DP

study guide

✅ Spelling Questions Fixed

Question 1 – Correct vs. Misspelled

Correctly Spelled Words:

  • Accreditation

  • Advocate

  • Epidemic

  • Generalist

  • Provider

  • Reciprocity

  • Doctorate

  • Scribe

  • Tact

  • Revocation

Misspelled Words:

  • Accretitation

  • Scrieb

  • Generelist

  • Provyder

  • Reciprcety

  • Revokation

  • Epademic

  • Receprocity

  • Advacate

  • Doctorite

  • Docterate

  • Revocaton

Question 25 – Correct vs. Misspelled

Correctly Spelled Words:

  • Empathetic

  • Impathetic

  • Innate

  • Resiliency

  • Integrity

  • Diversity

Misspelled Words:

  • Intigrity

  • Rasieliency

  • Diversitie

  • Empathitic

  • Divirsity

  • Inate

  • Enate

  • Risiliency

Question 34 – Correct vs. Misspelled

Correctly Spelled Words:

  • Transcript

  • Résumé

  • Externship

  • Chronological

  • Practicum

Misspelled Words:

  • Transcrip

  • Resame

  • Pracitical

  • Chonological

  • Targited

✅ All Questions with Correct Answers

I’ll keep them short and direct:

  1. Correct vs. Misspelled Words: (See lists above)

  2. Advocate: One who assists the patient.
    Urgent Care Center: Ambulatory care for acute/minor illness.
    Administrative Skills: Manage business affairs.
    PCMH: Team-based continuous coordinated care.
    Clinical Skills: Assessment, exam, diagnosis, treatment.
    General Skills: Needed in any capacity.
    Hospitalist: Works with admitted patients.
    Solo Practice: One provider makes all decisions.
    Partnership: Two or more providers share business.

  3. Plague – infectious, life-threatening, flea-borne disease.

  4. Biofeedback – controls involuntary functions.

  5. Homeopathy – 200-year-old system, “Law of Similars.”

  6. Naturopathy – body heals itself.

  7. To succeed: knowledge base, skills, behaviors.

  8. General, Administrative, Clinical.

  9. Key communicator, supports patient-provider relationship.

  10. Six admin skills: scheduling, records, demographics, inventory, billing, insurance claims.

  11. Six clinical skills: vitals, sterilization, lab tests, meds, phlebotomy, emergencies.

  12. Work environments: Physician offices, hospitals, clinics, nursing homes.

  13. Patient navigator: Guides patients, removes barriers, explains care.

  14. Self-boundaries: Clarity, consistency, respect, awareness.

  15. Credentialing: Verifies qualifications, certifications, education.

  16. Certification: Accredited program + exam; CMA = clinical focus, RMA = broader eligibility.

  17. Nurses: LPN, RN, NP, Midwife, CNS (with licenses/exams).

  18. Importance: Know provider roles, collaborate, improve care.

  19. Complementary medicine: Alongside conventional care (e.g., acupuncture).

  20. Matching orgs:

  • AAPC = CPC credential

  • AAMA = CMA credential (CAAHEP/ABHES program required)

  • NCCT = NCMA credential

  • AMT = RMA & CMAS credential

  • NHA = 8 certification exams

  1. Specialist matches (corrected):

  • Anesthesiologist: Epidural for delivery

  • Allergist: Hay fever

  • Dermatologist: Mole

  • Urologist: Urinary issues

  • Podiatrist: Foot pain

  • Pulmonary Specialist: Emphysema

  • Plastic Surgeon: Facial improvements

  • Optometrist: Vision issues

  • Ophthalmologist: Glaucoma

  • Pediatrician: Well-baby check

  • Chiropractor: Whiplash

  • Endocrinologist: Diabetes

  • Sports Medicine: Injury

  • Dentist: Tooth pain

  • Nuclear Medicine: Radiation treatment

  • Gerontologist: Elderly patient

  • Gynecologist: STD

  1. Legislation/orgs (all correct): HIPAA, Medicare, Medicaid, CSA, UAGA, Hill-Burton, NIH, WHO, ACA, FDA, CLIA, OSHA.

  2. 2028 – medical assistant growth.

