Pt
Practice acts are important because they
serve to describe exercises that patients can do at home.
help the therapist determine what the patient can or cannot do.
regulate the practice of physical therapy in each state.
are first performed by the physical therapist assistant before the patient does them.
are shown to caregivers who then monitor the patient at home.
2. What is the name of the document produced by the APTA that describes the approach of the physical therapist to patient care for internal and external audiences?
Guide to Physical Therapist Practice
Model Definition of Physical Therapy for State Practice Acts
Physical Therapists Scope of Practice
Guide to State Practice Acts
Vision Statement for the Physical Therapy Profession
3. Which of the following activities are fundamental to the practice of physical therapy?
Examination
Maintain and improving function and movement
Prevention, health, and wellness D.
All of the above
E. A and B only
4. Who are the only individuals who may provide physical therapy interventions under the direction of a physical therapist?
Physical therapy technicians
Doctors of Osteopathy
Chiropractors
Physical therapist assistants (PTAs)
Occupational therapists
5. Which of the following would be outside the physical therapist's scope of practice?
Fitting a client with crutches
Joint mobilizations
Ergonomic assessment
Doubling the dosage of a patient's biood pressure madication
All of the ahove are within the physical therapist's scope of practre
In order for a PTA education program to be acoreditad, what bype of degree shouk
students attain upon gratuation?
Baccalaureate
Associate s
Pust baccalaureate
Doctorate
Cartficate of completion of hospital-based training program
7. In contrast to the term "patient" the term 'bient' refers to
an individual who seeks the services of a PT.
a business that hires a PT for consultation.
anyone who pays for physical therapist services.
All of the above
A and B only
8. What event brought techniques of physical therapy to the United States?
The Revolutionary War
World War I
Worid War Il
Vietnam War
Civil War
9. Epidemics of what childhood disease in Europe led to the development of earty physical therapy techniques?
Cerebral palsy
Myasthenia gravis
Polio
Measles
Cholera
10. What group of women were the forerunners of the profession and practice of physical therapy in the United States?
Physical Therapist Aides
Reconstruction Aides
Physical Therapist Technicians
Reconstruction Technicians
Physician'e Assistante
11. What was the year of the creation of the organization that would eventually become known as the APTA?
A. 1894
B. 1911
C. 1021
D. 1932
E. 1047
12. Which of the following was not a founding objective of the American Women's Physica)
Therapeutic Association?
To establieh and maintain a professional and scientific standard for those engaged in the profession of physical therapeutics
To incroase efficiency among ite members by encouraging them in advanced study
To stablich criteria for education programs for physical therapists
To sustain social fellowship and intercourse on grounds of mutual interest
C and D only
13. Which organization was instrumental in providing financial support to the profession and practice of physical therapy during and following World War 11?
National Foundation for Infantile Paralysis
The World Health Organization
The League of Nations
The United Nations
Muscular Dystrophy Association
14. The creation of which medical specialty promoted the use of the title "physical therapist"?
Physiatry
Psychiatry
Orthopedics
Neurology
Occupational therapy
15. Why were emergency 6-month courses authorized to train individuals in the practice of physical therapy?
A. To treat the wounded soldiers of World War I
To treat an influx of children diagnosed with polio
There was a greater need for physical therapists in underserved countries
To meet the demands of injured soldiers in World War lI
None of the above
16. Which of the following best describes the evolution of the required academic degree to become a physical therapist?
Baccalaureate to post baccalaureate to doctoral
Master's to doctoral
Associate's to master's to doctoral
Certificate to doctoral
Associate's to doctoral
17. In regard to the practice of physical therapy, what does "direct access" imply?
The ability to dispense medication without seeing a pharmacist
A patient's ability to walk without assistive devices
Practice without a physician's referral
None of the above
B and C only
18. What occurred in 1983 that was a milestone in the evolution of education programs to become a physical therapist or physical therapist assistant?
The master's degree was required to become a PT.
The Commission on Accreditation in Education became the sole agency recognized to accredit programs for PTs and PTAs.
Students in occupational therapy programs were permitted to take courses in the physical therapy education program.
Clinical specialization was required to practice in your specialty area.
None of the above
19. What was the first state to have direct access for physical therapy?
California
Louisiana
Nebraska
Maryland
New York
20. What organization was initiated to promote and support research in physical therapy?
Foundation for Physical Therapy Research
Education Research in Physical Therapy
Foundation for Education Research
Physical Therapy Research Foundation
Hooked on Evidence
21. Which of the following is true for the American Board of Physical Therapy Specialties?
Certification by this organization is required to practice in any of the physical therapy specialties
It is an agency independent from the APTA
It certifies PTs in orthopaedics, neurology, cardiovascular and pulmonary, and clinical electrophysiology only
Certifies individuals that includes other professionals besides PTs
it was created to provide a formal mechanism to recognize PTs with advanced knowledge and skills in a special area of practice
22. How did the rights and privileges for the PTA in the House of Delegates evolve?
They always have voting rights and these remained unchanged.
Voting rights were removed in 1998.
Voting rights were restored with the creation of the PTA Caucus.
None of the above
B and C only
23. What actions were promoted by Vision 2020?
The transition to the doctoral degree in physical therapist education.
Development of the Core Values document to define professionalism in physical therapy.
Further lobbying to receive approval for direct access across the states and the District of Columbia.
All of the above
None of the above
24. The Vision Statement for the Physical Therapy Profession, which replaced Vision 2020, focused on which of the following?
Allowing PTs to order X-rays and prescribe medication
Expanding the role of the PTA
Optimizing movement to improve the human experience
Moving the education requirement for the PTA to the baccalaureate level
Working more closely with other professions, such as occupational therapists
25. According to the Core Values for the Physical Therapist and Physical Therapist
Assistant, which of the following is defined as the primary regard or devotion to the interest of clients and placing the needs of clients ahead of the physical therapist self-interest?
