Cma practice exam
Part I — Professionalism & Communication
Which behavior best demonstrates professionalism by a medical assistant?
A. Arriving late but staying after work
B. Maintaining appropriate boundaries with patients
C. Discussing patients with friends
D. Sharing personal problems with patients
Answer: B. Maintaining appropriate boundaries with patients
A patient is upset because the provider is running late. What is the best response?
A. "The provider is always late."
B. "There's nothing I can do."
C. "I understand you're frustrated. Let me check on the status of your appointment."
D. "You can leave if you don't want to wait."
Answer: C. "I understand you're frustrated. Let me check on the status of your appointment."
Which communication technique encourages a patient to provide more information?
A. Asking open-ended questions
B. Interrupting frequently
C. Using only yes/no questions
D. Changing the subject
Answer: A. Asking open-ended questions
Which is an example of active listening?
A. Planning your response while the patient talks
B. Looking at your computer continuously
C. Restating important information to confirm understanding
D. Interrupting to correct the patient
Answer: C. Restating important information to confirm understanding
A medical assistant should use medical terminology when speaking with patients:
A. At all times
B. Only when the patient requests it
C. When appropriate and understood by the patient
D. To demonstrate knowledge
Answer: C. When appropriate and understood by the patient
Which action demonstrates good teamwork?
A. Refusing to help coworkers
B. Sharing appropriate information with members of the healthcare team
C. Criticizing coworkers in front of patients
D. Completing only tasks specifically assigned
Answer: B. Sharing appropriate information with members of the healthcare team
A patient who speaks limited English needs important medical instructions. The medical assistant should:
A. Ask a minor child to interpret
B. Speak louder
C. Use an appropriate qualified interpreter according to office policy
D. Tell the patient to bring a friend next time
Answer: C. Use an appropriate qualified interpreter according to office policy
Which behavior could be considered inappropriate professional boundaries?
A. Maintaining confidentiality
B. Accepting an expensive personal gift from a patient
C. Explaining office procedures
D. Treating patients respectfully
Answer: B. Accepting an expensive personal gift from a patient
A medical assistant discovers that they do not know how to perform a requested procedure. What should they do?
A. Guess
B. Perform it anyway
C. Seek appropriate instruction or assistance
D. Ask the patient how it is done
Answer: C. Seek appropriate instruction or assistance
Which is the most appropriate response to constructive criticism?
A. Become defensive
B. Ignore it
C. Consider the feedback and make appropriate improvements
D. Discuss the supervisor's criticism with patients
Answer: C. Consider the feedback and make appropriate improvements
Which action best protects patient dignity?
A. Leaving the examination-room door open
B. Discussing the patient's condition in the waiting room
C. Providing appropriate draping during an examination
D. Asking unnecessary personal questions
Answer: C. Providing appropriate draping during an examination
When communicating with an elderly patient who has difficulty hearing, the medical assistant should:
A. Shout
B. Face the patient and speak clearly
C. Speak only to the patient's family
D. Speak rapidly
Answer: B. Face the patient and speak clearly
Which is an example of nonverbal communication?
A. Telephone conversation
B. Written instructions
C. Facial expression
D. Medical history
Answer: C. Facial expression
If a coworker makes an inappropriate joke about a patient, the medical assistant should:
A. Join in
B. Ignore it
C. Address/report the inappropriate behavior according to workplace policy
D. Repeat it to another coworker
Answer: C. Address/report the inappropriate behavior according to workplace policy
Which quality is especially important when working with patients?
A. Judgmental behavior
B. Empathy
C. Impatience
D. Argumentativeness
Answer: B. Empathy
A medical assistant should recognize that scope of practice is determined by:
A. What the assistant personally feels comfortable doing
B. Applicable laws, regulations, employer policies, and delegation
C. What another assistant does
D. Patient preference alone
Answer: B. Applicable laws, regulations, employer policies, and delegation
Part II — Medical Law & Ethics
HIPAA primarily protects:
A. Employee salaries
B. Patient health information
C. Medical equipment
D. Office supplies
Answer: B. Patient health information
Which situation is most likely a HIPAA violation?
A. Discussing a patient's care privately with the provider
B. Verifying a patient's identity
C. Talking about a patient's diagnosis in a crowded public elevator
D. Using a secure EHR
Answer: C. Talking about a patient's diagnosis in a crowded public elevator
Informed consent means that a patient:
A. Automatically agrees to every procedure
B. Receives appropriate information before consenting to a procedure
C. Must always sign every medical form
D. Cannot refuse treatment
Answer: B. Receives appropriate information before consenting to a procedure
Which action could constitute negligence?