  3. Integrative medicine: Mix of traditional + alternative; MAs support patients.

  4. (See spelling list above).

  5. Fill-ins: Attitude, Diversity, Critical thinking, Work ethic, Prioritize, Time management, Team player, Initiative, Self-confidence, Self-awareness.

  6. Traits: Dependable, Communicative, Confidential, Adaptable, Detail-oriented.

  7. Appearance: Clean scrubs, closed-toe shoes, minimal jewelry, natural makeup, groomed hair.

  8. Time management: Productivity, less stress, deadlines, balance, efficiency.

  9. Bias: Creates judgment/misunderstanding, prevents safe communication.

  10. Critical thinking: Assess, consider, anticipate, decide safely.

  11. Examples: Cultural (religion), Social (class), Ethnic (race).

  12. Task order: Assist physician → Open room 1 → Perform ECG → Return patient call.

  13. (See spelling list above).

  14. Practicum/Externship definitions + résumé styles: Functional, Chronological, Targeted, Transcript.

  15. Practicum benefits: Hands-on, confidence, networking.

  16. Interview dress: Professionalism = respect + positive impression.

  17. Evaluation areas: Attendance, professionalism, communication, skills, teamwork, following directions.

  18. Interview prep: Research, dress, résumé, answers, arrive early, questions.

  19. Follow-up letter: Thank interviewer, reinforce interest, lasting impression.

  20. Advance in employment: Education, communication, leadership, relationships, feedback, stay current.

  21. Employer skills vs. qualities:

  • Skills: Computer proficiency, critical thinking, communication, teamwork, time management.

  • Qualities: Responsible, punctual, honest, flexible, positive attitude.

  • Question 1

    Match the Legal Term with its definition.

    • Mediation: A type of dispute resolution where the parties meet with a neutral third party.

    • State Law: Legislation enacted by the state legislature and signed by the governor.

    • Common Law: The traditional unwritten law of England, based on custom and usage.

    • Statutory Law: Legally enacted; deriving authority from law.

    • Plaintiff: The party that initiates a lawsuit by filing a complaint.

    • Medical Malpractice: Conduct of a physician/hospital below professional standards causing patient harm.

    • res ipsa loquitur: A rule of evidence important in malpractice suits.

    • Federal Law: Takes precedence over conflicting state laws (Supremacy Clause, Article VI).

    • Supremacy Clause: Allows Supreme Court rulings to be binding on state courts in constitutional cases.

    • Defendant: The party sued in a civil lawsuit or charged with a crime.

    • Jurisdictions: Authority of a court over certain cases/areas.

    • Negligence: Lacking due care; act of carelessness.

    • Deposition: Live questioning under oath by an attorney before trial.

    • Arbitration: Private, binding resolution of disputes outside court.

    • Statute: A written federal or state law.

    • Legislating: The act of making laws by a legislature or Congress.

    Question 2

    List six examples of Nonverbal Communication cues.
    Facial expressions, body language, eye contact, appearance, personal space, paralanguage.

    Question 3

    Define Misdemeanor and Felonies.

    • Misdemeanor: Less serious than a felony, punishable by fine or jail up to one year.

    • Felonies: Serious crimes punishable by death or prison.

    Question 4

    Two types of Manslaughter with examples:

    • Voluntary Manslaughter: Intentional killing, e.g., killing spouse in sudden rage.

    • Involuntary Manslaughter: Unintentional killing from recklessness, e.g., fatal car accident while drunk.

    Question 5

    Difference between Libel and Slander:

    • Libel: Defamation in written form.

    • Slander: Defamation in spoken form.

    Question 6

    Torts are a branch of Common Law.
    Answer: True

    Question 7

    Definition:
    Standard of Care — the level/type of care a competent professional would provide.

    Question 8

    Six elements of a Standard Negligence Lawsuit:
    Duty of care, breach of duty, foreseeability, causation in fact, proximate cause, damages.

    Question 9

    Contracts can be:

    • Express: Intentions clearly expressed.

