Nursing 308

Describe the characteristics of an ACUTE illness

rapid onset
short duration
self-limiting
responsive to treatment
complications are infrequent
return to previous level of functioning

Describe the characteristics of a CHRONIC illness

prolonged
does not resolve spontaneously
rarely completely cured, but can be managed
irreversible pathologic changes
residual disability
long term nursing/medical management

Trajectory of a chronic illness

onset -- stable --acute -- comeback -- crisis -- unstable -- downward -- dying

Preventing and managing a crisis, adjusting to changes in the course of the disease, preventing social isolation, and normalizing interactions with others are all what?

tasks of a person with a chronic illness

Give examples of primary prevention

diet, exercise, TLC, immunizations, handwashing, social distancing

Give examples of secondary prevention

screening for early detection of disease

Give examples of tertiary prevention

treatment and limiting disease progression

What should always be included in your plan of care for a patient with a chronic illness?

chronic disease management

What are some differences in assessment for OA?

keeping the pt warm bc they have decreased subcutaneous fat, adapt positioning to physical limitations, perform as many activities as possible in position of comfort for patient, provide a quiet environment for assessment of head and neck because of possible sensory impairments, use caution when palpating the liver bc its readily available (softer and thinner abdominal wall)

Becoming chronically ill is 3x more likely after what age?

45

what are some forms of semi-formal social support?

social groups and religious organizations

what are some forms of formal social support?

in-home professional care giving, adult daycare, assisted living, NHs

What is elder abuse?

physical violence

What is neglect?

withholding food, water, or meds

what is exploitation?

use of OA's money for own gain

A nurse has a duty to do what when abuse, neglect, or exploitation is suspected?

mandatory reporting

what is self neglect?

person is able to meet own needs, but refuses

self neglect increases what?

mortality

What are some care alternatives for OA?

Home health care, adult day care, LTC facilities, PACE, assisted living

What are the requirements for home health?

HCP order, need for skilled care, intermittent acute care, not 24/7 care

What is PACE?

programs for all inclusive care for the elderly. it is needs based care 24/7 in the home; alternative to NH

what are the requirements for assisted living facilities?

must be mostly independent with ADLs

Role of the nurse when caring for OA?

advocate for them, help the pt to communicate their wants to family and providers

Impotants facts to know about the use of restraints?

last resort, ONLY to ensure safety
lest restrictive approach
highly regulated so know your facility, state, and federal guidelines

What is the #1 cause for hospital re-admissions in OA after a transfer of care?

failure to pick up and take meds appropriately

Where do most accidents occur for OA?

in or around the home

What should you do to prevent confusion of OA on admission to hospital?

carefully orient them to the environment

Regarding medication use, what is a common cause of hospitalization and disability or death in OA?

polypharmacy, errors are common

T/F: depression is a normal part of aging?

false

T/F: OA have the second highest rate of suicide?

true

patient who is forgoing treatment of a terminal illness but still needs symptom management would likely benefit from?

hospice care

a patient who is still in treatment for a serious health issue who has a poor quality of life due to their heath issue would likely benefit from?

palliative care

T/F: a nurse is legally and ethically responsive for preparing a patient for discharge?

true

When does discharge planning begin?

on admission and continues through hospital stay

The immediate response to injury or infection that resolves spontaneously or with treatment, healing occurs in 2-3 weeks, and usually has no residual damage is

acute inflammatory response

an inflammatory response that is similar to acute, but lingers for weeks to months would be classified as

subacute

An ongoing response to chronic condition that last months to years is a

chronic inflammatory response

manifestations of local inflammation

erythema, warmth, pain, edema, exudate, loss of function

manifestations of systemic inflammation

increased WBC, malaise, nausea, anorexia, increased pulse, increased respiratory rate, fever

severe inflammation may cause what?

hypovolemia , the fluid shifts from intravascular space to site of inflammation (pts will need to increase fluid intake)

For local injury, what do we do?

RICE - rest, ice (heat after 24-48hrs, compression/immobilization, elevation

What vitamins are used for wound healing?

A, B, C, D

A mild to moderate fever of 103 may be ____________ ?

beneficial, bacteria cannot grow at high temperatures

Although a fever of 103 could be beneficial, we should consider treating the fever if

very young, very old, patient is uncomfortable

Who should you ALWAYS treat a fever in?

immunocompromised

What level of fever should ALWAYS be treated?