A. Following established procedures
B. Failing to perform a required duty and causing patient harm
C. Protecting patient confidentiality
D. Properly documenting care
Answer: B. Failing to perform a required duty and causing patient harm
Which document generally allows a competent adult to state healthcare wishes for future situations in which they may become unable to communicate?
A. Advance directive
B. Superbill
C. CMS-1500
D. Encounter form
Answer: A. Advance directive
A medical assistant should release protected health information:
A. To anyone who asks
B. Only as permitted by law, authorization, or applicable exceptions
C. To friends of the patient
D. Whenever the information is interesting
Answer: B. Only as permitted by law, authorization, or applicable exceptions
Part III — Clinical Medical AssistingInfection Control
The most effective routine method for preventing transmission of infection is:
A. Wearing shoe covers
B. Hand hygiene
C. Taking antibiotics
D. Wearing two pairs of gloves
Answer: B. Hand hygiene
Standard Precautions are used:
A. Only with infectious patients
B. Only in hospitals
C. With all patients
D. Only during surgery
Answer: C. With all patients
When should hand hygiene generally be performed?
A. Only at the beginning of the shift
B. Before and after patient contact and as otherwise indicated
C. Only when gloves are not available
D. Only after eating
Answer: B. Before and after patient contact and as otherwise indicated
Gloves should be worn when:
A. Taking every patient's blood pressure
B. Contact with blood or potentially infectious material is anticipated
C. Talking to a patient
D. Scheduling an appointment
Answer: B. Contact with blood or potentially infectious material is anticipated
Gloves:
A. Replace hand hygiene
B. Never need to be changed
C. Should be changed between patients as appropriate
D. Can be washed and reused
Answer: C. Should be changed between patients as appropriate
Which item belongs in a sharps container?
A. Used needle
B. Used examination paper
C. Cotton ball
D. Paper towel
Answer: A. Used needle
A sharps container should generally be:
A. Reused indefinitely
B. Puncture-resistant and closable
C. Stored on the floor
D. Filled completely before replacement
Answer: B. Puncture-resistant and closable
After a needlestick injury, the medical assistant should first:
A. Ignore it
B. Wash the affected area with soap and water
C. Finish the workday
D. Apply perfume
Answer: B. Wash the affected area with soap and water
Sterilization destroys:
A. Only bacteria
B. Only viruses
C. All forms of microbial life, including spores
D. Visible dirt only
Answer: C. All forms of microbial life, including spores
Disinfection generally refers to:
A. Destroying all spores under every circumstance
B. Reducing or eliminating many pathogenic microorganisms on objects
C. Washing hands
D. Removing all dust
Answer: B. Reducing or eliminating many pathogenic microorganisms on objects
An autoclave uses:
A. Dry ice
B. Steam under pressure
C. Ultraviolet light only
D. Alcohol vapor
Answer: B. Steam under pressure
Which is considered personal protective equipment?
A. Gloves
B. Clipboard
C. Stethoscope
D. Examination table
Answer: A. Gloves
A contaminated instrument should be handled:
A. With bare hands
B. According to the facility's decontamination procedure
C. By placing it in a desk drawer
D. By giving it to the patient
Answer: B. According to the facility's decontamination procedure
A blood spill should be cleaned:
A. With bare hands
B. Using appropriate PPE and approved disinfectant according to policy
C. With a dry paper towel only
D. At the end of the month
Answer: B. Using appropriate PPE and approved disinfectant according to policy
Anatomy & Physiology
