pharmacy tech tech stuff (copy)

Medication storage factors — Temperature, humidity, and light affect medication stability

Why proper medication storage matters — Maintains drug integrity and effectiveness

Where to find storage requirements — Package label, package insert, or manufacturer


Room temperature range (Celsius) — 20°C to 25°C

Room temperature range (Fahrenheit) — 68°F to 77°F

Refrigerator temperature range (Celsius) — 1.7°C to 7.8°C

Refrigerator temperature range (Fahrenheit) — 35°F to 46°F

Freezer temperature — −15°C (5°F) or lower

How often pharmacy staff check temperatures — Twice daily


Formula to convert Celsius to Fahrenheit — F = (9/5 × C) + 32

Formula to convert Fahrenheit to Celsius — C = (F − 32) × 5/9


20°C in Fahrenheit — 68°F

86°F in Celsius — 30°C

25°C in Fahrenheit — 77°F

10°C in Fahrenheit — 50°F

2°C in Fahrenheit — 35.6°F

68°F in Celsius — 20°C

104°F in Celsius — 40°C

32°F in Celsius — 0°C


First step if medication is stored incorrectly — Move to proper storage immediately

Second step if medication is stored incorrectly — Assess impact on drug efficacy

Third step if medication is stored incorrectly — Notify pharmacist

Fourth step if medication is stored incorrectly — Review storage protocols with staff

Fifth step if medication is stored incorrectly — Inspect storage areas regularly


Nitroglycerin storage requirement — Must be kept in original amber bottle

Why nitroglycerin stays in original bottle — Sensitive to light and humidity


Medications that require refrigeration (examples) — Latanoprost, insulin, vaginal rings, promethazine suppositories

Antibiotic powders before reconstitution — Stored at room temperature

Antibiotic powders after reconstitution — May require refrigeration


🧠 Extra (Test-style cards)

Which medication must stay in original container? — Nitroglycerin

Why are amber bottles used? — Protect from light

Communication in pharmacy — A soft skill requiring adaptability, respect, and cultural awareness

External customers — Patients and caregivers

Internal customers — Staff and healthcare professionals


Adaptability in communication — Adjusting communication style based on the audience

How to communicate with healthcare professionals — Use medical terminology

How to communicate with patients — Use plain language and avoid complex terms

Why plain language is important — Improves understanding and patient engagement


Respect in healthcare — Treating all patients with dignity regardless of background

Examples of patient diversity — Age, race, religion, gender identity, sexual orientation, medical condition

How to show respect to patients — Active listening, empathy, involving them in decisions

Why mutual respect matters in pharmacy — Improves teamwork, work culture, and job satisfaction


Professional communication tip — Limit medical terminology when speaking to patients


Cultural sensitivity — Awareness and respect for different cultural beliefs

Why cultural sensitivity matters — Helps provide culturally competent care

When cultural sensitivity is important — Birth control, hormone therapy, emergency contraceptives

How to demonstrate cultural sensitivity — Avoid judgment and respect differences


Clinical empathy — Understanding and sharing patient feelings while staying professional

How to show clinical empathy — Active listening, acknowledging emotions, showing compassion

Why clinical empathy matters — Builds trust and improves patient satisfaction


Example of empathy in pharmacy — Listening to patient concerns and asking respectful questions

Who answers clinical questions — Pharmacist


🧠 Test-style cards

Best example of cultural awareness in pharmacy — Tailoring communication about birth control respectfully

What is NOT respectful behavior — Ignoring patient concerns or pronouns

What is unethical behavior in pharmacy communication — Dismissing patient concerns based on personal beliefs

Controlled Substances Act (CSA) — Federal law regulating controlled substances

Who enforces CSA — Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)


DEA Form 222 purpose — Used to order C-II medications

DEA Form 222 format — Triplicate paper form

Who signs DEA Form 222 — Pharmacist or power of attorney

Where copies of Form 222 go — Supplier, DEA, pharmacy

How long Form 222 is valid — 60 days

How long Form 222 must be kept — 2 years


CSOS (Controlled Substance Ordering System) — Electronic system to order C-II medications

Advantage of CSOS — Faster ordering with electronic signature


Which schedules require Form 222 — C-II only

Which schedules do NOT require Form 222 — C-III to C-V


DEA Form 41 purpose — Disposal of controlled substances

When Form 41 is used — Expired, damaged, or unused meds

How controlled substances can be disposed — Manufacturer, wholesaler, reverse distributor


DEA Form 106 purpose — Report theft or loss of controlled substances

Who is responsible for reporting theft — Pharmacist

Technician role in theft situations — Gather inventory/count information


Controlled substance inventory requirement — Every 2 years

How long inventory records must be kept — 2 years

C-II inventory requirement — Exact count required

C-III to C-V inventory requirement — May estimate


Perpetual inventory log — Ongoing record of controlled substances

Who updates perpetual inventory — Technician

Who verifies perpetual inventory — Pharmacist


C-II prescription filing requirement — Must be filed separately

C-III to C-V filing options — With non-controlled (with red “C”) or separate file


Controlled substance lending between pharmacies — Allowed under specific rules

Requirement for lending controlled substances — Both pharmacies must be DEA registered

Form used for lending controlled substances — DEA Form 222

Max amount that can be lent — 5% of annual supply


Example of 5% rule — 1,000 tablets → max 50 tablets can be lent


How to verify prescriber legitimacy — Check DEA number

What to do if prescription seems fraudulent — Notify pharmacist immediately


🧠 Test-style cards

How can C-II meds be ordered? — Electronically (CSOS) or paper (Form 222)

Can C-II meds be ordered by phone or fax? — No


🚨 HIGH-YIELD (you NEED these for your test)

  • Form 222 = Order C-II

  • Form 41 = Dispose

  • Form 106 = Theft/Loss

  • C-II = Exact count + separate file

  • Inventory = Every 2 years

  • Max transfer = 5%

INPATIENT PHARMACY & PRESCRIPTION VERIFICATION

Inpatient pharmacy — Pharmacy within a hospital or health system

Key difference in inpatient setting — DEA number not required on prescription

Why DEA number isn’t required inpatient — Hospital keeps prescriber DEA numbers on file

Do inpatient pharmacies follow CSA laws? — Yes, most laws still apply


📋 CONTROLLED SUBSTANCE PRESCRIPTION REQUIREMENTS

Basic prescription components — Drug name, strength, dosage form, route, directions, quantity

Additional CSA-required components — Patient info, prescriber info, DEA number, date, refills, signature


Patient information required — Full name and full street address

Prescriber information required — Name, address, phone number, DEA number

Exception (inpatient) — DEA number not required on prescription


Prescription must include date — Date issued by prescriber

Prescription must include refills — Number of refills authorized

Prescription must include signature — Prescriber’s signature


🚨 FRAUD & PRESCRIPTION SAFETY

Why controlled substance prescriptions are high risk — High abuse potential

Examples of fraudulent prescriptions —

  • Stolen prescription pads

  • Fake prescriber names

  • Invalid DEA numbers

  • Altered phone numbers


First step if prescription seems fraudulent — Notify pharmacist immediately

Technician’s role in verification — Check required components before processing


🧠 TEST-STYLE CARDS

What is NOT required on inpatient controlled prescriptions? — DEA number

What should you do if a prescription looks altered or fake? — Tell the pharmacist

Who is on the front line for receiving prescriptions? — Pharmacy technician


🚨 HIGH-YIELD (MEMORIZE THIS)

  • Inpatient = No DEA number on Rx

  • Always check:

    • Patient info

    • Prescriber info

    • Date

    • Refills

    • Signature

  • Suspicious Rx = STOP + tell pharmacist immediately

MEDICATION INDICATIONS (Quizlet Set)

Medication indication — The disease or condition a drug is approved to treat

Labeled indication — FDA-approved use of a medication

Off-label use — Using a medication for a condition not FDA-approved

Is off-label use allowed? — Yes, if prescriber believes it benefits patient

Who approves medication indications — FDA


💊 COMMON MEDICATIONS (HIGH-YIELD)

Haloperidol (Haldol) — Schizophrenia

Insulin glargine (Lantus, Toujeo) — Type 1 & Type 2 diabetes

Levothyroxine (Synthroid) — Hypothyroidism

Hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) — Hypertension, edema

Lithium (Lithobid) — Bipolar disorder

Lorazepam (Ativan) — Anxiety

Metformin (Glucophage) — Type 2 diabetes

Memantine (Namenda) — Alzheimer’s disease

Methylphenidate (Ritalin) — ADHD, narcolepsy

Montelukast (Singulair) — Asthma, allergies

Ondansetron (Zofran) — Nausea, vomiting


Omeprazole (Prilosec) — GERD, ulcers

Pioglitazone (Actos) — Type 2 diabetes

Pregabalin (Lyrica) — Nerve pain, fibromyalgia

Quetiapine (Seroquel) — Bipolar, schizophrenia, depression

Metoprolol (Lopressor) — Hypertension, angina

Rosuvastatin (Crestor) — High cholesterol

Sertraline (Zoloft) — Depression, anxiety disorders

Sildenafil (Viagra) — Erectile dysfunction, pulmonary HTN

Bactrim (SMX/TMP) — Bacterial infections

Tamsulosin (Flomax) — BPH (prostate)


Tramadol (Ultram) — Pain

Valsartan (Diovan) — Hypertension, heart failure

Acyclovir (Zovirax) — Herpes infections

Hydrocodone/APAP (Norco) — Pain

Allopurinol (Zyloprim) — Gout

Alprazolam (Xanax) — Anxiety

Amitriptyline (Elavil) — Depression

Amlodipine (Norvasc) — Hypertension

Amoxicillin (Amoxil) — Bacterial infections

Aripiprazole (Abilify) — Bipolar, schizophrenia


Atorvastatin (Lipitor) — High cholesterol

Azithromycin (Zithromax) — Bacterial infections

Lisinopril (Zestril) — Hypertension, heart failure

Bupropion (Wellbutrin) — Depression, smoking cessation

Cephalexin (Keflex) — Bacterial infections

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) — Bacterial infections

Citalopram (Celexa) — Depression

Albuterol (ProAir) — Asthma

Clopidogrel (Plavix) — Stroke, heart attack prevention


Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) — Muscle spasms

Diazepam (Valium) — Anxiety, seizures

Donepezil (Aricept) — Alzheimer’s

Duloxetine (Cymbalta) — Depression, nerve pain

Enoxaparin (Lovenox) — Blood clots (DVT)

Escitalopram (Lexapro) — Depression, anxiety

Eszopiclone (Lunesta) — Insomnia

Advair (fluticasone/salmeterol) — Asthma, COPD


🧠 HIGH-YIELD MATCHES (EXAM FAVORITES)

