AVSEC - BATTERY EXAM
1. Which agency is responsible for aviation security in the Philippines?
Ans: Office for Transportation Security
2. What event prompted the creation of the Office for Transportation Security?
Ans: The September 11 attacks
3. Which law established the Philippine National Police and gave it responsibility for aviation security?
Ans: Republic Act No. 6975
4. What is the primary goal of the National Civil Aviation Security Program (NCASP)?
Ans:To prevent terrorist attacks
5. Which agency is responsible for developing and implementing regulations for aviation security?
Ans: Office for Civil Aviation Security
6. What was the original name of the Office for Transportation Security?
Ans: National Action Committee on Anti-Hijacking
7. Which executive order created the Office for Transportation Security?
Ans: Executive Order No. 277
8. Which agency was responsible for aviation security before the creation of the OTS?
Ans: National Action Committee on Anti-Hijacking, Aviation Security Command, Philippine National Police Aviation Security Group
9. What is the significance of Annex 17 to the Chicago Convention?
Ans: It sets international standards for aviation security
10. Which executive order reconstituted the National Action Committee on Anti-Hijacking into the National Council for Civil Aviation Security?
Ans: Executive Order No. 336
11. What is the primary role of the National Civil Aviation Security Committee (NCASC)?
Ans: To provide oversight for aviation security
12. Which agency is responsible for implementing the National Civil Aviation Security Program (NCASP)?
Ans: Office for Civil Aviation Security
13. What is the primary purpose of a sterile area in an airport terminal?
Ans: To prevent unauthorized access to aircraft
14. Which agency is responsible for the overall implementation of Annex 17 of the Chicago Convention?
Ans: Office for Civil Aviation Security
15. Which executive order designated the OTS as the single authority responsible for ensuring the implementation of security measures for land, sea, and air transport in the country?
Ans: Executive Order No. 311
16. What is the purpose of airport demarcation?
Ans: To prevent unauthorized entry into controlled areas
17. How many areas are typically defined within a commercial service airport?
Ans: 3
18. Which area of an airport is considered the most secure?
Ans: Airside
19. What is the primary purpose of a Security Identification Display Area (SIDA)?
Ans: To control access to the airside
20. Which of the following is not a type of security area in an airport?
A. Secured area
B. Security identification display area
C. Air operations area
D. Public area
Ans: Public area
21. It is the application of technical or other means which are intended to identify and detect weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices, articles or substances which may be used to commit an act of unlawful interference.
Ans: Screening
22. These are facilities and areas within the airport that are administered by other entities. Ans: Tenant Restricted Areas
23. Defined as those areas of the airside of an airport which are identified as priority risk areas where in addition to access control, other security controls are applied.
Ans: Security Restricted Areas
24. A ______ is an area within the airport where all final security checks have been conducted and every precaution has therefore been taken to ensure that no unauthorized persons and no prohibited items are present.
Ans: Sterile Area
25. The application of technical or other means which are intended to identify and/or detect weapons, explosives, or other dangerous devices which may be used to commit an act of unlawful interference.
Ans: Preboarding Screening
26. There are _________ designs for passenger terminal buildings:
Ans: Three
27. In this plan, the terminal is separated into three areas: the terminal, concourse, and pier.
Ans: Boarding Gate Plan
28. The main difference in this Plan from the Boarding Gate Plan is that after the pre-boarding screening, passengers are moved into a holding room to await boarding.
Ans: Holding area Plan
29. It provides a centralized pre-board screening regime, after which passengers move into a larger sterile area (often including a tax-free shopping area).
Ans: Concourse Plan
30. In the Holding Area Plan, screening can start ______ an aircraft arrives and ______ to boarding.
Ans: Before, Prior
31. According to Shanks & Bradley (2004), this process is where the passenger or employee is called by security staff to remove outer attire and anything that may set off the metal detector.
Ans: Divestiture Process
32. As the passenger is being screened, security staff members analyze the contents of the passenger’s bag using conventional x-ray technology or explosive detection system (EDS) technology.
Ans: Carry-on Baggage Screening
33. Provided passenger belongings have been cleared through the X-ray analysis; passengers are reunited with their belongings and allowed to proceed into the sterile area.
Ans: Exit Process
34. Disabled passengers and those in wheelchairs often must be hand searched.
Ans: Special Circumstances
35. New technology is being developed, including explosive trace portals, liquid explosive detectors, and document scanning devices. These technologies are being integrated into the passenger and carry-on baggage screening process.
Ans: Newer Technology
36. The ______ of a passenger terminal building is one of the significant factors determining how and at which point the final screening of passengers and their baggage will be carried out.