The body's largest organ is the:
A. Liver
B. Skin
C. Heart
D. Lung
Answer: B. Skin
The basic structural and functional unit of the body is the:
A. Tissue
B. Organ
C. Cell
D. System
Answer: C. Cell
The heart is primarily responsible for:
A. Filtering urine
B. Pumping blood
C. Producing insulin
D. Digesting food
Answer: B. Pumping blood
The lungs are primarily responsible for:
A. Gas exchange
B. Blood clotting
C. Urine production
D. Bile storage
Answer: A. Gas exchange
The kidneys primarily:
A. Produce bile
B. Filter blood and form urine
C. Pump blood
D. Store oxygen
Answer: B. Filter blood and form urine
Insulin is produced by the:
A. Thyroid
B. Pancreas
C. Adrenal gland
D. Kidney
Answer: B. Pancreas
Red blood cells primarily transport:
A. Oxygen
B. Bile
C. Insulin
D. Urine
Answer: A. Oxygen
White blood cells are primarily involved in:
A. Oxygen transport
B. Immune defense
C. Bone formation
D. Digestion
Answer: B. Immune defense
Platelets are important for:
A. Vision
B. Blood clotting
C. Oxygen exchange
D. Hormone production
Answer: B. Blood clotting
The normal adult human heart has:
A. Two chambers
B. Three chambers
C. Four chambers
D. Five chambers
Answer: C. Four chambers
The body's normal internal temperature is approximately:
A. 90°F
B. 98.6°F
C. 105°F
D. 110°F
Answer: B. 98.6°F
The endocrine system primarily produces:
A. Hormones
B. Red blood cells
C. Urine
D. Digestive enzymes only
Answer: A. Hormones
Vital Signs & Patient Assessment
A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg represents:
A. Systolic/diastolic pressure
B. Diastolic/systolic pressure
C. Pulse/respiration
D. Temperature/pulse
Answer: A. Systolic/diastolic pressure
The radial pulse is found:
A. At the wrist
B. At the neck
C. Behind the knee
D. At the temple
Answer: A. At the wrist
The carotid pulse is located:
A. At the wrist
B. On the side of the neck
C. Behind the ankle
D. At the elbow
Answer: B. On the side of the neck
A normal resting adult respiratory rate is approximately:
A. 2–5/min
B. 12–20/min
C. 30–40/min
D. 50–60/min
Answer: B. 12–20/min
Tachycardia refers to:
A. Abnormally slow heart rate
B. Abnormally fast heart rate
C. Abnormally slow breathing
D. High temperature
Answer: B. Abnormally fast heart rate
Bradycardia refers to:
A. Fast heart rate
B. Slow heart rate
C. High blood pressure
D. High temperature
Answer: B. Slow heart rate
A pulse oximeter measures:
A. Blood pressure
B. Oxygen saturation
C. Blood glucose
D. Body temperature
Answer: B. Oxygen saturation
Before obtaining a blood pressure, the patient should ideally:
A. Exercise vigorously
B. Rest quietly for an appropriate period
C. Drink coffee
D. Smoke
Answer: B. Rest quietly for an appropriate period
Using a blood-pressure cuff that is too small may produce a reading that is:
A. Falsely low
B. Falsely high
C. Always accurate
D. Unreadable
Answer: B. Falsely high
When measuring an oral temperature, the thermometer should be placed:
A. Under the tongue
B. On the forehead only
C. Against the ear canal
D. Under the arm
Answer: A. Under the tongue
Orthostatic vital signs may be obtained to evaluate changes associated with:
A. Body position
B. Vision
C. Hearing
D. Digestion
Answer: A. Body position
When documenting vital signs, the medical assistant should:
A. Estimate them
B. Record them accurately and promptly
C. Record normal values automatically
D. Record only abnormal values
Answer: B. Record them accurately and promptly
Patient Preparation & Physical Examination
Before performing a procedure, the medical assistant should first:
A. Confirm the patient's identity
B. Leave the room
C. Guess the patient's name
D. Begin without explanation
Answer: A. Confirm the patient's identity
Which is an appropriate patient identifier?