Tamsulosin (Flomax) — BPH

Enoxaparin (Lovenox) — DVT

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) — Muscle spasm

Lisinopril (Zestril) — Hypertension

Rosuvastatin (Crestor) — Hyperlipidemia


🧬 BIOSIMILARS (TESTABLE)

Biosimilar — Similar version of a biologic drug

Interchangeable biosimilar — Can be substituted without new prescription

Key rule — Only interchangeable biosimilars can be substituted

Purple Book — Lists biologics, biosimilars, and interchangeability


🚨 HIGH-YIELD (YOU NEED THIS FOR YOUR SCORE)

Focus on:

  • Diabetes → Metformin, Insulin

  • BP → Lisinopril, Amlodipine

  • Cholesterol → Atorvastatin, Rosuvastatin

  • Mental health → Sertraline, Xanax

  • Pain → Tramadol, Norco

  • Infections → Amoxicillin, Azithromycin

BEHIND-THE-COUNTER (BTC) MEDICATIONS

Behind-the-counter (BTC) medications — OTC drugs kept behind the pharmacy counter due to legal restrictions

Why BTC medications are restricted — Potential for misuse or safety concerns

Examples of BTC categories — Pseudoephedrine products, codeine cough meds, insulin


Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) — Nasal and sinus congestion

Fexofenadine + pseudoephedrine (Allegra-D) — Seasonal allergies

Loratadine + pseudoephedrine (Claritin-D) — Cold and allergy symptoms


Codeine + guaifenesin (Cheratussin AC) — Cough

Codeine + promethazine — Cough


Insulin regular (Humulin R) — Diabetes

Insulin isophane NPH (Novolin N) — Diabetes

Insulin 70/30 (Humulin 70/30) — Diabetes


🧠 TEST-STYLE CARDS

Which BTC medications treat diabetes? — Insulin (Humulin R, Novolin N, 70/30)

Which ingredient makes products BTC for congestion meds? — Pseudoephedrine

Are all insulin products BTC? — No

What type of drug is insulin glargine-yfgn? — Prescription (legend drug)

Why is insulin glargine NOT BTC? — It is a biologic


🚨 HIGH-YIELD (EXAM FOCUS)

  • BTC = Behind the counter, NOT fully OTC

  • Pseudoephedrine = BTC (big test topic)

  • Insulin (some types) = BTC

  • Biologics = ALWAYS prescription

📚 MEDICATION CLASSIFICATIONS (Quizlet Set)

Medication classification — Grouping drugs by action, use, or body system

Why classifications matter — Helps understand drug effects, uses, and patient impact


CLASSIFICATION TYPES

Classification by mechanism of action — How the drug works in the body

Classification by therapeutic indication — What condition the drug treats

Classification by body system — Which system the drug affects


💡 EXAMPLES OF CLASSIFICATION

Metoprolol classification (mechanism) — Beta-blocker

Metoprolol classification (use) — Antihypertensive

Metoprolol body system — Cardiovascular


IMPORTANT CONCEPTS

Therapeutic equivalence — Drugs have same effect, safety, and bioavailability

Are same-class drugs always interchangeable? — No

Reference for therapeutic equivalence — Orange Book


🔟 TOP 10 PRESCRIBED DRUGS (HIGH-YIELD)

Lisinopril (Zestril) — ACE inhibitor, BP

Levothyroxine (Synthroid) — Thyroid hormone

Atorvastatin (Lipitor) — Statin, cholesterol

Metformin (Glucophage) — Diabetes

Simvastatin (Zocor) — Statin

Omeprazole (Prilosec) — Proton pump inhibitor (acid reducer)

Amlodipine (Norvasc) — Calcium channel blocker

Metoprolol (Lopressor) — Beta-blocker

Hydrocodone/APAP (Norco) — Opioid pain reliever

Albuterol (ProAir) — Bronchodilator


🧪 CLASSIFICATIONS BY ACTION (EXAMPLES)

ACE inhibitor — BP (Captopril)

Beta-blocker — Lowers heart rate/BP (Metoprolol)

Statin — Lowers cholesterol (Simvastatin)

SSRI — Antidepressant (Fluoxetine)

Benzodiazepine — Anxiety (Clonazepam)

Macrolide — Antibiotic (Azithromycin)

Cephalosporin — Antibiotic (Cephalexin)

Proton pump inhibitor (PPI) — Acid reducer (Pantoprazole)

H2 blocker — Acid reducer (Famotidine)

Beta-2 agonist — Bronchodilator (Albuterol)


🧍 CLASSIFICATIONS BY BODY SYSTEM

Cardiovascular system — Heart/blood vessels (Digoxin)

Endocrine system — Hormones (Insulin)

Gastrointestinal system — Stomach/intestines (Sucralfate)

Hematologic system — Blood (Enoxaparin)

Immune system — Immune response (Oseltamivir)

Nervous system — Brain/spinal cord (Donepezil)

Musculoskeletal system — Bones/muscles (Indomethacin)

Urinary system — Kidneys/bladder (Tamsulosin)

Respiratory system — Lungs (Salmeterol)

Reproductive system — Hormonal organs (Leuprolide)


🧬 BIOLOGICS & BIOSIMILARS

Biologic drug — Made from living organisms

Example biologic — Insulin glargine

Biosimilar — Similar version of a biologic

Reference product — Original biologic

Naming of biosimilars — Ends with 4 random letters


Interchangeable biosimilar — Can be substituted without new prescription

Where to check biosimilars — Purple Book

Key rule — Must be interchangeable AND allowed by state law


🧠 TEST-STYLE CARDS

Is insulin glargine OTC or prescription? — Prescription

What body system does insulin affect? — Endocrine

What is insulin’s therapeutic use? — Antidiabetic


🚨 HIGH-YIELD (EXAM BOOST)

Focus on:

  • BP meds → ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, CCBs

  • Cholesterol meds → Statins

  • Mental health meds → SSRIs, benzos

  • Asthma meds → Beta-2 agonists

  • Acid meds → PPIs + H2 blockers

📚 SIDE EFFECTS & ADVERSE REACTIONS

Side effect — Unintended, expected effect at normal dose

Can side effects be positive? — Yes

Example of positive side effect — Sildenafil helping erectile dysfunction


Adverse reaction — Undesirable, harmful, often more severe effect

Severity of adverse reactions — Can be dangerous or life-threatening

Example of adverse reaction — Severe allergic reaction to sulfa drugs


Do side effects and adverse reactions occur at normal doses? — Yes

Key difference (side effect vs adverse reaction) — Side effects = expected; adverse reactions = harmful


How to decide if medication should continue — Weigh benefit vs harm

When medication may continue — If side effects are mild and benefits outweigh risks


💊 COMMON MEDICATIONS (SIDE EFFECTS vs ADVERSE REACTIONS)

Acetaminophen (Tylenol) — Rash → Hepatotoxicity (liver damage)

Baclofen (Lioresal) — Drowsiness, nausea → CNS/withdrawal effects

Clindamycin (Cleocin) — Nausea → C. difficile infection

Diclofenac (Lofena) — Edema, nausea → None listed


Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) — Rash, fatigue → Heart, retinal, neuro effects

Lisinopril (Zestril) — Dizziness, hypotension → Kidney injury, angioedema

Morphine (Duramorph) — Nausea, rash → Respiratory depression, constipation

Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) — Headache, dizziness → None listed


Phenytoin (Dilantin) — Rash, nausea → Blood disorders, liver toxicity

Amlodipine (Norvasc) — Nausea, fatigue → Peripheral edema


🧠 TEST-STYLE MATCHES (VERY IMPORTANT)

Acetaminophen → Hepatotoxicity

Clindamycin → C. difficile infection

Lisinopril → Acute kidney injury

Phenytoin → Blood dyscrasias

Amlodipine → Peripheral edema


🚨 HIGH-YIELD (MEMORIZE THESE)

  • Tylenol → Liver damage

  • Clindamycin → C. diff

  • Lisinopril → Angioedema + kidney issues

  • Morphine → Respiratory depression

  • Amlodipine → Edema (swelling)


QUICK MEMORY TRICKS

  • “C for Clinda → C. diff”

  • “Tylenol → Toxic liver”

  • “ACE (lisinopril) → Angioedema”

  • “Morphine → breathing slows”

📚 CONTRAINDICATIONS & INTERACTIONS

Contraindication — Situation where a medication should NOT be used due to risk

Medication interaction — When drugs/food affect how a medication works


TYPES OF CONTRAINDICATIONS

Relative contraindication — Use with caution (risk is higher but possible)

Absolute contraindication — NEVER use under any circumstances


💡 EXAMPLES (HIGH-YIELD)

Aspirin + warfarin — Relative contraindication (↑ bleeding risk)

Simvastatin + diltiazem (high dose) — Absolute contraindication

Isotretinoin + pregnancy — Absolute contraindication 🚨

Pseudoephedrine + hypertension — Relative contraindication


👩‍⚕ TECHNICIAN ROLE

What to do with interaction alerts — Notify pharmacist

When pharmacist review is critical — New prescriptions or multiple meds


TYPES OF MEDICATION INTERACTIONS

1. Absorption

Absorption interaction — Affects how drug is absorbed (GI tract)

Example — Omeprazole ↓ absorption of posaconazole


2. Distribution

Distribution interaction — Changes protein binding in blood

Example — Valproic acid ↑ warfarin levels → ↑ bleeding


3. Metabolism

Metabolism interaction — Alters liver enzyme activity

Example — Amiodarone ↑ warfarin levels → ↑ INR


4. Excretion

Excretion interaction — Affects kidney elimination

Example — Aspirin ↓ excretion of methotrexate → toxicity


5. Pharmacodynamic

Pharmacodynamic interaction — Drugs have similar effects

Example — Opioids + benzodiazepines → respiratory depression 🚨


🧠 KEY TERMS

Metabolite — Byproduct after drug is processed by body


🧠 TEST-STYLE CARDS

Which interactions affect kidney elimination? — Excretion

Which interactions involve liver enzymes? — Metabolism

Which interactions involve protein binding? — Distribution

Which interactions occur in GI tract? — Absorption


🚨 HIGH-YIELD (MEMORIZE THIS)

  • Opioids + benzos = breathing stops (BIG TEST ONE)

  • Warfarin = lots of interactions (bleeding risk)

  • Isotretinoin = NEVER in pregnancy

  • Methotrexate + aspirin = toxicity

  • Simvastatin + diltiazem = NO


QUICK MEMORY TRICK

ADME = interactions

  • A → Absorption (gut)

  • D → Distribution (blood/proteins)

  • M → Metabolism (liver)

  • E → Excretion (kidneys)

 PRESCRIPTION FULFILLMENT & OBRA (Quizlet Set)