< 104

T/F: infection may be asymptomatic at times?

true

What kind of precautions are needed for a patient with MRSA?

contact

What kind of precautions are needed for a patient with COVID?

droplet

What kind of precautions are needed for a patient with TB or chickenpox?

airborne

What is cellulitis?

inflammation of the subcutaneous tissue

What kind of abx will be needed for cellulitis? topical or systemic?

systemic

cellulitis often follows what?

skin breakdown

what can cellulitis progress to if untreated?

gangrene

How do we treat cellulitis?

moist heat, immobilization, elevation, abx, hospitilization if severe

T/F: cleansing hands with alcohol based hand sanitizer is sufficient after assessing a client with c. diff?

false, need to wash hands with soap and water, use bleach based disinfectants on equipment

What is sepsis characterized by?

dysregulated patient response along with new organ dysfunction related to infection

manifestations of sepsis?

hypothermia, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, hyperglycemia, AMS, WBC count can be low, normal, or high

When should you get cultures on a wound?

before first dose of abx

what is the nurses job regarding a C&S report?

monitor for results and notify provider

T/F: patient do not need to finish complete dose of abx if their symptoms resolve

false, need to finish COMPLETE dose

T/F: hair should be removed before surgery ONLY if it will interfere with the procedure?

true

you should use clippers or a razor to remove hair before a procedure?

clippers

prophylactic abx should be given when during a procedure?

less than 1 hour before 1st surgical incision

T/F: allergy is an immune response?

true

Characteristics of a Type I latex allergy?

happens withing minutes of exposure, skin manifestations to anaphylaxis

Characteristics of a Type IV latex allergy?

contact dermatitis, delayed response 6-48hrs

What food allergies could also indicate a latex allergy?

avocados, bananas

A pt with an allergy to shellfish could also have an allergy to?

iodine

All patients with allergies should receive a

allergy band

Who should also be notified about a patient's allergy to latex?

dietary

Innate immunity is

present at birth

Acquired immunity is

development of active or passive immunity

Examples of active immunity

illness and immunizations

examples of passive immunity

breast milk, placental transfer, administration of immune globulin

Pt education must be __________ for every patient

documented

Educating a patient on not introducing soap to the vagina, during a bath is an example of what kind of teaching?

informal

Teaching a patient how to use an inhaler for the first time is an example of what kind of teaching?

formal

What is the difference between teaching and learning?

teaching is a nursing intervention, learning is a patient outcome

What are barrier to teaching for the nurse?

time, self-efficacy, disparities

goals for teaching should be SMART, what doe it stand for?

S- specific
M - measurable
A - attainable
R - relevant
T - timely

Who initiates the time out during a surgical procedure?

circulating nurse

When does the pre-op period start?

when the pt is scheduled for surgery

when does the pre-op period end?

transfer to the surgical suite

Whos job is it to tell the pt about the benefits/risks of surgery?

surgeon

Consent must be signed before what?

sedating meds are given

Nurse ALWAYS needs to do what when handling patient valuables before surgery

DOCUMENT - be VERY specific

Patient should do what on call to the OR?

void

in the unrestricted area, what kind of attire is appropriate?

street attire

in the semi-restricted area, what kind of attire is appropriate?

authorized personnel in clean attire

in the restricted area, what kind of attire is appropriate?

strict surgical asepsis

surgical care improvement project says

prophylactic abx 1 hour prior to incisions, warming blankets to prevent hypothermia, SCDs to prevent VTE

Check in, time out, and check out are part of what

WHO surgical safety checklist

a grounding pad and appropriate clothing are used to prevent

fire/burns

postoperative assessment includes

ABCs, neurologic, fluid balance, gastro, surgical site

How should a pt be positioned until they gain conciousness after surgery?

lateral

How should a pt be positioned once they regain conciousness after surgery?

supine with HOB elevated

incentive spirometer should be used ________ every ______ hour(s) while awake

10x; 1 hour

hypothermia is a temp of

< 96.8

example of passive warming

blankets

example of active warming

warm fluids

Malignant hyperthermia is a core body temp over

105

Oral intake should resume once

ordered and gag reflex returns

Positioning a pt on which side can relieve gas pain?

right

A urinary catheter should be removed within ______ hours after surgery unless otherwise indicated

24

DC after an ambulatory sx requires the pt to be

stable, pain controlled, near level of pre-op functioning

can a pt drive after ambulatory sx?

no

What kind of wounds are more common in OA?