    • Implied: Agreement by actions/conduct.
      Before treatment, a patient must provide Consent.

    Question 10

    Capacity: Mental competency to make healthcare decisions or execute a will.

    Question 11

    Durable Power of Attorney: Authorizes a person to make medical decisions for the patient.

    Question 12

    A Living Will: Patient’s statement of medical wishes; does not designate another decision-maker.

    Question 13

    Difference between Ethical Dilemma & Moral Issue with examples:

    • Ethical Dilemma: Choosing between two ethically justified actions (e.g., honoring patient’s wish to stop treatment vs. family’s insistence).

    • Moral Issue: Questions of right/wrong based on culture/values (e.g., lying to protect someone’s feelings).

    Question 14

    Communication Process order:
    Sender → Sender’s Reference Points → Possible Sources of Interference → Receiver’s Reference Points → Receiver → Feedback Loop

    Question 15

    Three ways people communicate:

    • Verbal: Spoken or written words

    • Nonverbal: Body language, facial expressions, gestures, posture

    • Visual: Pictures, symbols, charts, visual aids

    Question 16

    Three common Communication Barriers:

    • Physical: Distance, noise, poor equipment

    • Language: Different languages

    • Psychological: Emotion, stress, bias

    Question 17

    Active Listening: Participation by repeating, paraphrasing, or giving feedback cues.

    Question 18

    Perception: Awareness of one’s own/others’ feelings.
    Intuition: Immediate knowing without reasoning.

    Question 19

    Defense Mechanisms: Unconscious acts to cope with unpleasant circumstances.

    Question 20

    Examples of Defense Mechanisms:
    Repression, Suppression, Displacement, Projection, Rationalization, Sublimation, Intellectualization, Compensation, Temporary Withdrawal.

    Question 21

    Nonverbal Communication definition & examples:
    Sending messages without words — facial expressions, gestures, posture, eye contact.

    Question 22

    Protocol for answering medical office phone:
    Answer within 3 rings, greet politely with office & your name, speak clearly/professionally, listen carefully, take accurate notes. Example: “Good morning, Dr. Smith’s office, this is Maria, how may I help you?”

    Question 23

    Six pieces of info in a telephone message:
    Caller’s name, phone number, date/time, reason for call, who call is for, your name/initials.

What are eighteen items/equipment that a Crash Cart should have?

  • Oxygen tank & masks

  • Bag-valve-mask (Ambu bag)

  • Suction device & tubing

  • Endotracheal tubes

  • Laryngoscope with blades

  • Oral/nasal airways

  • IV catheters

  • IV fluids (normal saline, etc.)

  • Needles & syringes

  • Tourniquets

  • Defibrillator/AED

  • Cardiac monitor leads

  • Epinephrine

  • Atropine

  • Amiodarone

  • Naloxone

  • Glucose (Dextrose)

  • Emergency procedure tray

Question 2

What are fourteen Emergency Medications needed in a Crash Cart?

  • Epinephrine

  • Atropine

  • Amiodarone

  • Lidocaine

  • Adenosine

  • Dopamine

  • Norepinephrine

  • Vasopressin

  • Sodium bicarbonate

  • Calcium chloride (or gluconate)

  • Magnesium sulfate

  • Naloxone

  • Dextrose (Glucose)

  • Ephedrine

Question 3

What are eight examples of a life-threatening condition?

  • Cardiac arrest

  • Heart attack (Myocardial infarction)

  • Stroke

  • Severe trauma/bleeding

  • Respiratory failure

  • Severe allergic reaction (Anaphylaxis)

  • Sepsis

  • Shock

Question 4

Match the Emergency Term with its definition.

  • Sudden: Occurring quickly and without warning

  • Acute: Rapid onset, severe symptoms, short course

  • Life Threatening: Can lead to death

  • Urgent: Requires intervention as soon as possible

  • Subtle: Hidden, not apparent, treacherous

  • Chronic: Long, drawn out, not acute

  • Severe: Extensive/advanced

Question 5

___ is caused by an increased amount of sugar in the blood that can occur if ___ is not treated.
Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis — caused by Hyperglycemia

Question 6

___ Shock or ___ can occur from an excess amount of insulin in the body.
Correct Answer: Insulin Shock or Hypoglycemia

Question 7

___ can generally be removed with a sterile needle and splinter forceps in the office.
Correct Answer: Splinters

Question 8

What does the abbreviation RICE/RICER mean?
Correct Answer: Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation, Refer

Question 9

Match the Fracture with its definition.