👩‍⚕ PRESCRIBERS & AUTHORITY

Prescriptive authority — Legal ability to write prescriptions

Who can prescribe (examples) — Physicians, dentists, NPs, PAs, optometrists

Are prescriber rules the same everywhere? — No (state-specific)

What to do if prescriber seems inappropriate — Check with pharmacist


📋 PRESCRIPTION COMPONENTS (HIGH-YIELD)

Required prescriber info — Name, address, phone

When is DEA number required? — Controlled substances only


Required patient info — Name, address, DOB

Required prescription details —

  • Drug name

  • Strength

  • Dosage form

  • Route

  • Dose

  • Quantity

  • Refills


Sig (Signa) — Directions for patient use

Prescription must include — Prescriber signature + date


🚨 FRAUD RED FLAGS

Suspicious prescription signs —

  • Multiple ink colors

  • Very neat handwriting

  • Large quantities (over 30-day supply)

  • Unusual formatting


ABBREVIATIONS (SAFETY)

“Do Not Use” abbreviation lists come from —

  • The Joint Commission

  • ISMP

Examples of unsafe abbreviations —

  • HS (confusing)

  • D/C (discontinue or discharge)

  • TIW (unclear frequency)


FIVE RIGHTS OF MEDICATION

Core Five Rights —

  • Right patient

  • Right drug

  • Right dose

  • Right route

  • Right time


Additional Rights —

  • Right technique

  • Right documentation


🏛 OBRA (VERY IMPORTANT)

OBRA (1990) — Federal law for pharmacy practice

What OBRA requires —

  • Patient profiles

  • Drug utilization review (DUR)

  • Offer counseling


Who can counsel patients? — Pharmacist ONLY

Technician role under OBRA —

  • Gather patient info

  • Assist workflow

  • Refer questions to pharmacist


🔍 DRUG UTILIZATION REVIEW (DUR)

DUR definition — Review of prescribing, dispensing, and patient use

What DUR checks —

  • Interactions

  • Allergies

  • Duplicate therapy

  • Dosing


🏥 INPATIENT FULFILLMENT

Inpatient prescriptions — Called medication orders

Where orders are entered — Computer system (CPOE)

Extra inpatient info — Room number, hospital ID


Formulary — List of meds hospital keeps

Automatic substitution — Switching to formulary drug


🔁 REFILL REVIEW (QUICK RECAP)

Non-controlled Rx validity — 12 months

Early refill rule — ~75% used before insurance pays


🧠 TEST-STYLE CARDS

Who regulates prescribers? — State boards

Who can counsel patients? — Pharmacist

What law requires patient profiles? — OBRA

What checks interactions/allergies? — DUR

Are DEA numbers needed for all prescriptions? — No (only controlled)


🚨 FINAL HIGH-YIELD (MEMORIZE)

  • OBRA = profiles + counseling + DUR

  • Only pharmacist = counseling

  • DEA = controlled only

  • Five Rights = core safety

  • ISMP + Joint Commission = abbreviation safety

📚 PATIENT GUIDANCE & LABELING (Quizlet Set)


📄 PATIENT EDUCATION MATERIALS

Medication Guide — FDA-required handout for high-risk meds

When medication guides are required —

  • Prevent serious adverse events

  • Inform patient decisions

  • Ensure proper use


Common meds needing guides —

  • NSAIDs

  • Antidepressants

  • ADHD meds

  • Insomnia meds

  • Isotretinoin


Patient Package Insert (PPI) — Detailed manufacturer info about medication

PPI includes — Use, side effects, dosing, storage, warnings


Consumer Information Sheet — General patient-friendly medication info


🏷 PRESCRIPTION LABEL REQUIREMENTS

Must include —

  • Pharmacy name/address/phone

  • Rx number

  • Patient name

  • Prescriber name

  • Drug name/strength/form

  • Directions

  • Refills

  • Expiration date

  • Federal legend


Federal legend — “Caution: Federal law prohibits transfer…”


💊 PACKAGING & DISPENSING

Amber vials purpose — Protect from light

Counting tray cleaning — Use isopropyl alcohol

When to clean tray — After penicillin or sulfa drugs


Childproof packaging law — Poison Prevention Packaging Act

Are blister packs childproof? — No


🏥 TYPES OF PACKAGING

Prescription vials — Tablets/capsules

Ointment jars — Creams/ointments

Dropper bottles — Liquids (eyes/ears)

Blister packs (punch cards) — Unit doses


🧾 UNIT DOSE & REPACKAGING

Unit-dose system — Single-dose packaging (hospitals)

Punch cards — Used for long-term care patients


Repackaging requirements —

  • Product identification

  • Environmental protection

  • Proper handling

  • Usability


🔐 REMS & ETASU (VERY HIGH-YIELD)

REMS — FDA safety program for high-risk drugs

Purpose of REMS — Ensure benefits outweigh risks


ETASU — Required safety actions before dispensing

Examples of REMS requirements —

  • Lab monitoring

  • Pregnancy tests

  • Registration


💊 MED TYPES

Legend drug — Prescription only

OTC drug — No prescription needed

BTC drug — Behind-the-counter


🔢 NDC (CRITICAL)

NDC definition — Unique drug identifier

3 parts of NDC —

  1. Manufacturer

  2. Drug/strength/form

  3. Package size


NDC importance — Prevents medication errors

Barcode rule — Must match label and stock bottle


🚨 MEDICATION SAFETY

How to prevent errors —

  • Match NDC

  • Use barcode scanning

  • Double-check meds


Look-alike/sound-alike drugs — Major error risk


FORGERY RED FLAGS

  • Different ink colors

  • Messy vs neat handwriting

  • Large quantities

  • Photocopied Rx


If suspicious Rx — Notify pharmacist


🧮 CALCULATIONS (MUST KNOW)


Quantity Formula

Quantity = dose × frequency × days


Days Supply

Days supply = quantity ÷ daily dose


tsp to mL

1 tsp = 5 mL


BSA Dosing

Dose = mg/m² × BSA


💧 DILUTION FORMULA

SV × SP = DV × DP

Diluent needed = DV – SV


RATIO

Ratio — Relationship between two values (mg/mL)


💰 BUSINESS CALCULATIONS

Gross profit — Selling price − cost

Markup % — (Profit ÷ cost) × 100


🧠 TEST-STYLE CARDS

What law requires childproof containers? — Poison Prevention Packaging Act

What ensures high-risk drug safety? — REMS

What must match when filling meds? — NDC/barcode

Who can counsel patients? — Pharmacist

What is 1 tsp in mL? — 5 mL


🚨 FINAL HIGH-YIELD (MEMORIZE THIS)

  • REMS = high-risk drug safety

  • NDC = drug identity

  • 1 tsp = 5 mL

  • Qty = dose × freq × days

  • OBRA = counseling + profiles

  • Fraud = weird prescriptions

Nonsterile Compounding

USP <795> — Standard that regulates nonsterile compounding 

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What USP <795> covers — Compounding area design, cleaning, training, hygiene, garbing, beyond-use dates, and documentation 

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Gloves in nonsterile compounding — Required 

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Why nonsterile compounding still requires cleanliness — Products are not sterile, but contamination must still be minimized 

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Compounding area location — Away from routine dispensing, counseling, and high-traffic areas 

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How often nonsterile compounding area is cleaned — Daily and after each use 

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Scale must be tared — Before use to ensure accurate weighing 

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Nonsterile Compounding Equipment

Class A balance — Weighs smaller amounts 

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Electronic balance — Weighs larger amounts 

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Brass weights — Used to calibrate balances and should not be touched with ungloved hands 

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Spatula — Used to mix or transfer ingredients 

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Weighing paper/boat — Holds ingredients and protects balance surface 

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Mortar — Bowl/container used for mixing or grinding 

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Pestle — Tool used to grind or mix in mortar 

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Ointment slab — Glass surface used for mixing powders, liquids, and creams 

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Hot plate — Used to heat or melt ingredients 

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Most accurate graduated cylinder — Cylindrical graduated cylinder 

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How to read liquid level — At the bottom of the meniscus 

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Syringe purpose in compounding — Transfers liquid ingredients 

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Molds — Shape troches, suppositories, and tablets 

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📚 SIG CODES & ABBREVIATIONS

Routes of Administration

PO — By mouth/orally 

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IV — Intravenous 

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TOP — Topically 

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VAG — Vaginally 

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EN — Each nostril 

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UD / UT — As directed 

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Dosage Forms

CAP — Capsule 

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TAB — Tablet 

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LIQ — Liquid 

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SUSP — Suspension 

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SUPP — Suppository 

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UNG / OINT — Ointment 

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SOL — Solution 

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SYR — Syrup 

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LOT — Lotion 

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Frequency Abbreviations

BID — Twice daily 

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Q4H — Every 4 hours 

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Q6H — Every 6 hours 

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QHS — Every night at bedtime 

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PC, HS — After meals and at bedtime 

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AM — Morning 

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PM — Afternoon/evening 

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ASAP — As soon as possible 

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STAT — Immediately/at once 

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W/ — With 

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W/O — Without 

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Abbreviations to Avoid

U — Avoid; may be misread as 0, 4, or cc 

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IU — Avoid; may be misread as IV or 10 

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QD — Avoid; may be misread as QID or QOD 

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QOD — Avoid; may be misread as QD or QID 

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Trailing zero — Avoid because decimal point may be missed 

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No leading zero — Avoid because decimal point may be missed 

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📚 ELECTRONIC ALERTS & SAFETY

Computer system checks for — Allergies, interactions, duplicate therapies, contraindications, early refills, and over/underuse 

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Who handles simple alerts like refill too soon — Technician may handle 

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Who must handle DUR/DDI/allergy alerts — Pharmacist 

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DUR alert — Review for dosage problems, age issues, sex contraindications, or utilization problems 

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PMP — State-run program tracking controlled substance prescribing and dispensing 

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Pre-adjudication alerts — Problems found before claim is processed 

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Examples of pre-adjudication alerts — Invalid NDC, incorrect package size, missing days’ supply, invalid prescriber 

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Post-adjudication alerts — Messages after claim is processed by insurance 

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📚 DISPENSING & DAW CODES

First step in dispensing process — Create or update patient profile 

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Use how many identifiers to choose correct patient — At least two identifiers 

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Examples of patient identifiers — DOB, middle initial, address, patient number 

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DAW codes — Codes indicating substitution or brand/generic selection status 

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DAW 0 — No product selection indicated; generic allowed 

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DAW 1 — Substitution not allowed by prescriber 

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DAW 2 — Patient requested brand 

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DAW 3 — Pharmacist selected brand/product dispensed 

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DAW 4 — Generic not in stock 

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AB rating — FDA rating showing generic is therapeutically equivalent and substitutable 

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📚 MEDICATION SAFETY & QUALITY ASSURANCE