skin tears

pressure ulcers can be caused by pressure OR

pressure and shear

What are examples of wounds healing by primary intention?

sutured wounds, minor lacerations

What are examples of wounds healing by secondary intention?

margins are gaping and cannot be approximated, healing occurs from margins inward from the bottom upward

What are examples of wounds healing by tertiary intention?

contaminated wounds (a stump following traumatic amputation, surgeon will leave wound open, then go in a close it later)

What are some factors that can delay wound healing?

hyperglycemia, circulatory/vascular disorders, chronic disease states

When should you assess for pressure ulcers?

on admission and every 24hrs during stay

drain management should include

maintaining cleanliness at insertion site, emptying as prescribed/indicated, record drainage amount

Intracellular fluid (ICF) makes up ____ of the body

2/3

Extracellular fluid (ECF) makes up _____ of the body

1/3

what is a good indicator of overall fluid volume loss/gain

sudden body weight changes

what is a good indicator of cardiac output in non-renal failure patients?

hourly urine output

What is the KEY indicator of fluid status?

urine specific gravity

intake > output is a ____ fluid balance

positive

intake < output is a ______ fluid balance

negative

1st spacing

normal distribution of fluid in all compartments

2nd spacing

abnormal excess of fluid in intersitital spaces

3rd spacing

fluid accumulation in areas in which exchange with the rest of ECF cannot easily occur (pleura, pericardial, peritoneal spaces)

insensible water loss

invisible evaporation from lungs and skin

T/F: skin turgor is a good way to check fluid staus in the OA

false - check under tongue

T/F: Cushing's can cause hypervolemia (FVO)

true

labs for FVD include:

oliguria and concentrated urine (urine specific gravity, HCT [increased], Na, BUN, plasma osmolarity)

labs for FVO include:

electrolyte levels, daily weights, I&O

T/F: the HOB should be elevated for pts with FVO

true

sodium imbalances cause

brain changes (loc, seizures)

potassium imbalances cause

heart changes (EKG changes, heart block)

calcium imbalances cause

muscular/bone changes

nurse should monitor what and consult who for pts with electrolyte imbalances?

monitor labs, consult dietary

T/F: acid-base imbalance is a disease

false - its a symptom of underlying causes

Hyperventilation will cause what acid-base imbalance?

respiratory alkalosis (not blowing off the CO2)

hypoventilation will cause what acid-base imbalance?

respiratory acidosis (holding the CO2 in)

what is the mnemonic for acid-base balances

ROME (respiratory opposite, metabolic equal)

Joint Commission requires nutritional screening for all patients within ______ hours of admission and should be done by a ______.

24; registered dietician

starvation related malnutrition:

nutritional needs are not met

Chronic disease related malnutrition:

increased or special nutritional needs due to chronic inflammation

acute disease or injury related malnutrition:

increased nutritional needs due to marked acute inflammation from burns, infection, surgery, trauma

Low pre-albumin indicates acute or chronic malnutrition?

acute

low albumin indicated acute or chronic malnutrition?

chronic

What should the nurse document for a pt with nutritional needs?

% of meal eaten and calorie count

PPN is intended to

supplement oral feedings

can PPN be given through a 20g IV in the right AC?

yes

TPN is

TOTAL parenteral nutrition

TPN must be administered through what kind of line?

central line (PICC)

Patient on PPN/TPN are at risk for what?

hyper and hypoglycemia

what kind of tubing should be used when administering TPN and PPN?

inline filter tubing

How often should the TPN/PPN solution be changed?

Q24hrs

What do you do inf the next bag of TPN/PPN is not ready when the current bag runs out? WHY???

hang dextrose and water solution equal to that of the PPN/TPN until the next bag arrives. To prevent hypoglycemia!!

What is refeeding syndrome?

a complication of parenteral nutrition, fluid retention, electrolyte imbalances

What is the hallmark for refeeding syndrome?

hypophosphatemia

Obese patients are at risk for what complication of anesthesia?

re-sedation

T/F: pain is objective and the pt must have physical manifestations related to pain in order to receive analgesics in order to prevent substance abuse.

