to retain calcium ions.
Inhibits osteoclast activity
Increases osteoblast activity
Increases calcium excretion in urine

20) What characteristic is NOT descriptive of cardiac muscle tissue?

A) striations

B) intercalated discs

E) yoluntary muscle contractions

D/located in the heart

21) A muscle cell experiencing resting membrane potential is:

experiencing depolarization.
polarized.
propagating an action potential.
more negatively charged on its exterior than in its interior.

22) What are possible products of glycolytic, or anaerobic, catabolism?

ATP, pyruvate, and lactic acid
creatine phosphate only
glucose only
oxygen only

23) What part of the myofibril shortens to produce contractions of the muscle fiber? sarcomere

B) myosin filaments

C) A band

D) elastic filaments

24) A single motor neuron together with all the skeletal muscle fibers it innervates is called a:

A) synaptic cleft.

B) neuromuscular junction.

D) motor end plate.

25) What type of contraction requires the greatest amount of tension?

miometric contraction
isometric contraction

C isotonic eccentric contraction

D) isotonic concentric contraction

26) Smooth muscle and skeletal muscle both possess:

A troponin.

transverse tubules (T-tubules).
myosin and actin filaments.
motor end plates.

27) The degree to which a muscle cell can stretch depends on its:

A) contractility.

C) extensibility.

B) excitability.

D) conductivity

28) Larry's muscles weakened while he played tennis for hours on a hot summer afternoon. This inability to maintain intensity is defined as:

A) hypotonia.

B) hypertonia.

C) atroph

muscle fatigue.

29) Which statement best describes the function of myoglobin?

Myoglobin catabolizes glycogen.
Myoglobin is a source of ATP for muscles.
Myoglobin stores oxygen in muscle cells.
Myoglobin hydrolyzes ATP.

30) When muscle fibers are stimulated so frequently they do not have an opportunity to relax, they are experiencing:

A) fused or complete tetanus.

C) unfused or incomplete tetanus.

B wave summation.

D) twitch.

31) Through which AP-generate sustainedim can long. lasting muscle contractions be sustained?

A) creatine phosphate reaction

B) glycolysis

C)oxidative catabolism

D) anaerobic catabolism

32) Acetylcholine receptor binding triggers sodium to

A) enter the neuron.

enter the muscle cell.

exit the neuron.

D) exit the muscle cell.

33) Latent period is

the time of muscle relaxation.
the time when ATP is depleted.
the time of receiving many impulses in rapid succession.
the period between stimulation and contraction.

34) Which specific event triggers the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

Acetylcholine is released from receptors.
An electrical signal travels down the transverse tubules.
Myosin binds to actin.
Calcium binds to troponin.

35) When an action potential arrives in an axon terminal, synaptic vesicles containing acetylcholine are released by:

A) facilitated diffusion.

C) osmosis.

B) endocytosis.

D) exocytosis.

36) During muscle contraction, myosin crossbridges bind to active sites on:

A) tropomyosin. B) troponin. C) T-tubules. D) actin.

37) Type I fibers lack:

A speed

C mitochondria.

B) a blood supply.

D) myoglobin.

38) In smooth muscle, the thin filaments are attached to that will draw the cell inward during

contraction.

A) myosin

C) Z lines

B) thick filaments dense bodies

39) Where should most of the potassium ions be located when a muscle cell is at rest?

sarcoplasmic reticulum
extracellular fluid
cytosol of the muscle cell
tranverse tubules (T-tubules)

40) Where are receptors for acetylcholine located?

A) axon terminal

B) motor end plate

C) sarcomere

D) triad

Exam 3

1) During saltatory conduction, action potentials are generated:

A) only at nodes of Ranvier of myelinated axons.

B) regardless if threshold is reached.

C) when the entire axolemma is depolarized.

D) along the entire length of the unmyelinated

2) A neuron that receives neurotransmitters from another neuron is called:

A) the postsynaptic neuron.

C) an oligodendrocyte.

B) the presynaptic neuron.

D) a Schwann

3) Which of the following is an effect of myelination?

A) Myelination increases the rate at which phagocytosis

B) Myelination increases the speed of conduction of action

C)Myelination increases the rate of mitosis in damaged

D)Myelination increases the volume of cerebrospinal fluid in circulation.

4) A local hyperpolarization that changes a postsynaptic neuron's membrane from resting potential to -85 mV is:

a saltatory stimulus.
an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP).
a temporal stimulus.
an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP).

5) Summation that results from the cumulative effect of multiple synapses at multiple places on the neuron is designated:

A) hyperpolarization.

B) impulse transmission.

C) spatial summation.

D) temporal summation.

6) What type of synapse must have receptors to transmit signals?

electrical synapse
chemical synapse
both chemical and electrical synapses
neither chemical nor electrical synapses

7) Determine the membrane potential (mV) during the relative refractory period.-

A) -55 mV

B) -85 mV

C) +15 mV

D) +30 mV

8) What is more likely to promote an action potential?