  • Impacted: One bone fragment wedged into the other

  • Depressed: Bone pressed down into skull/brain tissue

  • Oblique: Diagonal fracture

  • Transverse: 90° angle across bone

  • Open (Compound): Bone visible through open wound

  • Spiral: Spirals around long bone (twisting injury)

  • Comminuted: Bone crushed/splintered

  • Pott’s: Lower fibula fracture with tibial injury

  • Greenstick (Incomplete): Bone partially bent/broken (common in kids)

  • Colles: Distal radius fracture (wrist)

  • Closed (Simple, Complete): Skin intact, bone broken into 2+ pieces

Question 10

List and describe the three types or causes of Burns.

  • Thermal: From flames, hot liquids, steam, sun, or hot objects

  • Chemical: From acids, alkalis, or other corrosive substances

  • Electrical: From faulty wiring, cords, high-voltage lines, or lightning

Question 11

What are the three methods used to classify Burns?

  • Depth: First-degree (epidermis), second-degree (dermis, blisters), third-degree (all layers destroyed)

  • Extent: Percentage of body burned (Rule of Nines, Lund & Browder chart)

  • Severity: Classified as minor, moderate, or major

Question 12

Match the Burn Degree with its definition.

  • First-Degree: Affects top skin layers only

  • Second-Degree / Partial Thickness: Affects top layers, longer healing, possible scarring

  • Third- & Fourth-Degree: Most serious, all layers down to bone

Question 13

Match the Wound Type with its definition.

  • Avulsion: Skin torn off, profuse bleeding

  • Incision: Clean cut from sharp object, may need sutures

  • Abrasion: Scrape of epidermis, bleeding spots, dirt/gravel possible

  • Laceration: Tearing of tissue, difficult to clean/suture

  • Puncture: Wound from pointed object (knife, nail, etc.)

Question 14

The general rule is for the patient to have a tetanus injection every ___ years; however, for an injury, the requirement changes to every ___ years.
Correct Answer: Every 10 years; for injury, every 5 years

Question 15

Hot and cold pack applications are often used in the treatment of injuries. True or False?
Correct Answer: True

Question 1

What are eight ways that Written Communication is used in the Medical Office?

  • Patient records

  • Prescriptions

  • Appointment reminders

  • Billing statements

  • Referral letters

  • Lab/test results

  • Policies and procedures

  • Patient instructions

Question 2

Email Pros & Cons

Pros:

  • Enables communication with many people at once

  • Environmentally friendly

  • Leaves a trail for reference

  • Fast, accessible, saves time

  • Provides easy reference to past communications

  • Does not require recipients to be present

  • Can attach files quickly

Cons:

  • Less personal, can be misunderstood

  • Overused instead of calls/in-person talks

  • Not good for urgent/time-sensitive matters

  • Not ideal for emotional issues

  • Overload of emails possible

  • Viruses can be transmitted

  • Not as secure/private as assumed

  • Can be used in court, liability risk

Question 3

Five best practices for maintaining good email manners:

  • Use a clear subject line

  • Be polite and professional

  • Keep concise and to the point

  • Check spelling/grammar

  • Reply promptly

Question 4

Three rules to help keep your computer Virus-Free:

  • Install and update antivirus software

  • Don’t click on suspicious links/attachments

  • Keep system and programs updated

Question 5

Four examples when a release form is not required:

  • Continuity of care between providers

  • Insurance and billing purposes

  • Reporting communicable diseases

  • Workers’ compensation cases

Question 6

Match the Speech Part:

  • Noun → The name of anything

  • Pronoun → Substitute for a noun

  • Conjunction → Connects words/phrases/clauses

  • Adjective → Describes a noun/pronoun

  • Adverb → Modifies a verb/adjective

  • Preposition → Shows relationship

  • Interjection → Expresses emotion

  • Verb → Expresses action/state of being

Question 7

Sentence Types:

  • Simple → One complete thought

  • Compound → Two or more independent clauses

  • Complex → One independent + dependent clause(s)

  • Compound-Complex → Two or more independent + dependent clause(s)

Question 8

Five Special Senses:

  • Sight

  • Hearing

  • Taste

  • Smell

  • Touch

Question 9

Identify Eye Structures
(Eye Labeling.jpg)

  • A: Aqueous Humor

  • B: Lens

  • C: Pupil

  • D: Cornea

  • E: Vitreous Humor

Question 10

The Eye refracts light onto the Retina:

  • Too short → Myopia

  • Too long → Hyperopia

Question 11

(Malleus.jpg)
Answer: Malleus

Question 12

Match Combining Form:

  • myring/o → Middle Ear

  • ir/o → Iris

  • pinn/i → Outer Ear

  • dacryocyst/o → Lacrimal Apparatus

  • phak/o → Lens

  • retin/o → Retina

  • labyrinth/o → Inner Ear

  • ophthalm/o → Eyes

  • audi/o → Ears

Question 13

Answer:

  • Rods → Black & white receptors

  • Cones → Color receptors

Question 14

Also known as Earwax:

  • Answer: Cerumen

Question 15

Five key attributes of a Superstar Manager:

  • Strong Communication (ex: holds regular team meetings)

  • Leadership (ex: leads by example)

  • Problem solving

  • Adaptability

  • Empathy

Question 16

Eleven qualifications/characteristics in Hiring:

  • Education

  • Work experience

  • Job-related skills

  • Communication skills

  • Teamwork ability

  • Problem-solving skills

  • Adaptability

  • Reliability

  • Professionalism

  • Work ethic

  • Cultural fit

Question 17

Four steps to improve training outcomes:

  • Get everyone involved

  • Use different methods

  • Prepare staff beforehand

  • Follow up afterward

Question 18

(Cochlea.jpg)
Answer: Cochlea

Question 19

(Stapes.jpg)
Answer: Stapes

Question 20

(Sclera.jpg)
Answer: Sclera

Question 21

(Eustachian Tube 2.jpg)
Answer: Eustachian Tube

Question 22

Eye Specialists:

  • Ophthalmologist → Physician, full spectrum, surgery

  • Optometrist → Doctor of optometry, exams, lenses

  • Optician → Designs, fits, dispenses lenses

Question 23

Hearing Tests:

  • Tympanometry → Air pressure test for middle ear

  • Weber & Rinne → Tuning fork for hearing loss type

  • Audiometry → Measures hearing acuity

Question 24

Match Abbreviation:

  • OU → Each/Both Eyes

  • AR → Acoustic Refractometry

  • OD → Right Eye

  • PRK → Photorefractive Keratotomy

  • dB → Decibel

  • BPPV → Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

  • OS → Left Eye

Question 1

Place the layers and spaces of the Brain in order from innermost to outermost.

  • Pia Mater

  • Subarachnoid Space

  • Arachnoid Mater

  • Subdural Space

  • Dura Mater

Question 2

What structure is this? (Diencephalon.jpg)

  • Diencephalon

Question 3

The ______ division accelerates activity in the smooth, involuntary muscles of the body’s organs, and the ______ division reverses the action and slows down activity.

  • Sympathetic

  • Parasympathetic

Question 4

What are eight functions of the Hypothalamus?

  • Controls body temperature

  • Regulates hunger

  • Regulates thirst

  • Manages sleep-wake cycles

  • Controls emotions

  • Regulates hormone release

  • Maintains blood pressure and heart rate

  • Controls sexual behavior and reproduction

Question 5

Nerve Tracts:

  • Ascending → carry nerve impulses toward the Brain

  • Descending → carry nerve impulses away from the Brain

Question 6

Define:

  • Stimulus → anything that excites a nerve and causes an impulse

  • Impulse → a wave of excitation transmitted through nerve fibers and neurons

Question 7

Give four examples of Reflex Actions.