. Accountability
Altruism
Compassion
Excellence
Social responsibility
1. What level of medical care is provided by clinicians on a referral basis?
Primary care
Secondary care
Tertiary care
Emergency care
2. Direct access to physical therapy would fall under which type of health care?
Primary care
Secondary care
Tertiary care
Emergency care
3. Individuals who have healthy lifestyle habits
will have an increased cost of health care.
will require medical care more often.
are more likely to be malingerers.
D, have a lower cost of health care.
The Guide to Physical Therapist Practice describes which of the following concepts as essential to the practice of physical therapy?
Evidence-based practice
Professional values
Quality assessment
All of the above
5. Which is the most common facility of employment of physical therapists?
A private outpatient office
A hospital
A rehabilitation center
In the patient's home
6. Critical inquiry in physical therapy refers to
complex questions for the patient as part of the history.
research to provide evidence for clinical services.
the challenges presented by the referring physician.
the questions on the insurance form that will determine whether the therapy will be covered.
7. Physical therapists provide consultation
for free because insurance providers will not cover this.
to health professionals in the same hospital only.
to other health professionals and organizations.
outside of their scope of practice if they have done research on the issue.
8. Which of the following are characteristics of the Physical Therapist's Scope of Practice?
It evolves over time.
It supersedes state laws.
It applies to both PTs and PTAs.
Requires certification by an independent board.
9. In physical therapist practice, intervention refers to
committing the family to ensure the patient will complete the exercise program designed by the PT.
engaging the referring physician in the plan of care.
the process of appealing to the insurance company to cover the services.
procedures conducted by the PT or PTA to achieve the desired outcomes.
10. In what part of the patient and client management model would a PT obtain a recent medical history?
Examination
Evaluation
Diagnosis
Prognosis
11. What is usually the final component of the examination a PT performs?
History
Systems review
Tests and measures
Prognosis
12. At what point in the patient and client management model would a PT design a plan of
Examination
Evaluation
Diagnosis
Prognosis
13. Which of the following is not a part of the plan of care in the patient and client management model?
Short- and long-term goals
Insurance information
Outcomes
D.Interventions
14. What is the last component of the patient and client management model?
Outcomes
Examination
Evaluation
Prognosis
15. Which of the following tests and measures are used to assess body dimensions?
Aerobic capacity
Anthropometric characteristics
Circulation
Ergonomics
16. Analysis of body alignment and positioning is assessed with what type of test or measurement?
Range of motion
Sensory integrity
Motor function
Posture
17. What type of communication will serve as a permanent record and provide a baseline for future reference?
Nonverbal communication
Oral communication
Written communication
Tactile communication
18. Which of the following is a label that categorizes the findings from the examination?
Evaluation
Examination
Diagnosis
Prognosis
19. Which of the following is not part of the diagnostic process a PT uses?
Obtaining relevant history
Performing a systems review
Administering specific tests and measures
Determining appropriate goals for the patient's condition
20. A physical therapist will conclude the episode of care when
the patient has missed two consecutive appointments.
the patient has become angry.
the distance to the patient's home is too inconvenient.
the patient is no longer able to further progress toward goals.
21. What part of the traditional SOAP note would include clinical judgment based on examination?
Subjective
Objective
Assessment
Plan
22. In order to provide services, the PTA must
be licensed or certified by the state where employed or District of Columbia.
have graduated from an accredited physical therapist assistant education program.
A and B above.
None of the above.
23. Fabrication of assistive devices by the physical therapist
is out of the scope of practice.
is used to clear airways.
may be required to prevent further impairment.
requires the assistance of a biomedical engineer.
24. Which of the following interventions is described as skilled hand techniques on soft tissues or joints?
Therapeutic exercise
Functional training
Airway clearance techniques
Manual therapy techniques
25. Most physical therapists hold which of the following as their highest earned academic degree?
Baccalaureate
Master's
Doctorate in Physical Therapy
PhD
When state and federal physical therapy statutes conflict, what would generally be the result?
State statutes will prevail.
Federal statutes will prevail.
The longer standing law will prevail.
A judge will decide the outcome.
2. Which of the following can be defined as a type of law that is enacted and established by the will of the legislative department of government?
Regulations
Law
Statutes
Policies
3. Policies enacted by private companies
are enforced by local judges.
are enforced by federal judges.
are enforced by state legislatures.
are not enforced by the public government.
4. Which federal statute requires that all health care providers who transmit patient information electronically adhere to federal guidelines as to the type of information they disclose in order to protect patient confidentiality?
Americans with Disabilities Act
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
The Social Security Amendments of 1965
The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act
5. Which federal statute provided the foundations for Medicare and Medicaid?
The Individuals with Disabilities Act
The Individuals with Disabilities Education Act
The Social Security Amendments of 1965
The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act of 2010
6. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act includes which of the following provisions?
Individuals who did not receive health insurance through their employer, and can afford it will pay a fine if they do not enroll in a health insurance program.
It will expire in 2025.
Coverage for preexisting conditions is not included.
All states must offer low-cost health insurance plans through an insurance exchange, or Health Insurance Marketplace.
7. In regard to the provision of physical therapist services, fraud most commonly involves
A. intentionally providing the insurance company with false information to obtain
payment.
the PTA portraying as the PT.
providing interventions without a physician's referral.
falsifying a prescription from a physician.
8. Which of the following is not generally found in a state practice act?
A. Definition of physical therapy practice
Reimbursement schedules
Identification of providers who legally provide therapy services
Supervisory requirements
What is the penalty for violating a particular state's practice act?
Censure by the APTA
Prosecution in a state court
Prosecution in a federal court
It varies from state to state.
10. Which of the following creates a scope of practice, authorizes the individual to practice in a given state, and legally protects the use of a professional title?
Licensure
Certification
Registration
Nomination
11. All states require what two items to apply for licensure as a PT?
Graduation from an accredited PT education program and licensure in a previous state
Graduation from an accredited PT education program and a passing score on the National Physical Therapy Examination
A passing score on the National Physical Therapy Examination and licensure in a previous state
Graduation from an accredited PT education program and a high school diploma
12. Where are PTAs licensed or certified?
Only in the District of Columbia
In all states and Canadian provinces
In all states and the District of Columbia
Licensure is not required for PTAs.