False - pain is SUBJECTIVE. EVERYONE has the right to adequate pain management

what is nociceptive pain?

damage to somatic or visceral tissue

somatic pain comes from where?

joints, bone, muscle, skin, connective tissue, can be superficial or deep and it is localized

visceral pain comes from where?

visceral organs - can also have referred pain

What is neuropathic pain?

damage to peripheral nerve or CNS

what are the cahracteristics of neuropathic pain?

numbing, burning, shooting, stabbing, or electrical in nature

T/F: acute pain has a sudden onset, less than 3 months, increase in HR, RR, BP

true

T/F: chronic pain has a gradual or sudden onset, last for more than 3 months, characterized by waxing and waning but does not go away, and can cause social withdrawl

true

T/F: pt should wait until pain is unbearable to take analgesics to prevent addiction

false

can the nurse push the button on a PCA pump for a patient if the patient asks them to?

no - ONLY the patient may press the button

what should be educate our patients on PCA pumps about?

that the pump is programmed and they cannot overdose themselves

What is end-dose-failure

pain that occurs at or near the time of next dose - may need another analgesics prescribed for breakthrough pain

T/F: after a nurse prescribed pain meds, they need to document that administration, reassess the patient in 1 hours, document the reassessment

true

Hypotension is a BP of

<100/<60

symptoms of hypotension

weakness, dizziness, confusion, organ dysfunction

T/F: HTN is modifiable

true

hypertension is also called what?

"silent killer"

does HTN incidence increase with age?

yes - atherosclerosis

manifestations of HTN?

silent killer, fatigue, reduced activity tolerance, dizziness, palpitations, angina, dyspnea

what category is a blood pressure of < 120/< 80?

normal

what category is a blood pressure of 120-129/<80?

elevated

what category is a blood pressure of 130-139/80-89

HTN stage I

what category is a blood pressure of >140/>90

HTN stage II

to be classified as having HTN you must have

sustained elevation of BP for 2 or more readings, both arms, separate occasions OR currently use any anti-HTN medications

primary HTN is

elevated BP without an identified cause

90-95% of all cases of HTN are primary or secondary?

primary

secondary HTN is

elevated BP with a specific cause, identify and treat underlying cause to reverse HTN

does cushing's disease cause seconary HTN?

yes

Almost everyone who has DM also has ______

HTN

What are some lifestyle changes that can modify HTN?

weight loss, restrict sodium, moderate alcohol consumption, (1/day for women, 2/day for men), tobacco cessation, manage stress

You should always monitor labs before administering BP drugs, but which labs especially?

electrolytes

what should always be documented with a BP reading?

site it was taken at

T/F: position affects BP

true

what affect does supine positioning have on BP?

increased SBP, decreased DBP

what affect does a sitting position have on BP?

decrease SBP, increased DBP

When would you hold BP medication?

hypotension, abnormal labs [esp. K or renal function]

T/F: nurse does not need to notify provider when a drug is held

false - always notify provider when holding a drug

How do you calculate MAP?

(SBP + 2DBP)/3

what is the minimum MAP?

60

what should you do if a pt has a map < 60?

call rapid response

how do you calculate pulse pressure?

SBP-DBP

what is a normal pulse pressure?

40

pulse pressure is _________ in pts with atherosclerosis

increased

pulse pressure is _________ in pts with HF and hypovolemia

decreased

T/F: it is okay for patient to stop taking BP drugs if they make them feel bad

false - no abrupt cessation

we should always educate our pts that therapy for HTN _________, it is not a _______

controls; cure

T/F: follow up appointments are not important for BP control

false - follow up are crucial in achieving BP goals

T/F: pts should bring their home BP monitoring device with them to their appointments

true - devices should be checked regularly for accuracy

A BP of what is classified as hypertensive urgency?

>180/110

T/F: hypertensive urgency has no signs of target organ damage and is treated with oral anti-HTN meds

true

What BP is classified as hypertensive emergency?

above 220/140

T/F: hypertensive emergency has signs of target organ damage, and is treated with IV anti-HTN drugs

true

What is the most common reason for hospitalization for people over the age of 65?

heart failure

How is heart failure classified?

according to phase of cardiac contraction and according to side of the heart

What is the overall result of heart failure no matter the classification?

decreased cardiac output

left sided systolic heart failure is the inability of the heart to do what?

L ventricle to EMPTY adequately [can't squeeze hard enough]

left sided diastolic HF is the inability of heart to do what?

L ventricle FILL adequately

what will the heart muscle look like in someone with systolic failure?

weak/floppy

what will the heart muscle look like in someone with diastolic failure?

stiff/thick

Clinical manifestations of LHF?

Left=Lungs so, problems with the lungs

What is the primary cause of RHF?