Medication error — Preventable event that may cause inappropriate medication use or patient harm 

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Just culture — Safety culture focused on learning and system improvement, not automatic blame 

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Human error — Unintentional failure; not a behavioral choice 

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At-risk behavior — Unsafe choice made because risk seems insignificant or justified 

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Reckless behavior — Conscious disregard of substantial risk 

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Two patient identifiers — Standard safety practice when receiving and dispensing prescriptions 

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Document patient weights in — Kilograms, not pounds 

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Never do with unclear prescription — Never make assumptions; clarify with pharmacist/prescriber 

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Controlled substances counting best practice — Count at least twice 

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🚨 HIGH-YIELD CARDS

USP standard for nonsterile compounding — USP <795> 

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Most accurate graduated cylinder — Cylindrical 

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1 tsp — 5 mL

QHS — Every night at bedtime 

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TOP — Topically 

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QD / QOD / U — Abbreviations to avoid 

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DAW 0 — Generic allowed 

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DAW 1 — Brand medically required by prescriber 

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Use two identifiers — Prevents wrong-patient errors 

Payment & Insurance

Tiered copays — Different copay amounts based on a drug’s insurance tier 

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Tier 1 medications — Usually generics and lowest cost to patient 

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Coordination of benefits (COB) — Ensures insurance claims are not paid more than once 

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Primary insurance — Insurance billed first 

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Medicaid rule — Medicaid is payer of last resort 

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Adjudication — Electronic processing of a claim to insurance for approval/payment 

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Carrier/insurer — Insurance company 

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Processor — Company hired to process claims 

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Claim — Request for reimbursement sent to insurer 

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Copay/coinsurance — Patient’s share of the cost 

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Deductible — Amount patient pays before insurance starts covering costs 

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Days’ supply — Number of days the dispensed medication should last 

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If a $100 claim returns a $100 patient pay in February — Most likely deductible has not been met yet 

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If claim says “Product/Service Not Covered. Xarelto preferred.” — Contact prescriber/pharmacist to request covered alternative 

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Refills & On-Hold Prescriptions

On-hold prescription — Prescription entered in profile but not yet filled 

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Auto-fill — Automatic refill service for ongoing medications 

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First refill check — Make sure refills are still available 

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If no refills remain — Prescriber must authorize refills or send new prescription 

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When a new prescription is required instead of refill authorization — When directions/change to therapy are different from original prescription 

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Prescription Validity

Non-controlled prescription validity — Usually valid for 1 year 

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C-III to C-V validity — Usually valid for 6 months and up to 5 refills 

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C-II refill rule — No refills; new written prescription needed each time 

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Early, Emergency, and Partial Refills

Most insurance plans allow refill how early? — Up to 7 days early 

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Refill-too-soon message — Insurance denial when refill is requested too early 

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Problem queue — Where prescriptions with processing issues go instead of filling queue 

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Why a patient may need an early refill — Travel, lost meds, or taking medication differently than prescribed 

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Emergency refill — Short-term supply pharmacist may provide until refill authorization is received 

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Typical emergency refill amount — Usually 2 to 3 days of medication 

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Partial fill — Pharmacy dispenses only part of prescription due to limited stock 

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Typical partial fill amount — Usually 3- to 5-day supply 

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If C-II is partially filled because stock is short — Remaining amount is void; patient needs new prescription for the rest 

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Dispensing Process

First step in dispensing — Create or update patient profile 

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How many identifiers should be used to select correct patient — Two identifiers 

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Examples of identifiers — DOB, middle initial, address, patient number 

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Patient profile should include updated — Demographics, allergies, meds, medical conditions, insurance 

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Prescription Input Steps

Step 1 — Enter date prescription was written 

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Step 2 — Enter NDC or medication name/strength and select correct product 

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Step 3 — Select correct DAW code 

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Step 4 — Enter quantity ordered 

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Step 5 — Enter number of refills 

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Step 6 — Enter directions for use 

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Step 7 — Select correct prescriber and address 

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Step 8 — Enter correct days’ supply 

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Step 9 — Enter method of receipt (e-script, fax, written, phone, transfer, etc.) 

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Step 10 — Select billing option 

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Step 11 — Process the entry 

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DAW Codes

DAW — Dispense as written code used for substitution decisions 

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DAW 0 — No product selection indicated; generic allowed 

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DAW 1 — Substitution not allowed by prescriber 

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DAW 2 — Patient requested brand product 

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DAW 3 — Pharmacist selected product dispensed 

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DAW 4 — Generic not in stock 

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DAW 5 — Brand dispensed as generic 

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DAW 6 — Override 

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DAW 7 — Brand mandated by law 

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DAW 8 — Generic not available in marketplace 

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DAW 9 — Other 

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Most common DAW code — DAW 0 

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AB rating — FDA rating showing generic is therapeutically equivalent and substitutable 

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If prescriber wants brand only — Use DAW 1 

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If patient wants brand — Use DAW 2 

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Correct DAW for John Q. Smith’s ciprofloxacin transfer — DAW 0 

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High-yield cards

Non-controlled Rx valid for — 1 year 

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C-III to C-V refills — Up to 5 refills in 6 months 

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C-II refills — None 

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Most insurers allow refill this many days early — 7 days 

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Medicaid billing order — Bill last 

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DAW 0 — Generic allowed 

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DAW 1 — Brand required by prescriber 

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DAW 2 — Brand requested by patient 

Core Concepts

Q: What does the Drug Enforcement Administration require under the Controlled Substances Act (CSA)?
A: Anyone who manufactures, distributes, prescribes, researches, imports, exports, or dispenses controlled substances must register with the DEA.


Q: What is a DEA registration number?
A: A unique identifier issued to prescribers, pharmacies, and manufacturers handling controlled substances.


Q: What must accompany all prescriptions for controlled substances?
A: A valid DEA registration number.


Q: What should a pharmacy technician verify when receiving a controlled substance prescription?
A: That the prescriber’s DEA number is valid.


DEA Number Structure

Q: How many characters are in a DEA number?
A: Two letters + seven digits (total of 9 characters).


Q: What does the first letter of a DEA number represent?
A: The type of registrant (e.g., A, B, F, M, X).


Q: What does the second letter of a DEA number represent?
A: The first letter of the registrant’s last name (with some exceptions).


Q: What is the check digit in a DEA number?
A: The last digit, used to verify validity via a math calculation.


DEA Number Validation Steps

Q: What is the first step in validating a DEA number?
A: Add the 1st, 3rd, and 5th digits.


Q: What is the second step in validating a DEA number?
A: Add the 2nd, 4th, and 6th digits and multiply the sum by 2.


Q: What is the third step in DEA validation?
A: Add the results from steps 1 and 2.


Q: What is the final step in DEA validation?
A: Confirm the last digit of the total matches the DEA number’s last digit.


Example / Application

Q: DEA number: AS4967432 — What is the sum of the 1st, 3rd, and 5th digits?
A: 4 + 6 + 4 = 14


Q: DEA number: AS4967432 — What is the result of doubling the sum of the 2nd, 4th, and 6th digits?
A: (9 + 7 + 3 = 19) → 19 × 2 = 38


Q: DEA number: AS4967432 — What is the final sum used for validation?
A: 14 + 38 = 52


Q: DEA number: AS4967432 — Is it valid? Why?
A: Yes, because the last digit (2) matches the last digit of the total (52).


Extra Details / Edge Cases

Q: Can the second letter of a DEA number ever not match the prescriber’s last name?
A: Yes, for example if the prescriber changes their last name but keeps the original DEA number.


Q: Who must obtain a DEA registration number besides prescribers?
A: Pharmacies and manufacturers that handle controlled substances.

Manufacturer Packaging (FDA Requirements)

Q: What agency regulates prescription medication packaging labels?
A: The Food and Drug Administration


Q: What are prescription medications also called?
A: Legend drugs


Q: What must appear on manufacturer prescription labels regarding active ingredients?
A: Established (generic) name and quantity of each active ingredient


Q: When can a brand name be used on manufacturer labels?
A: When the drug is still under patent


Q: What is the “federal legend”?
A: “Rx only” or “Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription”


Q: What must be included about dosing on manufacturer labels?
A: Statement of usual dosage


Q: What information is provided about administration?
A: Route of administration


Q: When must inactive ingredients be listed?
A: When the route is not oral


Q: What is a lot number?
A: A number identifying a specific batch of medication


Q: What is the purpose of an expiration date?
A: Indicates last date drug is guaranteed safe and effective


Q: What must be included about the manufacturer?
A: Name and place of business


Q: What special marking appears on controlled substances?
A: “C” + Roman numeral schedule (e.g., C-II)


Q: What must labels include about storage?
A: Storage requirements (e.g., room temperature)



OTC Label Requirements

Q: What must OTC labels include about ingredients?
A: Active and inactive ingredients


Q: What usage info is required on OTC labels?
A: Indications (uses) and directions


Q: What safety info must OTC labels include?
A: Warnings and cautions


Q: What business info is required on OTC labels?
A: Manufacturer/distributor name and address



National Drug Code (NDC)

Q: What law requires the NDC?
A: Drug Listing Act of 1972


Q: What does the NDC identify?
A: Labeler, product, and package size


Q: What does the first segment of the NDC represent?
A: Labeler (manufacturer)


Q: What does the second segment of the NDC represent?
A: Drug (name and strength)


Q: What does the third segment of the NDC represent?
A: Package size


Q: Why is the NDC important in pharmacy practice?
A: Insurance billing and correct drug selection


Q: What act helps track counterfeit drugs using barcodes?
A: Drug Supply Chain Security Act (DSCSA)



Bioequivalence & Orange Book

Q: What does bioequivalence mean?
A: Generic and brand drugs have the same therapeutic effect


Q: Why are generics commonly dispensed?
A: They are cheaper


Q: What reference is used to determine bioequivalence?
A: Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations


Q: Who is responsible for ensuring bioequivalence?
A: The pharmacist



Prescription Label Requirements (ISMP)

Q: What organization provides basic prescription label requirements?
A: Institute for Safe Medication Practices


Q: What patient info must be on a prescription label?
A: Patient name


Q: What prescriber info must be included?
A: Prescriber name


Q: What pharmacy info must be included?
A: Name, address, phone number


Q: What dispensing info must be included?
A: Date filled and prescription number


Q: What medication details must appear on the label?
A: Name, strength, dosage form, quantity, manufacturer, directions


Q: What additional label elements may be required?
A: Auxiliary labels



Child-Resistant Packaging (PPPA)

Q: What law requires child-resistant packaging?
A: Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970


Q: What percentage of children must be unable to open child-resistant containers?
A: 80% of children under 5


Q: What percentage of adults must be able to open them?
A: 90% within 5 minutes


Q: Who enforces the PPPA?
A: Consumer Product Safety Commission


Q: Can patients request non-child-resistant packaging?
A: Yes, but they must sign a waiver