13. Which organization is responsible for writing the Model Practice Act for Physical Therapy?
The APTA
The Federation of State Boards of Physical Therapy
The US House of Representatives
The PTA Caucus
14. Which group creates regulations?
The state legislature
The federal legislature
Judges
Government agencies
15. Which federal agency is responsible for the regulation of Medicare and Medicall programs?
The Supreme Court
The House of Representatives
Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services
The federal Department of Health and Human Services
16. Which part of Medicare covers outpatient physical therapy services?
Part A
Part B
Part C
Part D
17. Which of the following is outside the scope of a state physical therapy regulatory board?
Advise the legislature to clarify the scope of practice.
Change the state's practice act.
Assist in administering state licenses.
Act as consultants by prosecutors in professional misconduct cases.
18. Why is it difficult for bills to become laws?
The process is long and complex.
Governors veto most bills.
A bill cannot become a law.
Bills must wait 2 years before becoming laws.
19. Which document is comprised of proposed and final regulations at the federal level?
Federal Register
Congressional Record
Congressional Register
Federal Record
20. Which of the following examples could be considered malpractice?
A patient falls on a slippery floor.
A plinth breaks and a patient falls.
A patient is injured from overly aggressive hamstring stretching.
An exercise bike breaks, causing a patient injury.
21. A patient is receiving physical therapy intervention in an outpatient clinic. The intervention is currently being provided by a student PTA who is being supervised by a PT. The patient is injured during intervention. Who ultimately has responsibility for the patient's care?
The student PTA
The supervising PTA
The supervising PT
The school the student attends
22. Contract law is a subset of what type of law?
Federal law
State law
Criminal law
Civil law
23. A tort is an example of an infraction of which of the following?
APTA policies
Civil law
The APTA Code of Ethics
Regulations
24. What body within the APTA would decide whether to impose sanctions against an individual accused of violating the APTA's Code of Ethics?
APTA House of Delegates
Ethics and Judicial Committee
Chapter Ethics Committee
APTA Board of Directors
25. Which document written by the APTA suggests that physical therapy providers have written policies and procedures to ensure the provision of high-quality physical therapy services?
Code of Ethics
Guide to Physical Therapy Practice
Standards of Practice for Physical Therapy
The Americans with Disabilities Act
Which of the following best describes non-communicable diseases?
A. Studies have shown that they are responsible for about 50% of the number of deaths in the US.
B. They are not preventable.
C. The flu is a non-communicable disease because it can be prevented by a vaccine.
D. None of the above.
2. Examples of health behaviors include which of the following?
A. Regular walking because the person knows it is good for your health.
B. Regular walking because the person likes to visit with neighbors along the path.
C. Smoking cessation because the person developed lung cancer.
D. All of the above.
3. Regarding nutrition:
• A. PTs should prescribe a healthy diet for any patient that is obese.
B. Nearly half of the US population is obese.
C. PTs should encourage healthy eating for their patients to screen for health problems related to their diet.
D. PTs should avoid referring patients to a dietitian because the person might change the plan of care for the patient.
4. One of the primary reasons for PTs and PTAs to address health behaviors in their patients and clients is:
A. Because it provides additional payment for services.
B. It can prevent non-communicable diseases, which have been shown to cause 50% of deaths in the US.
C. It is required for any patient or client covered by Medicare.
D. It helps to get to know the patient or client better.
5. Which of the following statements is true regarding the terms health and wellness?
A. They are synonymous.
B. Health is the state of complete physical, social, and mental well-being, whereas wellness is an individual's sense of growth and balance across the physical, spiritual, emotional, intellectual, social, and psychological domains.
C. Health is an experience or perception, whereas wellness is an outcome that can be measured.
D. Patients and clients should be referred to an exercise physiologist for a home program in to improve health and wellness.
6. In the context of physical therapy, the term exercise refers to:
A. Any bodily movement that results in energy expenditure.
B. Any movement to increase muscle strength.
C. A subset of physical activity that is planned, structured, and repetitive to improve or maintain physical fitness.
D. Movement to increase muscle strength and joint range of motion.
7. Key health behaviors that PTs and PTAs should address with their patients or clients include which of the following:
A. Physical activity and stress management.
B. Nutrition and sleep.
C. Tobacco use.
D. All of the above.
8. Current guidelines recommend that adults complete how much physical activity each week?
• A. As much as they can tolerate without getting out of breath.
B. 1 hour of moderate exercise each day.
o C. 2.5-5 hours of moderate physical activity each week.
• D. 2.5-5 hours of vigorous aerobic activity per week.
9. Regarding sleep hygiene, which of the following statements is true?
• A. Adults 18-60 years of age should get at least 7 hours of sleep per night.
B. Inadequate sleep has no relation to type 2 diabetes or heart disease.
C. Teenagers should get 6-8 hours of sleep per night.
D. Using electronic devices 30 minutes prior to bedtime improves the quality of sleep.
10. The 5 As framework-Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, and Arrange refer to which of the following?
A. Questions to ask during the initial examination.
B. Information to provide on an insurance form for payment for services.
C. Conversations with family members who will be caregivers for the patient.
D. Questions to ask the patient regarding tobacco use.
11. The positive form of stress:
A. Is long-term in nature.
B. Is known as eustress.
C. Does not exist.
D. Generally follows a negative event.
12. In the Transtheoretical Model of health behavior changes, termination refers to:
A. Weighing the pros and cons of changing, but not taking action.
B. Having tried to change the behavior and failed.
C. Having reached the maintenance level of changed behavior.
D. When an individual has changed the behavior for more than 6 months and is no longer susceptible to temptation.
13. Competence, autonomy, and relatedness are components of which theory of heaith behavior change?
A. Transtheoretical Model.
B. Self-Determination Theory.
C. Social Cognitive Theory.
D. Theory of Personal Health Change.
14. In the Social Cognitive Theory of changing behaviors:
• A. There are 5 stages of change.