A. Room number alone
B. Full name and another approved identifier
C. Diagnosis alone
D. Clothing color
Answer: B. Full name and another approved identifier
The main purpose of draping is to:
A. Prevent examination
B. Protect privacy and dignity
C. Replace consent
D. Keep instruments sterile
Answer: B. Protect privacy and dignity
When assisting a provider with an examination, the medical assistant should:
A. Explain procedures within their role
B. Diagnose the patient
C. Promise a specific outcome
D. Change the provider's orders
Answer: A. Explain procedures within their role
Lithotomy position is commonly used for:
A. Pelvic examination
B. Eye examination
C. Hearing test
D. Chest x-ray only
Answer: A. Pelvic examination
Prone position means the patient is:
A. Lying face down
B. Lying face up
C. Sitting
D. Standing
Answer: A. Lying face down
Supine position means the patient is:
A. Face down
B. Face up
C. On their side
D. Kneeling
Answer: B. Face up
Fowler's position involves the patient being:
A. Sitting or partially sitting with the head elevated
B. Completely face down
C. Standing
D. Lying flat with feet elevated
Answer: A. Sitting or partially sitting with the head elevated
When assisting with a sterile procedure, the medical assistant should:
A. Reach across the sterile field
B. Maintain the sterile field
C. Touch sterile items with contaminated gloves
D. Turn away from the field
Answer: B. Maintain the sterile field
If a sterile instrument becomes contaminated, it should be:
A. Used anyway
B. Considered contaminated and replaced appropriately
C. Wiped with a tissue
D. Returned to the sterile tray
Answer: B. Considered contaminated and replaced appropriately
Phlebotomy
The vein most commonly preferred for routine venipuncture is the:
A. Median cubital
B. Femoral
C. Jugular
D. Popliteal
Answer: A. Median cubital
The cephalic vein is located on the:
A. Thumb side of the arm
B. Little-finger side only
C. Neck
D. Leg
Answer: A. Thumb side of the arm
The basilic vein should be approached with caution because of its proximity to:
A. Nerves and arteries
B. The lungs
C. The stomach
D. The skull
Answer: A. Nerves and arteries
The purpose of a tourniquet is to:
A. Stop arterial circulation completely
B. Make veins more prominent
C. Sterilize the arm
D. Prevent clotting
Answer: B. Make veins more prominent
Excessive tourniquet time can cause:
A. Hemoconcentration
B. Hypothermia
C. Hearing loss
D. Improved test accuracy
Answer: A. Hemoconcentration
The usual venipuncture needle bevel should face:
A. Down
B. Up
C. Sideways
D. Backward
Answer: B. Up
After venipuncture, the used needle should be:
A. Recapped with two hands
B. Bent
C. Immediately discarded into an appropriate sharps container
D. Placed on the tray
Answer: C. Immediately discarded into an appropriate sharps container
Which tube is commonly used for CBC testing?
A. Lavender
B. Light blue
C. Gray
D. Yellow
Answer: A. Lavender
Lavender-top tubes typically contain:
A. EDTA
B. Sodium citrate
C. Heparin only
D. No additive
Answer: A. EDTA
Light-blue-top tubes are commonly used for:
A. Coagulation testing
B. CBC
C. Glucose
D. Blood cultures only
Answer: A. Coagulation testing
Gray-top tubes are commonly associated with:
A. Glucose testing
B. CBC
C. PT/INR
D. Blood typing only
Answer: A. Glucose testing
A hemolyzed specimen may occur because of:
A. Excessive or improper handling
B. Correct technique only
C. Proper tube filling
D. Appropriate mixing
Answer: A. Excessive or improper handling
A patient becomes faint during venipuncture. The medical assistant should:
A. Continue drawing blood
B. Follow safety procedures and assist the patient appropriately
C. Leave the patient alone
D. Tell the patient to stand
Answer: B. Follow safety procedures and assist the patient appropriately
A specimen should be labeled:
A. According to facility policy with correct patient identification
B. At the end of the week
C. Before identifying the patient
D. Only if the test is abnormal
Answer: A. According to facility policy with correct patient identification
If a specimen is mislabeled, the medical assistant should:
A. Guess the correct identity
B. Follow facility policy for rejected/mislabeled specimens
C. Change the label secretly
D. Send it anyway
Answer: B. Follow facility policy for rejected/mislabeled specimens
The order of draw helps prevent:
A. Patient identification
B. Additive carryover between tubes
C. Blood clotting in every tube
D. Needle insertion
Answer: B. Additive carryover between tubes
Specimen Collection
A clean-catch urine specimen generally involves collecting:
A. The first drops only
B. Midstream urine after cleansing
C. Urine from the toilet
D. Any urine from the floor
Answer: B. Midstream urine after cleansing
A urine specimen for culture should be collected using:
A. A sterile container and appropriate technique
B. An open cup
C. A used specimen container
D. Any household container
Answer: A. A sterile container and appropriate technique
A 24-hour urine collection requires:
A. Collection of urine over the specified 24-hour period
B. One random specimen
C. Only the first morning specimen
D. No labeling
Answer: A. Collection of urine over the specified 24-hour period
A stool specimen should generally be:
A. Mixed with toilet water
B. Collected according to the specific test instructions
C. Stored without a container