Ans: Design
37. A characteristic of the Holding Area Plan include:
Ans: The boarding gate door is closed; therefore access to the aircraft is denied
38. Using the Concourse Plan will mean:
Ans: Police have more time to react to an incident
39. In the Boarding Gate Plan, the terminal is separated into three areas:
Ans: Terminal, concourse, and pier
40. The advantages of adopting the Boarding Gate Plan include:
Ans: It minimizes the chance of mixing between screened and unscreened passengers
41. An Access Control System includes the following except for:
A. Signage
B. Personnel identification systems
C. Law enforcement response
D. Fire Detection System
Ans: Fire Detection System
42. The most common form of barrier in an airport is the _____.
Ans: Perimeter Fence
43. This type of barrier uses radio frequency identification (RFID) technology.
Ans: Electronic boundary
44. This type of barrier includes bodies of water, expanses of trees, swampland, or cliffs.
Ans: Natural Barriers
45. This type of barrier depends on the idea that the ample time it would take an intruder to reach a critical facility effectively reduces the likelihood of the intruder successfully reaching the protected location.
Ans: Time and Distance Barrier
46. Security gates should have a ____-foot clearway at the surface and ideally be recessed _-feet into the ground to prevent tunnelling by humans and animals (there must still be 7 feet of visible fencing above ground).
Ans: 10-foot, 3-feet
47. How should the number of doors between landside and airside areas be managed?
Ans: The number of doors must be kept to an operational minimum
48. At large airports, how are "closed-circuit TV monitors" used in relation to access doors?
Ans: They are used to view access doors and tied electronically into the ACAMS system.
49. What is a key security measure to prevent unauthorized entry into secure areas?
Ans: Integration of a door opening delay
50. What technology do "higher-tech sensor line gates" use instead of a hard physical barrier?
Ans: Microwaves, infrared, or other electronic sensor technology.
51. What must vehicle access control points have for effective security?
Ans: An unobstructed view of the surrounding area
52. What should guards at access control points be trained to do?
Ans: Search a vehicle for prohibited items
53. What standard must the perimeter fencing for vehicle control points meet?
Ans: It must meet the same standard as the airport fence
54. Which of the following is NOT required for guard posts at vehicle control points?
A. Lighting
B. Communications
C. Manpower
D. Automated entry systems
Ans: Automated entry systems
55. What is the purpose of a "zoning" system in airport security?
Ans: To limit access only to certain parts of restricted areas based on need and activity
56. How many zones are recommended for airports to keep the system manageable?
Ans: About 6 zones
57. What is required for personnel to access the Security Identification Display Area (SIDA) without an escort?
Ans: An airport ID badge, access/ID, or SIDA credentials
58. What is an advantage of a "biometric-enabled" access card?
Ans: It is indivisibly linked to the authorized bearer through biometric data
59. Who must escort individuals with temporary permits in restricted areas?
Ans: Full-time permit holders
60. What is the primary purpose of combining physical security with technology-based solutions at airports?
Ans: To help security personnel perform tasks such as discreet screening operations and monitoring
61. Which of the following items are NOT included under the term "Air Cargo"?
a. Hand Luggage
b. Unaccompanied baggage
c. Trans-shipments
d. Postal mail
Ans: Hand Luggage
62. Which of the following is NOT a reason why air cargo security is considered a complex issue?
a. The range of size and weight of the packages
b. The diverse nature of the contents
c. The use of standardized, uniform cargo content across all shipments
d. The time pressure imposed by the urgent nature of shipments
Ans: The use of standardized, uniform cargo content across all shipments
63. Who is the Consignee in the air cargo supply chain?
a. The person or organization that originates the cargo
b. The person who finally receives the cargo
c. Both A and B
d. None of the Above
Ans: Both A and B
64. Which of the following agencies is involved in the air cargo supply chain?
a. Customs Officer
b. Freight Forwarder or Cargo Agent
c. Passenger Service Agent
d. Ground Transportation Driver
Ans: Freight Forwarder or Cargo Agent
65. Which of the following statements regarding the core principles of air cargo security is correct?
- Aircraft carrying air cargo must operate from within a secure environment.
- A consignment of air cargo, once security screened, does not require protection from interference.
a. Only statement 1 is true
b. Only statement 2 is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false
Ans: Only statement 1 is true
66. What are the main distinctions between active and preventative security measures in air cargo screening?
Ans: Active measures include x-ray machines and explosive detection dogs, while preventative measures focus on securing cargo from packing to loading.
67. What does the "Regulated Agent Concept" entail regarding air cargo security measures?
Ans: It includes devolving security responsibilities and beginning security measures well away from the airport.
68. Which of the following responsibilities are aircraft operators, freight forwarders, postal authorities, and courier companies accountable for regarding the security of air cargo consignments?
a. Only screening consignments and ensuring they are delivered to the final destination without any security measures.
b. Allowing unregulated agents to handle the security of consignments without any oversight.
c. Relying solely on the aircraft operator to maintain the security of all cargo once it is loaded onto the aircraft.
d. Identifying consignments with easily determined security, screening those with unclear security, maintaining their security until delivery, and providing written security status documents.
Ans: D.
69. What is a regular shipper who packs the cargo in a secure environment and maintains it in a secure state until delivery to the regulated agent (RA) called?