3 basic psychological needs are described.
Self-efficacy is noted as the single most important prerequisite for behavior change.
behaviors.
D. PTs should refer the patient to a psychologist to apply this approach to change
15. In assessing the health and health behaviors of a patient or client, which of the following are included?
• A. Clinical measures such as blood pressure and cholesterol levels.
B. Questions that the PT can ask, such as, "Do you feel stressed"?
C. A risk profile.
D. All of the above.
16. The Perceived Wellness Survey is used for which of the following?
• A. It is used to measure the response to pain.
B. It provides feedback to the patient on how they are adapting to the physical therapy plan of care.
C. It measures 6 dimensions of wellness.
D. It measures the patient's quality of life.
17. In establishing an intervention plan for prevention, health promotion, and wellness activities and behaviors, the PT considers which of the following:
Patient goals and desires.
History of performing the health behavior.
Current social supports.
All of the above.
18. The 4 requirements for a patient to adopt a regular health behavior are:
° A. Time, place, money, and support.
B. Insurance, physician referral, proximity to hospital services, and personal motivation.
o C. Past success, weight, age, and nature of the disease.
D. Awareness, skill, motivation, and environmental support.
19. What is the goal to educate the patient about health behaviors?
A. To make them aware of health risks and improvement opportunities.
B. To be sure they can complete the physical activities accurately.
C. To let them know how long this will take.
D. To make it clear some insurance policies will not cover these services.
20. Prior to providing education, motivational support, or goal setting for the patient, the PT does which of the following?
A. Checks to ensure the insurance policy will cover the services.
B. Confirms the referral from the physician.
C. Inquires about the patient's interest in changing a health behavior.
D. Discusses the patient with the PTA.
21. Which of the following statements is true regarding health coaching?
• A. It is appropriate for PTs to incorporate this into their practices:
B. It involves a trial-and-error approach to adopting new health behaviors.
C. Goals are set by the PT exclusively to be sure they are appropriate.
D. No special training is required to provide health coaching.
22. Motivational interviewing is appropriate at which stage of the Transtheoretical Model?
• A. Preparation.
Maintenance.
Contemplation.
• D. Precontemplation.
23. In motivational interviewing, the PT:
• A. Serves as a guide rather than an expert.
Sets the long-term goals following an interview with the patient.
Is responsible for the patient's progress toward changed health behavior.
Focuses on the outcomes of not changing any health behavior to motivate the patient to change.
24. Goals to change health behaviors of the patient:
A. Should be established by the PT to ensure they are appropriate.
B. Should be both challenging and realistic.
C. Should follow the G.E.T.I.T.D.O.N.E acronym.
D. None of the above.
25. In providing motivational support for the patient to change health behaviors, the PT or
PTA should:A. Ask why the patient did not follow the PT program.
B. Focus on the positive achievements of the PT rather than what was not accomplished.
1. Which of the following conditions is an irritation of the fluid-filled sacs designed to decrease friction between structures in the body?
Tendinopathy
Nerve entrapment
Fracture
Bursitis
A) Carpenters
2. Which of the following groups of people are most likely to see a damaged patellar tendon?
Dancers
Football players
Tennis players
3. A sprain occurs when what structure is stressed?
Tendon
Ligaments
Muscle
Bone
• 4. What two joints are the most commonly replaced with arthroplasty?
Shoulder and elbow
Knee and elbow
Hip and shoulder
Knee and hip
5. The history portion of the examination falls under what part of the SOAP note?
Subjective
Objective
Assessment
Plan
6. The patient's preferred learning style is generally obtained during what portion of the SOAP note process?
Subjective
Objective
Assessment
Plan
7. Range of motion and strength measurements are what type of measurement?
Qualitative
Random
Included in the "S" portion of the SOAP note
Quantitative
8. Which of the following is the ability of the patient to voluntarily move a limb through an arc of movement?
Passive range of motion
Manual muscle testing
Active range of motion
Gait
9. Which type of tool is used to measure the range of motion at a joint?
Isokinetic dynamometer
Goniometer
Spirometer
Barometer
10. Using the 0-5 manual muscle testing grade scale, what level of strength would a muscle receive if it is able to move the body segment to the complete range of motion with gravity eliminated?
A) 0/5
B) 2/5
C) 3/5
D) 4/5
11. What is the term for the property of joints that allows the joint surfaces to glide, roll, and spin on each other, allowing increased ROM?
Accessory motion
Primary motion
Secondary motion
Available motion
12. Which of the following tests objectively measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles?
Hamstring stretch
90/90 test
100/100 test
Bending over to touch the toes from a standing position
13. Which of the following are standardized instruments that measure an individual's actual or perceived activity limitations?
Goals
Activities of daily living
Interventions
Outcome measures
14. Getting out of the bed, drinking from a cup, and putting on shoes are all examples of which of the following?
A) Outcome measures
B) Activities of daily living (ADLs)
C) Interventions
D) Special tests
15. If a therapist uses palpation to assess the patient, what is the therapist doing?
A) Assessing ADLs
B) Touching the patient
C) Taking an accurate history
D) Consulting another health care professional
16. Which of the following is a test for shoulder impingement?
A) Phalen's test
B) Lachman's test
C) Thomas test
D) Hawkins test
17. Which of the following is a false statement regarding the application of superficial heat to a client's lumbar area?
A It will decrease blood flow.
B) It will increase metabolism.
C) It will decrease pain.
D) It will decrease stiffness.
18. Short-wave diathermy is an example of what type of biophysical agent used in physical therapy?
A) Superficial heat
B) Deep heat
C) Cold
D) Electrical stimulation
19. What heating agent uses corn cobs finely chopped into a sawdust-type substance?
A) Paraffin treatment
B) Fluidotherapy
C) Hot packs
D) Short-wave diathermy
20. Which of the following is not a normal clinical indication for the use of electrical stimulation on a client?
A) Pain
B) Inflammation
C) Joint stiffness
D) Wounds
21. Which type of technique involves manual stretching of the layers of the body's tissues that surround muscle in the body?