Q: What must be added if a non-childproof cap is used?
A: A warning label



Exceptions to Child-Resistant Packaging

Q: What is a key exception requiring original container dispensing?
A: Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets


Q: Name other exceptions to child-resistant packaging.
A:

  • Methylprednisolone dose packs

  • Pancrelipase

  • Cholestyramine powder

  • Unit-dose potassium

  • Inpatient unit-dose meds



Exam-Style Question

Q: What does the NDC NOT include?
A: Expiration date and lot number


Q: Which law requires most prescriptions (e.g., amoxicillin) to be child-resistant?
A: Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA)

Product Verification Basics

Q: Who is responsible for final product verification before dispensing?
A: The pharmacist


Q: What is the goal of prescription verification?
A: Ensure accuracy, safety, and legality before dispensing


Q: What role does a pharmacy technician play in verification?
A: Assists by reviewing prescriptions for completeness, accuracy, and safety


Q: What specific elements do technicians check during verification?
A: Patient info, dosage, drug interactions, allergies, labeling, and packaging


Q: Why is pharmacy workflow design important?
A: It reduces errors and ensures every prescription is properly verified



Community Pharmacy Workflow

Intake Area

Q: What happens in the intake (drop-off) area?
A: Patients drop off prescriptions and provide information


Q: Why is the intake area important?
A: It creates the first impression and prevents delays by catching missing info early



Processing Area

Q: What occurs in the processing area?
A: Data entry and prescription filling


Q: Why should the processing area be distraction-free?
A: To ensure accurate data entry and reduce errors


Q: How are prescriptions organized in processing?
A: Separate bins/totes for each prescription


Q: What equipment is found in the processing area?
A: Counting tools, scales, labels, compounding supplies, calculators



Pharmacist Verification Area

Q: What happens in the pharmacist verification area?
A: Final check of prescriptions before dispensing



Processed Prescriptions (Will Call)

Q: What is the “will call” area?
A: Storage for completed prescriptions waiting for pickup


Q: How are prescriptions organized in will call?
A: Alphabetically by patient last name



Out Window (Pickup Area)

Q: What happens at the out window?
A: Patient pickup and payment


Q: What system prevents unverified prescriptions from being sold?
A: Point-of-sale system alerts


Q: What must be done if insurance is added at pickup?
A: Reprocess claim, print new label, and pharmacist must reverify


Q: How are patients verified at pickup?
A: Two identifiers (e.g., name + DOB)



Consultation Area

Q: What is the purpose of the consultation area?
A: Private counseling by the pharmacist



Institutional Pharmacy Workflow

Q: What must occur before medications are released in institutional settings?
A: Pharmacist verification of medication orders


Q: What should technicians look for before releasing meds?
A: Pharmacist’s initials or signature


Q: How should verified vs. unverified meds be handled?
A: Kept separate



Technician Check Technician (TCT)

Q: What is TCT?
A: Certified techs checking other techs’ work (limited tasks)


Q: Where is TCT commonly allowed?
A: Automated dispensing refills and unit-dose batching



Institutional Layout Areas

Main Dispensary

Q: What happens in the main dispensary?
A: Pharmacists review and verify medication orders



Pullout Shelves / Carousel

Q: What is stored here?
A: Prepackaged, unit-dose medications



Ward Boxes

Q: What are ward boxes?
A: Containers used to organize meds for hospital units


Q: What happens before meds go into ward boxes?
A: Final pharmacist verification



Bulk Storage

Q: What is stored in bulk medication shelves?
A: Large stock for filling and compounding



Refrigeration Area

Q: What is stored in the fridge?
A: Temperature-sensitive medications



Medication-Filling Robot

Q: What does a pharmacy robot do?
A: Automates filling and packaging of medications



Aseptic Suite

Q: What is prepared in the aseptic suite?
A: Sterile IV medications


Q: Who verifies IV preparations?
A: Pharmacist



Unpacking Area

Q: What happens in the unpacking area?
A: Deliveries are checked and stocked



Workflow Order (Community – Test Favorite)

Q: What is the correct order of workflow in a community pharmacy?
A: Intake → Processing → Filling → Pharmacist Verification → Will Call → Pickup



Key Exam Traps

Q: Can a prescription be sold before pharmacist verification?
A: No


Q: What happens if a prescription is changed after processing (e.g., insurance)?
A: It must be reverified by the pharmacist

General Concepts

Q: What is the route of administration?
A: How a medication is delivered into the body for absorption and distribution


Parenteral Routes (Injection)

Q: What does “parenteral” mean?
A: Administration by injection using a needle


Q: What are the main parenteral routes?
A: IV, IM, subcutaneous, intradermal


Q: What is a major advantage of parenteral administration?
A: Rapid absorption and onset of action


Q: What are disadvantages of parenteral administration?
A: Pain, infection risk, higher cost



IV (Intravenous)

Q: Where are IV medications administered?
A: Into large veins (arms, hands, or central lines)


Q: What is unique about IV administration?
A: Fastest onset; can be given as push or infusion



IM (Intramuscular)

Q: Where are IM injections given?
A: Deltoid, vastus lateralis, ventrogluteal, dorsogluteal muscles


Q: How does IM absorption compare to IV?
A: Slower than IV


Q: What common outpatient meds use IM?
A: Vaccines



Subcutaneous (SubQ)

Q: Where are subcutaneous injections given?
A: Under the skin


Q: What are advantages of subcutaneous injections?
A: Can be self-administered, less painful, smaller needle


Q: How does absorption compare to IM?
A: Slower than IM



Intradermal

Q: Where are intradermal injections given?
A: Top layer of skin


Q: What are intradermal injections commonly used for?
A: Allergy and tuberculosis testing



Other Parenteral Routes (Recognition)

Q: Name less common parenteral routes.
A: Intrathecal, intra-articular, intraperitoneal, intravitreal, intracardiac, intra-arterial



Enteral Routes (GI Tract)

Q: What does enteral administration mean?
A: Medication delivered through the gastrointestinal tract


Q: What is the most common enteral route?
A: Oral (by mouth)


Q: What dosage forms are oral?
A: Tablets, capsules, solutions, suspensions



Feeding Tubes

Q: What is a nasogastric (NG) tube?
A: Tube from nose to stomach


Q: What is a PEG tube?
A: Tube placed directly into the stomach through the skin



Buccal vs Sublingual

Q: Where is buccal administration?
A: Between cheek and gum


Q: Where is sublingual administration?
A: Under the tongue


Q: How are buccal and sublingual drugs absorbed?
A: Through mucous membranes (not GI tract)



Other Routes (Non-Parenteral, Non-Enteral)

Transdermal

Q: What is transdermal administration?
A: Drug delivered through skin via patch into bloodstream


Topical

Q: What is topical administration?
A: Applied to skin for local effect (creams, ointments, lotions)


Inhalation

Q: What is inhalation route?
A: Medication delivered to lungs via inhaler or gas


Q: Is inhalation typically local or systemic?
A: Usually local (lungs)



Matching / Exam Traps

Q: Match: IV → ?
A: Veins


Q: Match: IM → ?
A: Muscle


Q: Match: Subcutaneous → ?
A: Under skin


Q: Match: Intradermal → ?
A: Top layer of skin



Q: Match: Oral → ?
A: Mouth


Q: Match: Buccal → ?
A: Cheek/gum


Q: Match: Sublingual → ?
A: Under tongue

Medication Naming

Q: What are the three types of medication names?
A: Chemical, generic, and brand (trade)


Q: What does a chemical name describe?
A: The drug’s chemical structure


Q: What is the generic name?
A: The nonproprietary name assigned by manufacturers and the Food and Drug Administration


Q: What is a brand (trade) name?
A: A proprietary name registered by a manufacturer


Q: How are generic vs. brand names typically written?
A: Generic = lowercase; Brand = capitalized



Examples of Names

Q: What are the three names for Tylenol?
A: Chemical: 4’-hydroxyacetanilide; Generic: acetaminophen; Brand: Tylenol


Q: What is the generic name for Advil and Motrin?
A: Ibuprofen


Q: Can one generic drug have multiple brand names?
A: Yes



Patents & Generics

Q: How long do drug patents typically last?
A: 17–20 years


Q: When can generic drugs be produced?
A: After the patent expires


Q: Why are generics usually preferred?
A: Lower cost and same effectiveness



Equivalence Concepts

Q: What is pharmaceutical equivalence?
A: Same active ingredient, strength, dosage form, and route


Q: What is therapeutic equivalence?
A: Same rate and extent of absorption


Q: Who ensures generics meet quality standards?
A: Food and Drug Administration



Medication Effects & Safety

Q: What is a side effect?
A: An unintended effect (positive or negative)


Q: What is an adverse reaction?
A: A harmful or serious negative effect


Q: What is a contraindication?
A: A reason a drug should NOT be used



Compounding

Q: What is compounding?
A: Custom preparation of medications not commercially available


Q: What is nonsterile compounding used for?
A: Non-injectable medications


Q: What is sterile compounding used for?
A: Injectable (parenteral) medications



Vaccines

Q: What is the purpose of vaccines?
A: Stimulate the immune system to protect against pathogens



Common Drug Flashcards (HIGH-YIELD)

Q: Carvedilol → Brand? Use?
A: Coreg → Hypertension, heart failure


Q: Clindamycin → Brand? Use?
A: Cleocin → Bacterial infection


Q: Clonidine → Brand? Use?
A: Catapres → Hypertension, ADHD


Q: Enalapril → Brand? Use?
A: Vasotec → Hypertension, heart failure


Q: Fenofibrate → Brand? Use?
A: Tricor → Hyperlipidemia


Q: Fentanyl → Brand? Use?
A: Duragesic → Pain


Q: Fluconazole → Brand? Use?
A: Diflucan → Fungal infection


Q: Glipizide → Brand? Use?
A: Glucotrol → Type 2 diabetes


Q: Latanoprost → Brand? Use?
A: Xalatan → Glaucoma


Q: Losartan → Brand? Use?
A: Cozaar → Hypertension


Q: Meloxicam → Brand? Use?
A: Mobic → Pain, arthritis


Q: Pantoprazole → Brand? Use?
A: Protonix → GERD


Q: Paroxetine → Brand? Use?
A: Paxil → Anxiety, depression, OCD


Q: Pravastatin → Brand? Use?
A: Pravachol → Hyperlipidemia


Q: Propranolol → Brand? Use?
A: Inderal → HTN, migraines, arrhythmias


Q: Sitagliptin → Brand? Use?
A: Januvia → Type 2 diabetes


Q: Spironolactone → Brand? Use?
A: Aldactone → Heart failure, HTN


Q: Sumatriptan → Brand? Use?
A: Imitrex → Migraine


Q: Vancomycin → Brand? Use?
A: Vancocin → Bacterial infection


Q: Venlafaxine → Brand? Use?
A: Effexor → Anxiety, depression



Exam Tips (High Yield)