LHF

Clinical manifestations of RHF

right = venous congestion

What is a great indicator of cardiac output?

urine output

Class I heart failure

no signs

Class II heart failure

little symptoms with increased activity

Class III heart failure

starting to struggle with ADLs

Class IV heart failure

cannot even lay in bed without symptoms

T/F: HF patients can move classes with treatment

true

Acute decompensated Heart Failure manifests as what?

pulmonary edema

What does the diet of a pt with HF look like?

Na restriction (2-3g/day), increase K, fluid restriction

Nurse should do what 2 things with patients who have heart failure?

monitor I&O and daily weights (should stay withing 1-2lbs of baseline weight)

What position is best for pts with HF?

semi or high fowlers

Nurse should discourage what in patients with HF

valsalva maneuver

Palliative and end-of life care are indicated in patients with what stage HF

D

Class IV HF with life expectancy of < 6 months ---- pt would benefit from?

hospice

PAD - does incidence increase with age?

yes - can occur at younger age in pts with DM

Most commonly affected areas for PAD?

carotid, coronary, lower extremities

Risk factors of PAD

smokine, CKD, DM, HTN, sedentary lifestyle, obesity, advanced age, stress

Clinical manifestations of PAD

intermittent claudication

intermittent claudication causes

pain with activity, relief with rest

complications of PAD

atrophy of skin and underlying muscles, delayed wound healing, infections, tissue necrosis, arterial ulcers of bony prominences like feet, toes, lower legs, gangrene leading to amputation

assessment findings of PAD

thing, shiny, taut skin, loss of hair on lower legs, pulselessness, pallor when legs are elevated, resting pain that is worse at night and aggravated with elevation

Critical Limb Ischemia

end stage of PAD, chronic ischemic pain at rest lasting more than 2 weeks

Diagnostic studies for PAD

segmented BP; ankle brachial index (ABI)

How do you do segmented BP?

at thigh, below knee, and ankle with pt laying supine

A drop in BP greater than ______ indicated PAD - segmented BP

30

ABI of what indicated PAD?

<0.9

T/F: ABI should only be used for basic screening bc results can be skewed

true

What medications are critical for PAD patients to reduce risk of CVD?

antiplatelets and ACE inhibitors

what is the goal for a patient experiencing intermittent claudication?

improve pain-free walking distance

diet for pts with PAD

reduce cholesterol and triglycerides, lower BG, reduce Na to < 2g/day

what kind of exercise should pts with PAD do?

a supervised program of 30-45 mins of walking or cycling 3x/week for at least 3 months

What is the most common surgical approach for pts with PAD?

peripheral artery bypass

T/F: in the beginning stages of PAD, pt will have pain with exertion and in later stages pts will also have pain at rest

true

PRE-op care of leg with CLI

protect limb from trauma, dependant positioning, NO ice, NO elevation, NO compression

What position can be beneficial for pts with PAD?

reverse trendelenberg

POST-op care of leg with CLI

check extremity q15 initially, then hourly, monitor for the 6 P's, discourage prolonged sitting with legs in dependent position, even walking short distances is desirable

if edema occurs in a pt post-op from CLI, what should you do?

position the pt supine and elevate the leg above the heart level, early ambulation

Risk factor for PVD

chronic venous congestion, obesity, sedentary lifestyle

treatment for PVD includes?

compression, elevation, fluid restriction, diuretics

if you suspect a venous thrombosis what should you do?

compare the size of the affected extremity with the other one

T/F: pts with PVD may be on bedrest initially?

true

What drugs would you expect a PVD pt to be on?

anticoagulants

what should PVD pts avoid?

prolonged sitting, nicotine and oral contraceptives

T/F: COPD is chronic and progressive?

true

T/F: COPD is preventable and treatable

true

A deficiency of what is genetically linked to COPD?

AAT

T/F: COPD develops rapidly

false

Disgnostic study for COPD?

spirometry is gold standard

What is the goal O2 sat for a pt with COPD?

> or equal to 90%

What kind of diet is recommended for COPD pts?

high calorie, high protein

What is important to note about meals for pts with COPD?

they should eat 5-6 SMALL meals a day to conserve energy, should avoid meals that require a lot of chewing, should avoid treatments and exercise for 1 hour before and after treatment, should rest for 30 minutes before eating

T/F: energy conservation is VERY important for COPD patients

true

diet for pts with PAD