Myofascial release
Massage
Joint mobilization
Functional training
22. A type of exercise in which the patient does not receive any support or resistance is an example of what type of exercise?
Passive range of motion
Active assistive range of motion
Active free exercises
Active resisted exercises
23. Which of the following is defined as the amount of work produced by the muscle in a given amount of time?
Muscular strength
Muscle endurance
Muscle power
Muscle repetition
24. If the goal of an exercise program is to increase endurance, then which of the following programs would accomplish this task best?
Low repetitions with heavy resistance
Low resistance with high repetitions
Explosive high-intensity muscle activity
Isokinetic programs
25. Which of the following is an example of an isotonic eccentric exercise for the biceps brachii muscle?
Pushing against a wall
Flexing the elbow with the dumbbell in the hand
Extending the elbow with the dumbbell in the hand
The down phase of a push-up
26. Why are closed kinetic chain exercises important for rehabilitation of the lower extremity?
These exercises are easier to remember in a home exercise program for the patient.
These exercises are simpler.
These exercises are safer.
The lower extremity typically functions with the foot on the ground.
1. Which of the following commonly result from traumatic brain injuries?
Physical impairments
Cognitive impairments
Emotional impairments
• D) All of the above
2. A stroke that occurs due to hemorrhage involves what process?
• A) A blood clot
An arterial bleed
Exposure to high heat ("sun stroke")
Cardiac arrest
3. Which of the following are administered post-ischemic stroke to dissolve clots?
Mouth-to-mouth resuscitation
External cardiac compressions
Oxygen
Tissue plasminogen activator (PA)
4. Which of the following is the most common cause of a spinal cord injury?
Gunshot wounds
Trauma from accidents with fireworks
Diving into a shallow pool
Motor vehicle accidents
5. What is the correct term for an individual with a spinal cord injury where only the legs are affected?
A) Paraplegic
• B) Tetraplegic
Quadriplegic
Biplegic
6. Which of the following is not a focus of physical therapy interventions following a spinal cord injury?
Use of thermal biophysical agents
Maintaining flexibility and range of motion
Strengthening unaffected muscles
Maintaining or improving cardiorespiratory capacity
7. Vigorous functional training of a spinal cord-injured client can begin when:
The client is admitted to the rehabilitation unit.
Medical and orthopedic clearance is obtained.
The client is admitted to outpatient physical therapy.
The patient's spinal fractures have healed.
8. Which of the following structures is considered part of the peripheral apparatus of the vestibular system?
• A) Semicircular canals
Vestibular nerve
Vestibular nuclei
Brain
9. Physical therapy for patients with dysfunction of the vestibular system includes which of the following?
A) Strength training of the leg muscles
B) A careful history to determine the nature, onset, and circumstances that provoke symptoms
C) A hearing test
D) A vision test
10. Which of the following is not a common symptom of a vestibular disorder?
Vertigo
Dizziness
Unsteadiness
Pain
11. Which of the following diseases is characterized by demyelination of the nervous system?
ㅇA) Stroke
Spinal cord injury
Multiple sclerosis
Alzheimer's disease
12. The disease that commonly includes remissions and exacerbations is:
A) Parkinson's disease
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D) Stroke
13. Which of the following affects both children and older adults?
A) Spinal cord injury
B) Parkinson's disease
C) Multiple sclerosis
D) Traumatic brain injury (TBI)
14. Which of the following neurological conditions usually results in the ability to walk within a year?
• A) Stroke
Parkinson's disease
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Guillain-Barré syndrome
15. Which of the following is not a classic symptom of Parkinson's disease?
A) Tremor
B) Pain
Rigidity
Bradykinesia
16. Parkinson's disease occurs when there is a deficiency of produced in a region of the brain called the
• A) Dopamine; substantia nigra
Dopamine; thalamus
Serotonin; substantia nigra
• D) Serotonin; thalamus
17. Which of the following is not a typical presentation of a patient with Parkinson's disease?
A) Decreased stride length
B) Decreased reciprocal arm movements
C) Erect posture
• D) Slow gait
18. What is the first step of the physical therapist's examination in a patient with a neurologic condition?
A) Obtain history from the patient
B) Assess the patient's gait
Palpate the affected area
Review all pertinent medical records
19. Which of the following best describes the autonomous stage of motor learning?
• 0
The motor skill is developed
The patient first learns how to perform the skill
The patient refines the learned movement
20. Which of the following intervention technic an ement for the pao ot the lesser involved
D) The family member performs the movement for the patient upper extremity?
A) Brunnstrom approach
• 0
Neurodevelopmental treatment (NDT)
Constraint-induced movement therapy (CIMT)
• D) Nerve conduction velocity (NCV)
21. With what type of communication deficit does a patient present if there is a diminished ability to receive or interpret written communication?
Expressive aphasia
Written aphasia
Receptive aphasia
Agnostic aphasia
22. Following the patient examination, the PT determines which of the following?
• A) How much to bill the patient for the treatment program
How long the rehab program will take
Whether to focus on recovery or compensatory strategies
Which lab test to order
23. Current theories of motor control include which of the following?
• A) The Brunnstrom approach
• B) Neurodevelopmental treatment (NDT).
A focus on strength and range of motion
Recognizing that the nervous system functions in integration with the other body systems
24. Neuroplasticity refers to which of the following?
How fast a nerve can conduct electrical impulses
The ability of the central nervous system to adapt and remodel
The strength of the affected muscles at the initial examination
Injecting nervous tissue from another person into the patient's spinal cord
According to the latest data, what is the number one cause of death in the United States?
a. Stroke
b. Heart failure
c. High blood pressure
d. Cardiovascular disease (CVD)
2. How does respiration differ from ventilation?
a. Respiration involves inspiration, while ventilation involves expiration.
b. They are actually the same.
c. Respiration is a metabolic process, while ventilation is a mechanical process.
d. Ventilation occurs in the heart and respiration occurs in the lungs.