Q: Why might a brand be used instead of a generic?
A: Prescriber or patient preference


Q: Why do insurance companies prefer generics?
A: Lower cost

Core Concepts

Q: Do all medications have the potential to cause side effects or adverse reactions?
A: Yes


Q: What is a side effect?
A: An unintended, expected effect (can be positive or negative) at normal doses


Q: What is an adverse reaction?
A: A harmful, unintended, and often more severe effect at normal doses


Q: What is the key difference between side effects and adverse reactions?
A: Side effects may be mild/expected; adverse reactions are more serious and harmful



Positive vs Negative Side Effects

Q: Can side effects be beneficial?
A: Yes


Q: What drug is a classic example of a positive side effect discovery?
A: Sildenafil


Q: What was sildenafil originally intended to treat?
A: Pulmonary arterial hypertension


Q: What positive side effect led to its new use?
A: Erectile dysfunction



Clinical Decision Concept

Q: When might a patient continue a medication despite side effects?
A: When benefits outweigh risks and effects are mild



High-Yield Drug Flashcards

Acetaminophen

Q: Acetaminophen → common side effect?
A: Rash


Q: Acetaminophen → serious adverse reaction?
A: Hepatotoxicity (liver damage)



Baclofen

Q: Baclofen → common side effects?
A: Dizziness, drowsiness, nausea, vomiting


Q: Baclofen → adverse reactions?
A: CNS effects, withdrawal effects



Clindamycin

Q: Clindamycin → common side effects?
A: Itching, nausea, vomiting


Q: Clindamycin → serious adverse reaction?
A: C. difficile infection



Diclofenac

Q: Diclofenac → common side effects?
A: Edema, nausea


Q: Diclofenac → major adverse reaction?
A: None listed (important exam trick)



Hydroxychloroquine

Q: Hydroxychloroquine → side effects?
A: Rash, abdominal pain, fatigue, dizziness


Q: Hydroxychloroquine → serious adverse reactions?
A: Retinal toxicity, cardiomyopathy, QT prolongation



Lisinopril

Q: Lisinopril → common side effects?
A: Hypotension, dizziness, GI issues


Q: Lisinopril → serious adverse reactions?
A: Angioedema, acute kidney injury, hyperkalemia



Morphine

Q: Morphine → common side effects?
A: Nausea, hypotension, rash


Q: Morphine → serious adverse reactions?
A: Respiratory depression, neurotoxicity, constipation



Nitroglycerin

Q: Nitroglycerin → common side effects?
A: Headache, hypotension, dizziness


Q: Nitroglycerin → major adverse reaction?
A: None listed



Phenytoin

Q: Phenytoin → common side effects?
A: Rash, nausea, constipation


Q: Phenytoin → serious adverse reactions?
A: Blood dyscrasias, hepatotoxicity, CNS effects



Amlodipine

Q: Amlodipine → common side effects?
A: Rash, fatigue, nausea


Q: Amlodipine → serious adverse reaction?
A: Peripheral edema



Matching (Exam Style)

Q: Blood dyscrasias → ?
A: Phenytoin


Q: Hepatotoxicity → ?
A: Acetaminophen


Q: C. difficile infection → ?
A: Clindamycin


Q: Acute kidney injury → ?
A: Lisinopril


Q: Peripheral edema → ?
A: Amlodipine



Exam Tips (High Yield)

Q: Are side effects and adverse reactions always different in real practice?
A: Often used interchangeably, but exams distinguish them


Q: At what doses do side effects and adverse reactions occur?
A: Normal therapeutic doses

Core Concepts (Sig & Directions)

Q: What does “Sig” mean on a prescription?
A: Directions for use


Q: What key elements are included in the Sig?
A: Route, dosage, frequency (and sometimes duration & indication)


Q: Why is interpreting the Sig important?
A: Ensures safe and effective medication use


Q: What should a technician do if unsure about a Sig?
A: Ask the pharmacist


Q: Should technicians add missing information to a Sig?
A: No



Routes of Administration (Sig Codes)

Q: PO
A: By mouth


Q: IV
A: Intravenous


Q: TOP
A: Topically


Q: VAG
A: Vaginally


Q: EN
A: Each nostril


Q: UD / UT
A: As directed


Q: IVPB
A: Intravenous piggyback


Q: LOC
A: Locally



Dosage Forms

Q: TAB
A: Tablet


Q: CAP
A: Capsule


Q: LIQ
A: Liquid


Q: SUSP
A: Suspension


Q: SUPP
A: Suppository


Q: UNG / OINT
A: Ointment


Q: SOL
A: Solution


Q: SYR
A: Syrup



Frequency Abbreviations (HIGH-YIELD)

Q: Q
A: Every


Q: Q4H
A: Every 4 hours


Q: BID
A: Twice daily


Q: AM
A: Morning


Q: PM
A: Evening


Q: QHS
A: Every night at bedtime


Q: PC
A: After meals


Q: HS
A: At bedtime


Q: ASAP
A: As soon as possible


Q: STAT
A: Immediately


Q: ATC
A: Around the clock


Q: AD LIB
A: As often as desired


Q: W/
A: With


Q: W/O
A: Without



Abbreviations to AVOID (VERY TESTED)

Q: Why are some abbreviations unsafe?
A: They can be misinterpreted and cause medication errors


Q: Which organization lists “Do Not Use” abbreviations?
A: The Joint Commission


Q: Why is “U” (unit) dangerous?
A: Can be mistaken for 0, 4, or cc


Q: Why is “IU” dangerous?
A: Can be mistaken for IV or 10


Q: Why is “QD” dangerous?
A: Can be mistaken for QID or QOD


Q: Why is “QOD” dangerous?
A: Can be mistaken for QD or QID


Q: What decimal errors should be avoided?
A: Trailing zeros and missing leading zeros



Translation Practice (Exam Style)

Q: Sig: 1 TAB Q4H
A: Take 1 tablet every 4 hours


Q: Sig: Apply 1 application TOP in AM and QHS
A: Apply topically in the morning and at bedtime


Q: Sig: Insert 1 TAB VAG QHS
A: Insert 1 tablet vaginally at bedtime



Tricky / Must-Know Concepts

Q: Why might a Sig need clarification?
A: If directions are ambiguous or unclear


Q: Example: “2 tabs PC HS” — what’s the issue?
A: Could mean multiple interpretations → must clarify with prescriber



Matching (Exam Practice)

Q: UD → ?
A: As directed


Q: TOP → ?
A: Topically


Q: VAG → ?
A: Vaginally


Q: IV → ?
A: Intravenous


Q: EN → ?
A: Each nostril



Big Picture Tip

Q: What is the #1 rule when interpreting Sig codes?
A: Never guess—clarify anything unclear

Core Concepts

Q: What is a patient profile?
A: A record in the pharmacy system containing patient information for safe medication use


Q: Why is an accurate patient profile important?
A: Prevents overdoses, underdoses, allergies, and drug interactions


Q: Who typically updates patient profiles?
A: Pharmacy technicians



Contact Information

Q: What basic contact info is required in a patient profile?
A: Name, address, phone number


Q: Why is phone number important?
A: To contact patients about prescriptions


Q: What additional contact details may be included?
A: Phone type (mobile/home/work) and contact preference (call/text)



Patient-Specific Information

Q: What demographic information is required?
A: Date of birth, weight, sex assigned at birth


Q: Why is weight important?
A: Helps determine correct dosing


Q: What must be documented about allergies?
A: Drug, food, and contact allergies + reactions



Medical History

Q: What diagnoses should be included in a patient profile?
A: Known medical conditions


Q: What should be included in medication history?
A:

  • Current medications

  • Dosage & directions

  • Quantity

  • Date dispensed


Q: What non-prescription items must be included?
A: OTC meds, vitamins, herbal supplements


Q: What lifestyle factors should be documented?
A: Tobacco and cannabis use



Preferences & Insurance

Q: What patient preferences may be documented?
A:

  • Generic substitution preference

  • Child-resistant cap preference


Q: What insurance info is required?
A:

  • Insurance company

  • BIN

  • ID number

  • PCN

  • Rx group

  • Person code


Q: Why is insurance info important?
A: Needed for claim submission and billing



Drug Safety (VERY HIGH-YIELD)

Q: What are drug-drug interactions (DDIs)?
A: When one drug affects another


Q: Why is a complete medication list important?
A: To detect DDIs


Q: What is a contraindication?
A: A reason NOT to use a medication



Drug Utilization Review (DUR)

Q: What is a DUR?
A: Software check for unsafe or inappropriate medication use


Q: What should a technician do if a DUR alert appears?
A: Notify the pharmacist



Real-World / Exam Scenario

Q: What should be updated if a patient moves?
A: Address, phone number, and any other changed info


Q: What is a good follow-up question at drop-off?
A: “Are you taking any other medications?”


Q: Why ask about other pharmacies?
A: Patients may get meds elsewhere → risk of interactions



Exam Traps (Important)

Q: Can DDIs be checked without a full medication list?
A: No


Q: What happens if insurance info is missing?
A: Claim cannot be processed


Q: Who makes the final decision on medication safety?
A: Pharmacist

Core Concept

Q: Why is proper medication labeling important?
A: Ensures safe and correct use of medication


Q: How are most prescription labels created?
A: Computer-generated



Required Prescription Label Information (VERY HIGH-YIELD)

Q: What pharmacy information must be on the label?
A: Pharmacy name, address, and phone number


Q: What patient information is required on the label?
A: Patient name


Q: What prescription identification is required?
A: Prescription number


Q: What date must be included on the label?
A: Date dispensed


Q: What medication instructions must be included?
A: Directions for use (Sig)


Q: What medication details must be on the label?
A: Name, strength, and dosage form


Q: What refill information must be included?
A: Number of refills


Q: What prescriber information is required?
A: Prescriber’s name



Sometimes Required (State-Specific)

Q: What expiration info may be required?
A: Expiration date


Q: What pharmacist info may be required?
A: Pharmacist’s name or initials



Federal Requirement (VERY TESTED)

Q: What is the federal legend for prescription labels?
A: “Caution: Federal law prohibits transfer of this medication to any person other than for whom it was prescribed.”