A) repolarization

B) hyperpolarization

C) absolute refractory period

D) depolarization

9) What channels open or close in response to physical distortion of the membrane surface, such as vibrations or pressure?

A) mechanically-gated

C) ligand-gated

B) voltage-gated

D) chemically-gated

10) Which nervous system division is responsible for the

A) visceral motor division

C) when the entire axolemma is depolarized.

B) peripheral nervous system

D) along the entire length of the unmyelinated axon.

11) The conducting region of the neuron is the:

A) cell body.

B) axon terminals (synaptic knobs).

C) axon.

D) dendrites.

12) What would most likely lead to an IPSP?

opening of sodium ion channels
opening of calcium ion channels

opening of potassium ion channels

closure of chloride ion channels

13) What does the central nervous system use to determine the strength of a stimulus?

A) type of stimulus receptor

B) origin of the stimulus

C) size of action potentials

D)frequency of action potentials

14) The most common neuron type is the neuron.

A) tripolar

B) multipolar

C) unipolar

D) bipolar

15) What is NOT a function of the nervous system?

A) integrate sensory information

B direct long-term functions such as growin

C) control effectors

D) sense the internal and external environments

16) Which of the following is most likely to produce an action potential?

inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)
hyperpolarization
opening of potassium ion channels
excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)

17) What membrane potential must generally be met in order to achieve threshold?

A) -30 mV

B) -55 mV

C) -85 mV

D) -70 mV

18) Bipolar neurons are commonly

A) called neuroglial cells

B) motor neurons

C) found in the retina of the eye

D) found in ganglia

19) Voltage-gated sodium channels have both an activation gate and:

A) a threshold gate.

B) a swinging gate.

C) an inactivation gate.

D) a leak gate.

20) Most information received by neurons enters at

A) collaterals.

B) dendrites.

D) the cell body.

C) axons.

E) hillocks.

21) What brain region is responsible for learning, memory, and personality?

C) diencephalon

B) cerebellum

D) brainstem

22) The cerebellum functions in:

homeostatic functions such as breathing and heart rate.
learning, memory, and personality.
the planning and coordination of movement.
biological rhythms.

23) Bundles of white matter in the cerebrum are known as:

A) nerves.

B) ganglia.

C) tracts.

D) nuclei.

24) Where are color, object movement, and depth processed?

A) auditory association cortex

B) precentral gyrus

C) premotor cortex

D) visual association areas

25) What functional brain system participates in memory, learning, emotion, and behavior?

medial lemniscal system
peripheral nervous system
limbic system
anterolateral system

26) The hypothalamus functions in:

regulating the autonomic nervous system.
secreting a hormone called melatonin.
sending information to the cerebral cortex.
coordinating movement.

27) Todd was startled when the door slammed shut. What part of the brainstem is responsible?

A) pons

B) medulla

C) thalamus

D) midbrain

28) Astrocytes and tight junctions create a barrier to viruses and bacteria known as:

A) meninges.

B)the blood-brain barrier.

C)choroid plexues.

D) dural sinuses

29) Detection of stimuli is a responsibility of the while perception of the stimuli is a responsibility of the

A) PNS; CNS

C) CNS; PNS

B) upper motor neuron; lower motor neuron

D) second-order neuron; first-order neuron

30) The deepest stage of sleep is experienced during:

A) stage IV.

B) stage 1.

C) stage VI.

D) stage III.

31) The skeletal muscles are innervated by the _ nervous system.

A) sympathetic

C) central somatic

B) parasympathetic

E) autonomic

32) Extracellular fluid normally contains high levels of

A) chloride.

B calcium.

C) magnesium.

D) sodium.

E) potassium.

33) Temporary local changes in the resting potential of a neural cell are called

______potentials.

resting
graded
Recessive
Action
synaptic

34) The most common inhibitory neurotransmitter is A norepinephrine.

B) glutamine.

C) serotonin.

D) epinephrine.

E) acetylcholine.

35) Hallucinogenic drugs such as Ecstasy target the receptors for

A) glutamine.

B) epinephrine.

C) norepinephrine.

D) serotonin.

E) acetylcholine.

36) The brain region that relays and processes sensory information is called the

A) thalamus.

B) cerebellum.

C) medulla oblongata.

D) hypothalamus.

E) midbrain.

37) The brain region that autonomically regulates heart rate and blood pressure is called the

A) midbrain.

B) cerebellum.

C) hypothalamus.

D) thalamus.

E) medulla oblongata.

38) Which of the following is NOT a function of the cerebrum?

A) conscious thought

B autonomic control

C) sensory processing

D)regulation of skeletal muscles

E) memory storage

39) Melatonin is secreted by the _____and regulates_____

pineal gland; skin pigmentation
speech center; skin pigmentation
emotional center; day-night cycles
visual association center; Sleep

40) Respiratory depth is controlled by the —--- basic pace is set by the—--

A)cerebellum; pons

B)pineal gland; pons

C) pons; medulla oblongata

D) medulla oblongata; pons

E/medulla oblongata; cerebellum