3. What are the two most common chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
conditions?
a. Respiratory failure and asthma
b. Emphysema and chronic bronchitis
c. Chronic bronchitis and respiratory failure
d. Emphysema and asthma
Which quadrant of the heart receives venous blood first?
a. Left atrium
b. Right atrium
c. Left ventricle
d. Right ventricle
5. The pulmonary veins:
a. take oxygenated blood to the lungs.
b. take oxygenated blood to the heart.
c. take deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
d. take deoxygenated blood to the heart.
6. Which chamber of the heart has the highest muscle mass?
a. Left atrium
b. Right atrium
c. Right ventricle
d. Left ventricle
7. Which structure is referred to as the pacemaker of the heart?
a. Atrioventricular node
b. Sinoatrial node
c. Purkinje fibers
d. Right ventricle
8. Damage to which structure will cause a heart attack or myocardial infarction?
a. Sinoatrial node
b. Coronary arteries
c. Purkinje fibers
d. Pulmonary veins
9. Which of the following is not part of the upper conducting airway?
a. Nose
b. Pharynx
c. Larynx
d. Trachea
10. Which of the following would decrease the development of cardiovascular disease?
a. Family history of the disease
Cigarette smoking
High level of high-density lipoprotein cholesterol
Hypertension
11. If the left ventricle does not contract appropriately, as in congestive heart failure, where will an abnormal amount of blood collect?
Liver
Abdominal cavity
Lungs
Legs
12. Which of the following is a false statement regarding restrictive lung disease?
It is marked by a productive cough.
It is most commonly of unknown origin.
It can be the result of trauma to the nerve supply of the muscles of ventilation.
Cancer can cause restrictive lung disease.
13. How is the PT involved in an exercise stress test?
The PT is not involved at all. These are conducted by an exercise physiologist.
By placing the patient in a heat tank and measuring the heart rate as the temperature increases.
By checking the heart and ventilation rate before and after the patient does an exercise of their choice.
By monitoring the ECG, blood pressure, and feedback from the patient during a prescribed test on a treadmill or bicycle ergometer.
14. Which of the following is considered an invasive procedure for the cardiovascular system?
Echocardiography
Transesophageal echocardiography
Cardiac catheterization
Electrocardiogram (ECG)
15. When reading an ECG, the P wave represents which part of the heart's contraction?
Atrial depolarization
Ventricular depolarization
Atrial repolarization
Ventricular repolarization
16. Ischemic conditions of the heart are characterized by:
an embolus.
fluid back-up into legs.
angina.
a productive cough.
17. Pulmonary function tests are accomplished by which type of instrument?
CT scan
MRI
Spirometer
Sphygmomanometer
18. What is the primary focus of medical management of symptoms caused by pulmonary disease?
Decreasing rate of respirations and inflammation
Promoting bronchoconstriction and decreasing rate of respiration
Promoting bronchodilation and decreasing inflammation
Decreasing inflammation and promoting bronchoconstriction
19. Valve dysfunction in the heart most commonly occurs because of:
a. degenerative changes as a result of aging.
excessive heart attacks.
congestive heart failure.
diabetes.
20. The target heart rate for a cardiac rehabilitation program is calculated using which of the following factors?
The weight and age of the person
The blood pressure and resting heart rate of the person
The maximal and resting heart rates of the person and desired intensity
How well the person can clear the lungs
21. Which stage of cardiac rehabilitation occurs in the hospital?
Phase I
Phase Il
Phase III
Phase IV
22. Which of the following applies to the well individual?
PTs do not see the well individual.
The person must be referred by a physician before any physical therapy program can begin.
The upper limit of categorization is 65 years of age.
The PT provides strategies to prevent disease.
23. Physical therapy for a patient with a pulmonary condition involves which of the following?
Secretion removal
A coronary bypass grait
C. A CT scan
d. Ultrasound to the chest area
24. The FITT principle of exercise prescription refers to which of the following?
Forced Inspiration Timed Trials
Failure to inspire at tested times
Frontal inspection of the total test area
Frequency, intensity, time, and type
25. If a patient is in a prone position with the head lower than the feet, what lobes of the lungs are being drained with postural drainage techniques?
Both upper lobes
Left upper lobe
Right upper lobe
Both lower lobes
What is the largest organ in the body?
a) Liver
b) Lungs
C) Heart
d) Integument
2. What layer of the epidermis connects it with the dermis?
a) Stratum corneum
b) Basal cell layer
c) Merkel cell layer
d) Connective layer
3. What types of cells in the epidermis play a role in the immune response for skin?
a) Basal cells
b) Merkel cells
c) Langerhans cells
d) Melanocytes
4. Which structure is located only in the epidermis?
a) Stratum corneum
b) Hair follicle
c) Sebaceous glands
d) Apocrine glands
5. Where on the body would you find sebaceous glands?
a) Face
b) Soles of the feet
c) Palms of the hands
d) The lower lip
6. Apocrine glands are found in what two locations on the body?
a) Soles of the feet and axillary
b) Anogenital and axillary areas
c) Soles of the feet and anogenital areas
d) Elbow and knees
7. Which of the following is not a function of the dermis?
a) Temperature regulation
b) Protection
c) Sensation
d) Assists in wound healing
What is one purpose of the ground substance in the dermis?
a) Protect against infection
b) Restore the collagen at work through its "resting" arrangement
c) Act as a cushion to protect against compression forces
d) To bond to the epidermis
9. Which is not a phase of wound healing?
a) Inflammatory phase
b) Proliferative phase
c) Scar phase
d) Remodeling phase
10. What is the immediate response of the blood vessels to injury?
a) Vasoconstriction.
b) Vasodilation
c) Increased capillary permeability
d) There is no action by the blood vessels in the immediate time after a wound
11. How does a keloid scar differ from a hypertrophic scar?
a) There is no difference
b) It is found over joints
c) It is always permanent
d) It extends beyond the boundary of the wound
12. What is the chief protein produced by fibroblasts during the proliferative phase of wound healing?
a) Elastin
b) Glycosaminoglycans
c) Ground substance
d) Collagen
13. Aggressive contraction of a wound occurs during which phase of wound healing?
a) Infiammatory phase
b) Proliferative phase
c) Maturation phase
d) Remodeling phase
14. At what point of the wound healing phase can the physical therapist be the most aggressive with range of motion or exercise?