Special Labeling Situations

Q: Do medications in original packaging still need a pharmacy label?
A: Yes


Q: What must be avoided when placing labels on original packaging?
A: Covering important manufacturer instructions


Q: Example of packaging where label placement matters?
A: Methylprednisolone dose packs



Exam Sorting (COMMON QUESTION)

Required on Prescription Label

Q: Patient name → Required?
A: Yes


Q: Federal legend → Required?
A: Yes


Q: Prescriber name → Required?
A: Yes


Q: Date dispensed → Required?
A: Yes


Q: Quantity dispensed → Required?
A: Yes


Q: Prescription number → Required?
A: Yes



NOT Required on Prescription Label

Q: Patient date of birth → Required?
A: No


Q: Patient gender → Required?
A: No


Q: Prescriber phone number → Required?
A: No


Q: Medication manufacturer → Required?
A: No



Quick Memory Trick

Q: What are the “must-have” categories on a prescription label?
A:

  • Patient

  • Drug

  • Directions

  • Prescriber

  • Pharmacy

  • Prescription details

Days’ Supply – Core Concept

Q: What is days’ supply?
A: The number of days a prescription will last based on dose and quantity


Q: What is the formula for days’ supply?
A:
Total quantity ÷ (dose per day)


Q: Why is days’ supply important?
A: Insurance billing and controlled substance monitoring (Drug Enforcement Administration compliance)



Step Method (MEMORIZE THIS)

Q: How do you calculate days’ supply?
A:

  1. Find dose per day

  2. Multiply dose × frequency

  3. Divide total quantity by daily dose



Sig Translation Essentials

Q: BID = ?
A: 2 times daily


Q: TID = ?
A: 3 times daily


Q: QID = ?
A: 4 times daily


Q: Q4H = ?
A: Every 4 hours = 6 times daily


Q: Q6H = ?
A: Every 6 hours = 4 times daily



Days’ Supply Practice Logic

Q: 2 tabs TID = how many per day?
A: 6 tablets/day


Q: 1 spray each nostril BID = how many doses/day?
A: 4 sprays/day (2 nostrils × 2 times/day)


Q: Why do inhaler questions use MAX dose?
A: To avoid underestimating use (exam trick)



Key Exam Tricks

Q: When given a range (1–2 tabs), what dose is used?
A: Maximum dose


Q: When frequency is a range (q4–6h), what is used?
A: Most frequent dosing (worst case)



Weight Conversions

Q: 1 kg = ? lb
A: 2.2 lb


Q: lb → kg formula
A: lb ÷ 2.2



Weight-Based Dosing Formula

Q: What is mg/kg dosing?
A: Medication dose per kilogram of body weight


Q: Weight-based dosing steps?
A:

  1. Convert lb → kg

  2. Multiply kg × mg/kg dose

  3. Divide if multiple doses/day



Weight Example Logic

Q: 167 lb → kg ≈ ?
A: 75.9 kg


Q: 126 lb → kg ≈ ?
A: 57.3 kg



Key Pattern Recognition

Q: If dose is mg/kg/day, what does that mean?
A: Total daily dose is calculated from weight


Q: If dose is divided (e.g., TID), what happens?
A: Divide total daily dose by number of doses



Example Outcomes (MEMORY ANCHORS)

Q: 220 lb, 15 mg/kg/day → total daily dose?
A: 1,500 mg/day


Q: 180 lb, 25 mg/kg/day TID → per dose?
A: 682 mg per dose



Exam Strategy (VERY IMPORTANT)

Q: What is the #1 mistake in days’ supply questions?
A: Not converting frequency correctly (Q4H, Q6H)


Q: What is the #1 mistake in weight dosing?
A: Forgetting to convert lb → kg


Q: What is always true in calculations questions?
A: Units must match before calculating

DEA Registration

Flashcard 1
Q: Who must register with the DEA under the CSA?
A: Anyone who manufactures, distributes, prescribes, researches, imports, exports, or dispenses controlled substances.

Flashcard 2
Q: What is a DEA registration number used for?
A: It identifies registrants authorized to handle controlled substances and must appear on controlled substance prescriptions.

Flashcard 3
Q: What is the format of a DEA number?
A: 2 letters followed by 7 digits (last digit is a check digit).

Flashcard 4
Q: What do the first and second letters of a DEA number represent?
A: First letter = registrant type (A, B, F, M, X). Second letter = first letter of prescriber’s last name (with exceptions).

Flashcard 5
Q: How do you verify a DEA number?
A:

  1. Add 1st, 3rd, 5th digits

  2. Add 2nd, 4th, 6th digits ×2

  3. Add results

  4. Last digit must match DEA number check digit


📦 Packaging & Labeling

Flashcard 6
Q: Where do prescription drugs arrive from suppliers?
A: In manufacturer packaging or stock bottles.

Flashcard 7
Q: What must FDA manufacturer packaging labels include?
A: Active ingredients, dosage info, federal legend, route, expiration, lot number, storage info, manufacturer info, NDC, and warnings.

Flashcard 8
Q: What does “Rx only” indicate?
A: The medication requires a prescription under federal law.

Flashcard 9
Q: What is a lot number?
A: A batch identifier used for tracking medications.


🧾 National Drug Code (NDC)

Flashcard 10
Q: What does the NDC identify?
A: Labeler, product, and package size.

Flashcard 11
Q: Why is the NDC important?
A: Insurance billing, dispensing accuracy, and drug tracking.

Flashcard 12
Q: What law created the NDC system?
A: Drug Listing Act of 1972 (FDA).


💉 Bioequivalence

Flashcard 13
Q: What is bioequivalence?
A: Generic and brand drugs that have the same rate and extent of absorption.

Flashcard 14
Q: What is pharmaceutical equivalence?
A: Same active ingredient, strength, dosage form, and route.

Flashcard 15
Q: What is the Orange Book?
A: FDA reference for therapeutic equivalence of drugs.


📋 Prescription Labels

Flashcard 16
Q: What must be on a pharmacy prescription label?
A: Pharmacy info, patient name, drug info, directions, prescriber name, Rx number, refills, expiration, dispense date.

Flashcard 17
Q: What is the federal caution statement on labels?
A: “Caution: Federal law prohibits transfer of this medication…”


👶 Child-Resistant Packaging

Flashcard 18
Q: What law requires child-resistant packaging?
A: Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA) of 1970.

Flashcard 19
Q: What percentage of children must NOT be able to open child-resistant packaging?
A: 80% of children under 5.

Flashcard 20
Q: What percentage of adults must be able to open it within 5 minutes?
A: At least 90%.

Flashcard 21
Q: What are exceptions to child-resistant packaging?
A: Nitroglycerin SL tablets and some specific dosage forms (e.g., Medrol Dosepak, potassium unit-dose).


🏪 Pharmacy Layout

Flashcard 22
Q: What happens in the intake area?
A: Prescriptions are dropped off and initial patient interaction occurs.

Flashcard 23
Q: What happens in the processing area?
A: Data entry, labeling, filling, and preparation occur.

Flashcard 24
Q: What happens in the pharmacist verification area?
A: Pharmacist performs final check before dispensing.

Flashcard 25
Q: What is the “will-call” area?
A: The area where verified prescriptions wait for pickup.


🏥 Institutional Pharmacy Workflow

Flashcard 26
Q: What is the main dispensary?
A: Where pharmacists verify medication orders in hospitals.

Flashcard 27
Q: What is the aseptic suite used for?
A: Sterile IV compounding.


💉 Routes of Administration

Flashcard 28
Q: What are parenteral routes?
A: IV, IM, SC, intradermal.

Flashcard 29
Q: What is enteral administration?
A: Oral, NG/OG tube, PEG tube, sublingual, buccal.

Flashcard 30
Q: What is transdermal?
A: Medication absorbed through skin via patch.


Side Effects vs Adverse Reactions

Flashcard 31
Q: What is a side effect?
A: Expected, often mild or unintended outcome at normal dose.

Flashcard 32
Q: What is an adverse reaction?
A: Severe, harmful, or dangerous medication effect.


🧪 Sig Codes

Flashcard 33
Q: What does “Sig” mean?
A: Directions for use (route, dose, frequency).

Flashcard 34
Q: What does BID mean?
A: Twice daily.

Flashcard 35
Q: What does QID mean?
A: Four times daily.

Flashcard 36
Q: What does Q4H mean?
A: Every 4 hours.

Flashcard 37
Q: What does PRN mean?
A: As needed.

Flashcard 38
Q: What does UD/UT mean?
A: As directed.


Abbreviations to Avoid

Flashcard 39
Q: Why should “U” be avoided?
A: Can be misread as 0, 4, or CC.

Flashcard 40
Q: Why is QD avoided?
A: Can be confused with QID or QOD.

Flashcard 41
Q: Why are trailing zeros dangerous?
A: They can cause overdose errors (e.g., 1.0 mistaken as 10).


👤 Patient Profiles

Flashcard 42
Q: Why are patient profiles important?
A: Prevent overdoses, interactions, and allergies.

Flashcard 43
Q: What must be included in a patient profile?
A: Name, DOB, allergies, medications, insurance, contact info.

Flashcard 44
Q: What is BIN in insurance?
A: Six-digit number used to process pharmacy claims.


💊 Medication Labeling

Flashcard 45
Q: What must a prescription label include?
A: Patient name, drug name, directions, pharmacy info, Rx number, prescriber, refills.


📊 Calculations

Flashcard 46
Q: Days’ supply formula?
A: Total quantity ÷ daily dose.

Flashcard 47
Q: Convert lbs to kg?
A: lb ÷ 2.2 = kg


📈 Percent Calculations

Flashcard 48
Q: Percent means what?
A: Per 100.

Flashcard 49
Q: Convert decimal to percent?
A: Multiply by 100.

Flashcard 50
Q: Convert percent to decimal?
A: Divide by 100.

Work Environment & Quality Assurance

Flashcard 1
Q: Why is pharmacy workflow designed in one direction?
A: To improve efficiency, accuracy, and reduce medication errors.

Flashcard 2
Q: What environmental factors help reduce pharmacy errors?
A: Lighting, noise control, workload management, reduced clutter, proper staffing, and minimized interruptions.

Flashcard 3
Q: What is CQI in pharmacy?
A: Continuous Quality Improvement—processes used to improve safety and reduce errors.


🧽 Cleaning & Organization

Flashcard 4
Q: When should pharmacy work areas be cleaned?
A: At the beginning, during, and end of each shift.

Flashcard 5
Q: What is used to clean counting trays?
A: 70% isopropyl alcohol.

Flashcard 6
Q: When must counting trays be cleaned?
A: Beginning of shift, during shift, end of shift, and after counting penicillins or sulfa drugs.


Allergy Safety (VERY TESTED)

Flashcard 7
Q: Why are penicillins and sulfonamides handled carefully?
A: They commonly cause allergic reactions and cross-contamination must be avoided.

Flashcard 8
Q: What suffix often indicates penicillin drugs?
A: -cillin

Flashcard 9
Q: What prefix often indicates sulfa drugs?
A: sulfa-

Flashcard 10
Q: What percentage of penicillin-allergic patients may also react to cephalosporins?
A: About 10%

Flashcard 11
Q: Why should automated counting machines be avoided for penicillins and sulfa drugs?
A: To prevent cross-contamination.