  • Blinking

  • Sneezing

  • Knee-jerk

  • Withdrawal from a hot surface

Question 8

What are four functions of Glial Cells?

  • Support and protect neurons

  • Provide nutrients and oxygen

  • Remove waste and dead neurons

  • Form myelin to insulate nerve fibers

Question 9

What are the functions of Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF)?

  • Cushions and protects the brain and spinal cord

  • Removes waste products

  • Transports nutrients and chemicals

  • Maintains stable pressure around the brain and spinal cord

Question 10

What structure is this? (Thalamus.jpg)

  • Thalamus

Question 11

Match the parts of the Brain with their functions:

  • Thalamus → Relays sensory stimuli

  • Hypothalamus → Controls vital bodily functions

  • Cerebrum → Highest level of thought (judgment, memory, critical thinking)

  • Brainstem → Survival functions (breathing, digestion, heart rate, BP) and arousal

  • Cerebellum → Coordinates muscular activity and balance

Question 12

The ______ is divided to create two Cerebral ______ that are connected at the lower midpoint by the ______.

  • Cerebrum

  • Hemispheres

  • Corpus callosum

Question 13

Name the parts of the Brainstem and describe their functions:

  • Midbrain → Eye movement, visual & auditory reflexes

  • Pons → Connects brain regions, breathing, facial movements

  • Medulla Oblongata → Regulates heart rate, blood pressure, breathing

Question 14

What structure is this? (Pons.jpg)

  • Pons

Question 15

What structure is this? (Cerebellum.jpg)

  • Cerebellum

Question 16

What structure is this? (Parietal Lobe.jpg)

  • Parietal Lobe

Question 17

What structure is this? (Brainstem.jpg)

  • Brainstem

Question 18

What part of the Brain is this? (Temporal Lobe.jpg)

  • Temporal Lobe

Question 19

What structure is this? (Frontal Lobe.jpg)

  • Frontal Lobe

Question 20

The Peripheral Nervous System consists of:

  • 12 pairs of Cranial Nerves (extend from Brain)

  • 31 pairs of Spinal Nerves (extend from Spinal Cord)

Question 21

Match the medical professional with their definition:

  • Psychiatrist → Diagnoses & treats chemical dependencies, emotional problems, mental illness

  • Neurosurgeon → Specializes in surgery of the nervous system

  • Social Worker → Therapist with MSW

  • Anesthesiologist → Physician specializing in anesthesia

  • Anesthetist → Administers anesthesia (not a physician, e.g., nurse anesthetist)

  • Neurologist → Diagnoses & treats nervous system disorders

  • Psychologist → PhD/PsyD, evaluates & treats emotional problems, not an MD

Question 22

A ______ is the congenital herniation of the meninges through a defect in the skull or spinal column.

  • Meningocele

Question 23

Which of the following statements is TRUE about Huntington’s Disease?

  • It is an inherited condition that causes progressive damage to nerve cells in the brain.

Question 24

A type of mild traumatic brain injury (TBI)…

  • Concussion

Question 25

Which of the following best defines Opiates?

  • Naturally derived substances from the opium poppy that relieve pain

Question 26

Deep sleep, respiratory depression, nausea, and bradycardia are adverse reactions of what medication?

  • Morphine Sulfate

Question 27

Anesthetics:

  • Anesthetics → Drugs that interfere with conduction of nerve impulses

  • Local anesthetics → Block nerve transmission in applied area

  • General anesthetics → Affect CNS, cause partial/complete loss of consciousness

Question 28

Match the Seizure type with its definition:

  • Generalized → Involves both hemispheres

  • Unclassified Epileptic → Cannot be placed due to incomplete data

  • Partial → Localized to one area of the brain

  • Unilateral → Confined to one hemisphere

Question 29

How long does it take for Benzodiazepines to start working?

  • 15 – 40 Minutes

Question 30

Give five examples of Benzodiazepines:

  • Diazepam (Valium)

  • Lorazepam (Ativan)

  • Alprazolam

  • Clonazepam

  • Temazepam