a) Inflammatory phase
b) Proliferative phase
c) Maturation phase
d) Healing phase
15. Which of the following is not generally a cause of a venous stasis ulcer?
a) Primary loss of vascular flow to the area
b) Varicose veins
c) Venous hypertension
d) Obstruction of the venous system
16. Which of the following is an area at risk for pressure ulcer development if the client stays in the seated position for an extreme amount of time?
a) Scapulae
b) Ischial tuberosities
c) Occiput
d) Maileoli
17. What type of injury occurs when the skin and subcutaneous tissue are separated from underlying tissue in the hand or foot?
a) Lacerations
b) Puncture wound
c) Pressure ulcer
d) Degloving injury
18. A neuropathic ulcer is caused by which of the following?
a) An electrical burn
b) Excessive collagen production
C) Pain
d) Loss of sensation to the area
19. Total body surface area (TBSA) is used to measure what?
a) The depth of the wound
b) The degree of scar formation
c) The percentage of the body affected by a burn
d) Pressure ulcers
20. What stage of pressure ulcer is characterized by full thickness tissue loss with exposed muscle, tendon, or bone?
Stage I
Stage Il
C) Stage Ill
d) Stage IV
21. If a client has a high Vancouver Burn Scar Scale score, what will be his or her clinical presentation?
Fully functional with no pain
Minimal scar tissue
Extensive scar tissue
Normal pigmentation
22. What type of wound should have a dressing that increases moisture at the wound site?
Arterial wound
Venous wound
Pressure wound
Avulsion injury
23. Compression therapy should be performed in an extremity with what type of wound?
Arterial wound
Neuropathic ulcer
Venous wounds
Pressure ulcer
24. A client has a full thickness burn over the foot. The physician has ordered positioning to decrease range-of-motion loss. What is the correct position for this client's foot and ankle?
Full dorsiflexion with toe extension
Ankle neutral with flexion of the toes
Full plantar flexion with full toe flexion
Neutral ankle with neutral toes
25. A comatose client is in the acute section of the hospital. The PT decides to begin a turning schedule with the patient to prevent pressure ulcers. How often should the patient be turned?
30 minutes
1 hour
2 hours
3 hours
1. When do most children begin to walk?
6-8 months
8-10 months
10-13 months
13-15 months
2. Why is it important to note normal developmental milestones in a child?
They help to determine the exact age of the child.
They indicate the expected height and weight of the child.
These may differ from the chronological age and indicate abnormal movement patterns.
To determine the amount of insurance coverage for the specific condition.
3. What entity released the International Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health that describes the impact of a person's health condition on body functions and structures, daily activities, and social participation?
АРТА
National Center for Medical Rehabilitation Research
American Medical Association
World Health Organization
4. If an individual has limitations in community recreation and employment, what is his or her classification of disablement according to the World Health Organization?
Participation restrictions
Activity limitations
Impairment of body structures and functions
Activities of daily living limitations
5. What law mandated that all children from 16 to 21 years of age are entitled to free and appropriate public education regardless of disability?
Public Law 99-457
Individuals with Disabilities Education Act
Americans with Disabilities Act
Education of All Handicapped Children Act
6. Why is play so important in pediatric physical therapy services?
It's easier to design than an exercise program.
Children learn through play.
It does not require a PT to perform the program.
It can be done at home.
7. At what age do symptoms of autism usually appear?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years
8. Which of the following conditions may accompany a child with spinal bifida?
a. Congenital muscular torticollis
b. Clubfoot
c. Scoliosis
d. Hydrocephalus
9. If a child has a right congenital muscular torticollis (CMT), what will be his or her clinical presentation?
a. Right head tilt and left rotation
b. Right head tilt and right rotation
c. Left head tilt and left rotation
d. Left head tilt and right rotation
10. Besides joint pain and inflammation, what are other symptoms of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?
a. Slow growth
b. Postural changes
c. Limping
d. All of the above
11. Which of the following statements is true regarding clubfoot in an infant?
a. The foot would be turned inward.
b. It is bilateral.
c. The knee is also affected and bowed.
d. It develops with poor posture after birth.
12. Which of the following is an inappropriate physical therapy management technique for adolescent idiopathic scoliosis?
a. Breathing and aerobic activities
b. Stretching and strengthening
c. Electrostimulation
d. Pain management
13. Which of the following is often caused by intrauterine positioning?
a. Cerebral palsy
b. Developmental hip dysplasia (DHD)
c. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
d. Spinal scoliosis
14. Besides fragile and deformed bones, what are other symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta (Ol)?
a. Shortness of breath and heart defects
b. Cognitive losses
c. Short stature and dental abnormalities
d. Visual and auditory impairments
15. At what age do boys usually show signs of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)?
a. Birth to 6 months
b. 6-18 months
c. 1-2 years
d. 2-5 years
16. Which of the following statements is true regarding fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)?
a. The cause is from the mother drinking alcohol after birth.
b. Symptoms are often lifelong and irreversible.
c. Insufficient vitamin supplements during pregnancy contribute to this condition.
d. Skeletal deformities develop after birth.
17. Which of the following involves acute withdrawal symptoms after birth?
a. Neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS)
b. Cerebral palsy
c. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
d. Down syndrome
18. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a child with Down syndrome?
a. High muscle tone
b. Unique facial features
c. Upwardly slanted eyes
d. Short stature
19. Which of the following is a true statement regarding a child diagnosed with cerebral palsy (CP)?
a. It involves an injury to the heart and lungs at birth.
b. Sensory loss leading to skin breakdown is a common problem.
c. The peripheral nerves are impacted as well as the central nervous system.
d. It is a non-progressive condition.