💊 Sulfonamide (Sulfa) Drugs

Flashcard 12
Q: What is co-trimoxazole (Bactrim)?
A: A sulfonamide antibiotic combination (trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole).

Flashcard 13
Q: What is sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim used for?
A: Bacterial infections.

Flashcard 14
Q: Name a sulfonamide anti-inflammatory drug.
A: Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine).


🏥 Hospital Compounding Safety

Flashcard 15
Q: When must nonsterile compounding areas be cleaned?
A: Before and after each compound is prepared.

Flashcard 16
Q: Why is cleaning nonsterile compounding important?
A: To prevent chemical contamination and patient injury (e.g., burns).


🧪 Clean Room (Sterile Compounding)

Flashcard 17
Q: What is a clean room used for?
A: Sterile compounding of IV medications.

Flashcard 18
Q: What must be used for clean room cleaning supplies?
A: Dedicated, room-specific cleaning materials only.

Flashcard 19
Q: What cleaning agents are used in sterile areas?
A: Sterile 70% isopropyl alcohol, water, bleach, approved agents, lint-free cloths.


🧼 Clean Room Cleaning Schedule

Flashcard 20
Q: How often are laminar airflow hoods cleaned?
A: Beginning of shift, every 30 minutes during batching, and after spills.

Flashcard 21
Q: How often are floors cleaned in a clean room?
A: Daily.

Flashcard 22
Q: How often are storage bins cleaned?
A: Monthly.

Flashcard 23
Q: How often are ceilings and walls cleaned?
A: Monthly.


Safety Takeaways

Flashcard 24
Q: What is the main purpose of pharmacy cleaning protocols?
A: Prevent contamination, infection, and medication errors.

Flashcard 25
Q: What is a key risk if cleaning is not done properly in compounding areas?
A: Patient harm from contamination or chemical exposure.

Unit Dose & Packaging Systems

Flashcard 1
Q: What is unit dosing?
A: Repackaging medications into single-use doses for hospitals or institutions.

Flashcard 2
Q: Where are unit dose systems commonly used?
A: Inpatient hospital settings.

Flashcard 3
Q: What is a punch card or blister pack used for?
A: Organizing patient medications by dose/time to improve adherence.

Flashcard 4
Q: What is a major benefit of blister packs/punch cards?
A: Improved medication adherence and reduced medication errors.

Flashcard 5
Q: How long is a typical punch card supply?
A: Usually a 30-day supply.


🏥 Unit Dose Labeling & Safety

Flashcard 6
Q: What must unit-dose repackaged medications include on the label?
A: Drug name, strength, lot number, manufacturer, expiration date, and other key info.

Flashcard 7
Q: Why is unit-dose labeling important?
A: Ensures accurate identification and prevents medication errors.

Flashcard 8
Q: Why is patient name NOT included on hospital unit-dose packaging?
A: To protect patient confidentiality (PHI).


📦 Repackaging Principles

Flashcard 9
Q: Why is repackaging done in pharmacy systems?
A: To improve safety, usability, and inventory control.

Flashcard 10
Q: What is the first rule of repackaging?
A: Repackage one medication at a time.

Flashcard 11
Q: Why should only one medication be repackaged at a time?
A: To prevent medication mix-ups and errors.

Flashcard 12
Q: What environmental protection must packaging provide?
A: Protection from light, air, moisture, heat, and contamination.


🧾 Repackaging Requirements

Flashcard 13
Q: What must always be verified before repackaging?
A: Medication name, strength, and label accuracy.

Flashcard 14
Q: What must be documented in repackaging?
A: Lot number, expiration date, manufacturer, and batch records.

Flashcard 15
Q: Who must approve repackaging?
A: A pharmacist.

Flashcard 16
Q: Why is batch documentation important?
A: For tracking, safety, and recall purposes.


🧠 Adherence Aids

Flashcard 17
Q: What is a pill organizer used for?
A: Helping patients manage daily medication schedules.

Flashcard 18
Q: What is a pill cutter used for?
A: Splitting tablets into accurate doses (e.g., ½ tablet).

Flashcard 19
Q: What is an oral syringe used for?
A: Measuring accurate liquid medication doses.

Flashcard 20
Q: What is a dosage spoon used for?
A: Measuring liquid medications more accurately than household spoons.


📋 Documentation & Logs

Flashcard 21
Q: Where is unit-dose repackaging documented?
A: Compounding log.

Flashcard 22
Q: What does NOT require punch card documentation like compounding does?
A: Punch cards are treated like standard dispensing (like prescription bottles).


Safety & Accuracy Concepts

Flashcard 23
Q: What is the biggest safety risk in repackaging?
A: Medication mix-ups or contamination.

Flashcard 24
Q: What is a key principle of safe repackaging workflow?
A: Clean workspace, one drug at a time, and strict labeling.


🧪 Exam Style Takeaways

Flashcard 25
Q: Why are blister packs helpful in long-term care?
A: They organize doses by time and reduce administration errors.

Flashcard 26
Q: What is the role of unit dosing in hospitals?
A: Provides ready-to-administer single doses to reduce errors and waste.

Sterile/Nonsterile Compounding – Challenge Answers

1. Latex allergy + only latex gloves available

Correct answer: D. Release the technician from sterile compounding duties

Because:

  • Latex exposure = immediate safety risk (hypersensitivity reaction risk)

  • No acceptable workaround if only latex gloves are available

  • You remove the technician from exposure tasks, not continue work


2. Order of PPE donning (correct sequence)

Correct order:

  1. Shoe covers

  2. Bouffant cap

  3. Beard cover (if applicable)

  4. Mask

  5. Aseptic handwashing

  6. Gown

  7. Sterile powder-free gloves

Key idea:

  • “Clean from bottom to top”

  • “Hand hygiene happens before sterile gloves”


3. Minimum handwashing time

Correct answer: A. 30 seconds

  • Aseptic handwashing minimum = 30 seconds

  • Longer is fine, but not required minimum


4. Correct location for doffing PPE

Correct answer: B. Anteroom

Why:

  • Prevents contamination of clean room and buffer room

  • PPE removal must occur outside sterile environment zones


5. PPE required before compounding (select all that apply)

Correct answers: A, C, D, F

  • A. Bouffant cap

  • C. Sterile gloves

  • D. Shoe covers

  • F. Barrier gown

Not allowed / irrelevant:

  • B. Artificial nails (contamination risk)

  • E. Cologne/perfume (particulate contamination risk)


Sterile Compounding Key Concepts (high-yield summary)

Clean room rules:

  • HEPA filter = produces first air (sterile airflow)

  • No cardboard near hood (particulate risk)

  • Only necessary items in hood area

Critical sites (must not be touched):

  • Syringe tip

  • Needle hub

  • Vial septum

  • IV bag ports

Ampules:

  • Always single-use

  • Use filter needle (prevents glass contamination)


Nonsterile Compounding Case

1. BUD vs 30-day supply

Correct answer: C. Label the final product with a 30-day expiration date

Rule:

  • Always choose the shorter expiration date

  • Patient safety overrides product BUD


2. Wrong patient label on blister pack

Correct answer: C. Correct the label and notify the pharmacist

Why:

  • Medication labeling error = serious safety + legal issue

  • Must correct AND escalate (documentation required)


Big Exam Patterns to Remember

  • PPE errors → almost always “remove from exposure / correct order”

  • Sterile compounding → contamination prevention > speed

  • Labeling errors → always correct + notify pharmacist

  • Expiration rules → always shortest date wins

1. Diluent (Base Solution) Selection — KEY RULES

What a diluent is:

A diluent is the fluid used to:

  • Reconstitute powders

  • Dilute IV medications

  • Carry drugs in solution (base fluid like IV bag)

Common examples:

  • 0.9% Sodium Chloride (Normal Saline)

  • D5W (5% Dextrose in Water)


Critical Exam Rule

👉 Always use the correct diluent based on:

  • Drug compatibility (package insert)

  • Patient condition (tonicity needs)


Classic Example (VERY TESTED)

  • Daptomycin
    NOT compatible with dextrose (D5W)
    Must be mixed with normal saline (0.9% NaCl)

👉 This is a high-yield safety rule:

“If incompatible → drug fails or becomes unsafe”


Two “RIGHTS” of compounding (exam phrase)

  1. Right medication

  2. Right diluent


2. Tonicity (why diluent matters)

Type

Effect on cells

Example

Isotonic

No movement

0.9% NS

Hypotonic

Water enters cell → swelling

<0.9% NS

Hypertonic

Water leaves cell → shrinking

D5W, concentrated saline


Clinical logic

  • IV choice depends on patient needs:

    • Dehydration → isotonic

    • Brain swelling risk → careful with hypotonic


3. Sterile Product Labeling (VERY TESTED)

Required label elements:

  • Patient name + MRN

  • Room number (hospital setting)

  • Drug name + strength

  • IV base solution (diluent)

  • Infusion rate


Labeling rules:

  • Do NOT cover:

    • Syringe markings

    • IV bag volume lines

    • Drug visibility

  • Label must:

    • Be flat

    • Be readable without moving container

    • Not interfere with inspection


Why this matters:

  • Nurses must verify dose visually

  • Errors often happen from blocked or unreadable labels


4. Aseptic Technique Flow (Simplified Exam Order)

Correct concept:

You alternate between:

  • PPE donning

  • Hand hygiene steps


Key sequence idea:

  1. Shoe covers

  2. Bouffant cap

  3. Beard cover (if needed)

  4. Mask

  5. Hand hygiene (ASEPTIC handwashing)

  6. Gown

  7. Alcohol hand rub again

  8. Sterile gloves


Critical test concept:

  • Hand hygiene happens multiple times

  • Gloves are ALWAYS last


5. Sterile Compounding Safety Concepts

HEPA filter + First Air

  • HEPA filter produces sterile airflow

  • “First air” = cleanest air zone

  • Never block airflow inside hood


Critical sites (NEVER TOUCH):

  • Syringe tip

  • Needle hub

  • Vial septum

  • IV ports


Ampules:

  • Glass containers → risk of glass shards

  • Always use:

    • Filter needle or filter straw

  • Always:

    • Single-use only


6. Compounding Error Rules (High-Yield)

If something is wrong:

  • Label error → fix + notify pharmacist

  • Calculation error → must verify before compounding

  • Contamination → stop immediately


7. One-line exam memory shortcuts

  • Diluent = “drug must be compatible with fluid”

  • Daptomycin = “saline only”

  • Label = “never block visibility”

  • HEPA = “cleanest air”

  • Gloves = “last step”

  • Ampule = “filter needle required”