Ans: Known Consignor
70. Which of the following responsibilities does an Aircraft Operator have regarding cargo security? D.
a. The cargo must be delivered by an established employee of a regulated agent or known Consignor.
b. The cargo must be covered by valid documentation that has been checked for inconsistencies.
c. The cargo must be checked to ensure that there is no evidence of tampering.
d. All of the above.
Ans: D.
71. Which of the following are considered security measures to ensure the integrity of air cargo?
a. Random checks, secure transportation, and access control
b. Only documented records and secure storage
c. Pre-employment background checks and employee training only
d. Random checks, employee uniforms, and flight schedules
Ans: A.
72. Which term describes the regulations adopted by the EU in response to security threats related to air cargo and mail, which require specific security measures for airlines carrying cargo from non-EU countries?
Ans: Air Cargo or Mail Carrier operating into the Union from a Third Country Airport (ACC3)
73. What must an air carrier deliver to demonstrate its aviation security responsibilities to the civil aviation authorities of an EU member state, outlining how it meets security requirements for flying cargo and mail?
Ans:Declaration of Commitments
74. Who is responsible for verifying the security operations of ACC3s to ensure that cargo and mail destined for the EU are screened or originate from a secure supply chain?
Ans: Independent Validator
75. What must be ensured in the Mail Security Procedure to protect against threats such as improvised explosive devices?
Ans: Mail will only be accepted if clearly identified, visually inspected for signs of tampering, and stored in a secure area.
76. What security measures should be applied during the transportation and delivery of catering supplies to ensure their integrity until loading onto the aircraft?
Ans: Implementation of effective access control and pass systems.
77. What are the key security measures that must be implemented at catering facilities to prevent the introduction of weapons or prohibited items into aircraft supplies?
Ans: Security measures must be applied in buildings where catering supplies and stores are prepared, stored, and dispatched to ensure that no device or weapon is introduced into consignments.
78. Why is it essential for catering staff to undergo pre-employment background checks?
Ans: To verify their previous employment history and establish their identity.
79. What term describes the entity responsible for ensuring that cargo is securely handled and transported, including verifying documentation, checking for tampering, and keeping the cargo secure from acceptance until loading onto the aircraft?
Ans: Aircraft Operator
80. Which of the following agencies is NOT typically involved in the cargo supply chain?
a. Consignor
b. Cargo Handling Agent
c. Freight Forwarder
d. Customs Officer
Ans: Customs Officer
81. What should be done if there is reason to believe a sterile area’s security has been compromised?
Ans: Evacuate and re-screen passengers and personnel.
82. Which of the following is NOT typically screened in pre-boarding procedures?
a) VIPs
b) Diplomats
c) Airline Crew Members
d) Passengers with Disabilities
Ans: Airline Crew Members
83. What must security officers do before passengers enter a sterile area?
Ans: Conduct a security sweep to check for suspicious items.
84. In which region is there generally no legal obligation for airlines or airports to assist passengers with disabilities?
Ans: South America
85. Which of the following might be a reason for a physical check of mobility aids, such as wheelchairs, during pre-board screening?
a) To repair any damage to the aids
b) To prevent smuggling prohibited items into the aircraft cabin
c) To verify the brand of the aids
d) To check for appropriate passenger usage
Ans: B.
86. Which of the following is NOT allowed in a sterile area?
A) Allowing screened and unscreened individuals to mix.
B) Monitoring passengers during boarding.
C) Keeping departing and arriving passengers separate.
D) Locking the area when not in use.
Ans: A.
87. What does WCMP stands for?
Ans: Wheelchair (manual powered)
88. What does WCBD stands for?
Ans: Wheelchair (dry cell battery)
89. What does a diplomat implicitly agree to when purchasing an airline ticket?
Ans: To consent to routine security measures, including screening of their personal baggage.
90. According to the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations (1961), how should diplomatic bags be handled during screening?
Ans: Diplomatic bags can be technically screened but cannot be opened and inspected.
91. What is a possible security measure for screening passengers in wheelchairs?
Ans: Transferring them to a pre-searched wheelchair
92. Who is generally responsible for assisting passengers with disabilities in the European Union?
Ans: The airport
93. What is required before staff can enter sterile areas?
Ans: They must pass through security screening.
94. What does WCMB stand for?
Ans: Wheelchair (lithium-ion battery)
95. What does WCOB stand for?
Ans: Onboard wheelchair provided by the airline.
96. What does WCBW stand for?
Ans: Wheelchair (wet cell battery)
97. What defines a "sterile area" according to IATA (2018)?
Ans: An area after passengers and their cabin baggage have undergone final screening.
98. Why must departing and arriving passengers be kept separate in sterile areas?
Ans: Because equivalent security measures are not guaranteed for all passengers internationally.
99. Who is responsible for ensuring sterile areas are locked when not in use?
Ans: Security officers.
100. How is the sterility of a secured area maintained after an initial search?
Ans: By ensuring no unscreened individuals enter the area.