20. Which of the following organs is not generally involved with cystic fibrosis (CF)?
a. Liver
b. Respiratory system
c. Pancreas
d. Reproductive organs
21. What is meant by Family-centered care (FCC) as it relates to the provision of pediatric physical therapist services?
a. A physical center to house the child with medical conditions and key family members.
b. Special funding programs to pay for long-term services for children with lifelong impairments.
c. The integration of the family in the management of the child.
d. A program whereby the family determines the goals for the child.
22. Which of the following is required for a child receiving services in the school setting?
a. Individualized Family Service Plan (IFSP)
b. Individualized Education Program (IEP)
C. A SOAP note
d. Gross Motor Function Measure
23. The Individualized Family Service Plan (IFSP) is designed for children of what age?
a. Birth to 3 years
b. 4-6 years
c. 6-8 years
d. 8-10 years
24. What is a primary difference between the goals of physical therapy for an adult vs a child?
a. The length of the program is longer because of the difference in lifespan.
b. There is no difference except for the size of the individual.
c. Physical therapy for an adult focuses on rehabilitation, whereas for a child it focuses on habilitation.
d. Different funding programs define the goals.
25. How are instructional strategies modified for a child receiving physical therapist
Services?
a. Practice in the activity is limited to the sessions with the PT or PTA to ensure they are done correctly.
b. Mental imagery and metaphors are used to help the child perform the activity.
c. They are selected according to the chronological age of the child to keep up with their friends of the same age.
d. If the child can read, the therapist has them read the instructions to see if the child understands them.
1. What was the life expectancy for a 65-year-old individual in 20177
b. 76 years
c. 85 years
d. 90 years
2. Which of the following is an instrumental activity of daily living (IADL)?
a. Brushing one's teeth
b. Combing one's hair
c. Shopping
d. Buttoning pants
3. What is the preferred terminology to avoid stereotypes and ageism for individuals commonly over 65 years of age?
a. Senior citizens
b. Frail elderly
c. Well elderly
d. Older adult
4. Older adults with acute pneumonia are most likely seen in which rehabilitation setting?
a. Long-term care center
b. Skilled nursing facility
c. Hospital
d. Extended care facility
5. Which of the following is an example of an assistive device?
a. Bedside commode
b. Raised toilet seat
c. Grab bar secured to the wall in the bathroom
d. Cane
6. Which of the following is typically seen in older adults?
a. Hyperkinesis
b. Sarcopenia
c. Increase in motor neurons
d. Increase in active motor units
7. Which of the following is a false statement regarding the aging process?
a. Bone mass will decrease over time.
b. There will be a reduction in nerve conduction velocity.
c. Weight-bearing joints will degenerate.
d. Connective tissue will become more hydrated.
8. Which of the following conditions affects the retina?
a. Macular degeneration
b. Cataracts
c. Presbycusis
d. Sarcopenia
9. What group of people is most likely to be hypertensive?
a. Hispanics
b. Caucasians
c. Non-Hispanic blacks
d. American Indians
10. Which of the following is a false statement regarding mental capacity and aging?
a. Ten percent of the general population over age 65 displays dementia.
b. Twenty percent of the population over age 85 displays dementia.
c. Normal aging will lead to difficulty in retrieving newer information.
d. Cognitive function always declines significantly with advanced age.
11. Which of the following joints is not commonly affected by osteoarthritis?
a. Hands
b. Spine
c. Knees
d. Shoulders
12. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is
a. a disease of the immune system.
b. more common in African Americans.
c. caused by a deterioration of cartilage.
d. by far the most common problem for older people in the United States.
13. What is the physical therapist's primary role in osteoporosis management?
a. Increasing strength
b. Prevention of injuries
c. Education
d. Improving flexibility
14. Which of the following is a focus of physical therapy in the hospital post-op from a hip fracture?
a. Transfer skills
b. Gait training
c. Teaching weight-bearing precautions
d. All of the above
15. Which of the following is not a complication of diabetes?
a. Renal failure
b. Skin ulcerations
c. Pneumonia
d. Retinopathy
16. Review of the medical chart falls under what component of a physical therapy examination for an older person?
a. History
b. Systems review
c. Tests and measures
d. Interventions
17. What is the first part of the examination of an older adult by the physical therapist?
a. Examination of cardiopulmonary status
b. History
c. Examination of communication ability
d. Aerobic capacity and endurance
18. Which of the following is a test for static balance?
a. Unipedal Stance Test
b. Timed up and go test
c. Berg balance scale
d. Dynamic gait index
19. In testing for balance, which of the following measures how far a person can reach forward without losing balance or taking a step?
a. Unipedal Stance Test
b. Functional Reach Test
c. Romberg test
d. Gait Abnormality Rating Scale
20. Which of the following is a way to assess pain?
a. Performance Oriented Mobility Assessment
b. Timed up and go
c. Functional Status Index
d. Visual Analog Scale (VAS)
21. Besides functional improvement, what other factors should the PT consider when providing services for an older adult?
a. Side effects of medications that might impact the interventions
b. Hazards in the home environment
c. Limited equipment opportunities in the home environment
d. All of the above
22. What is an appropriate level of intensity for an exercise program for an older adult?
a. Moderate-intensity aerobic exercise activity for 30 minutes, 5 days a week
b. Muscle strengthening of 8-10 exercises with resistance that allows for 10-15 reps performed 2 or more nonconsecutive days.
c. Vigorous-intensity exercise for 20 minutes, 3 days a week
d. All of the above
23. Intervention for older adults should focus on
a. improving daily function.
b. increasing strength.
c. increasing range of motion.
d. education on the client's current conditions.
24. Why is the setting an important factor to consider in the plan of care of an older adult?
a. The cost of services provided in the home is much more expensive.
b. It is a required question on the insurance form.
c. There are limited opportunities in the home environment to use equipment that exists in the clinical setting.
d. Exposure to the sun is more problematic in the south.
25. What aspect of ethics is important to consider for older adults?
a. Their vulnerability to elder abuse
b. Whether they should remarry
c. Whether they can afford health care
d. The value of their home