Acute Epididymitis

  • The presentation of acute epididymitis in an otherwise-well 22-year-old man includes: 

    • The presence of a positive Prehn sign

  • A 26-year-old man presents with acute epididymitis. He states that his female partner was recently diagnosed with “some kind of an infection and was told I should get treated”. The most likely causative organisms include (more than one answer may apply):

    • C trachomatis

    • N gonorrhoeae

  • A likely causative pathogen in a 37-year-old man who has sex with men with acute epididymitis:

    • E coli

  • A 30-year-old man who has sex with women and has acute epididymitis presents without gastrointestinal upset and will be treated as an outpatient. Which of the following is a reasonable treatment option?

    • PO doxycycline and IM ceftriaxone

  • Appropriate treatment of acute epididymitis for a 32-year-old man who is an insertive partner in anal intercourse is:

    • levofloxacin

  • Indicated yes or no whether each finding would be present in acute epididymitis.

    • Irritative voiding symptoms - Yes

    • Penile discharge - yes

    • Ulcerative lesion - No

    • Scrotal swelling - Yes

    • Boggy prostate - No

    • Bilateral findings possible with later stages or with untreated disease - Yes