D. Left unlabeled
Answer: B. Collected according to the specific test instructions
A throat culture is collected from the:
A. Tonsillar/pharyngeal area as directed
B. Tongue only
C. Teeth
D. Ear canal
Answer: A. Tonsillar/pharyngeal area as directed
During a throat culture, the tongue depressor is used to:
A. Measure temperature
B. Improve visualization of the throat
C. Collect blood
D. Measure blood pressure
Answer: B. Improve visualization of the throat
A specimen that requires refrigeration should be:
A. Placed in the appropriate storage condition promptly
B. Left at room temperature indefinitely
C. Frozen automatically
D. Discarded
Answer: A. Placed in the appropriate storage condition promptly
Proper specimen transport is important because:
A. It has no effect on testing
B. Improper handling can alter results
C. It eliminates labeling
D. It replaces patient identification
Answer: B. Improper handling can alter results
ECG/EKG
An ECG records:
A. Electrical activity of the heart
B. Blood glucose
C. Lung volume
D. Body temperature
Answer: A. Electrical activity of the heart
Before applying ECG electrodes, the medical assistant should:
A. Prepare the skin appropriately
B. Apply lotion
C. Place them over clothing
D. Wet the entire patient
Answer: A. Prepare the skin appropriately
ECG electrodes should be placed:
A. According to standard anatomical locations
B. Wherever convenient
C. Only on clothing
D. On top of bandages whenever possible
Answer: A. According to standard anatomical locations
Patient movement during an ECG can cause:
A. Artifact
B. Improved tracing
C. Increased oxygen saturation
D. Lower temperature
Answer: A. Artifact
Electrical interference may be reduced by:
A. Ensuring proper electrode contact and reducing sources of interference
B. Asking the patient to talk continuously
C. Moving the patient repeatedly
D. Removing all electrodes
Answer: A. Ensuring proper electrode contact and reducing sources of interference
During a resting ECG, the patient should generally:
A. Remain relaxed and still
B. Exercise
C. Talk continuously
D. Hold their breath throughout
Answer: A. Remain relaxed and still
If a patient develops severe chest pain during an ECG, the medical assistant should:
A. Diagnose myocardial infarction
B. Follow emergency procedures and notify the provider
C. Ignore it
D. Tell the patient to walk around
Answer: B. Follow emergency procedures and notify the provider
ECG lead wires should be:
A. Connected according to the manufacturer's/office protocol
B. Attached randomly
C. Connected to clothing
D. Left disconnected
Answer: A. Connected according to the manufacturer's/office protocol
Medications
Which is one of the traditional rights of medication administration?
A. Right patient
B. Right diagnosis
C. Right insurance
D. Right room
Answer: A. Right patient
The route by which a medication is given describes:
A. How it enters the body
B. Its expiration date
C. Its color
D. Its cost
Answer: A. How it enters the body
Oral medication is administered:
A. Into a muscle
B. By mouth
C. Into a vein
D. Into the skin
Answer: B. By mouth
Sublingual medication is placed:
A. Under the tongue
B. In the ear
C. Into a muscle
D. On the scalp
Answer: A. Under the tongue
An intramuscular injection is administered into:
A. Muscle tissue
B. Fatty tissue only
C. A vein
D. The epidermis
Answer: A. Muscle tissue
A subcutaneous injection is administered into:
A. Bone
B. Fatty tissue beneath the skin
C. A vein
D. Muscle only
Answer: B. Fatty tissue beneath the skin
The Z-track technique may be used for:
A. Certain intramuscular injections
B. Blood pressure
C. ECGs
D. Urinalysis
Answer: A. Certain intramuscular injections
Medication should be checked for expiration:
A. Only after administration
B. Before administration
C. Only once a year
D. Never
Answer: B. Before administration
A medication label should be compared with the order:
A. At appropriate points during the medication process
B. Only after giving the medication
C. Only if the patient asks
D. Never
Answer: A. At appropriate points during the medication process
If a medication order is unclear, the medical assistant should:
A. Guess
B. Clarify the order with the appropriate provider
C. Ask the patient to choose
D. Change the order
Answer: B. Clarify the order with the appropriate provider
An allergic reaction involving difficulty breathing and swelling requires:
A. Immediate emergency response
B. Routine follow-up next month
C. No action
D. A glass of water only
Answer: A. Immediate emergency response
A medication should be stored:
A. According to its specific storage requirements
B. In direct sunlight
C. Anywhere convenient
D. In an unlocked public area
Answer: A. According to its specific storage requirements
Injections & Safety
The skin should be cleansed before an injection using:
A. Appropriate antiseptic according to protocol
B. Lotion
C. Plain water only in every situation
D. Perfume
Answer: A. Appropriate antiseptic according to protocol
Needles should be:
A. Reused if they look clean
B. Single-use unless specifically designed otherwise
C. Shared between patients
D. Stored uncovered
Answer: B. Single-use unless specifically designed otherwise
After administering an injection, the medical assistant should:
A. Properly dispose of the needle immediately
B. Recap it using two hands
C. Place it in a pocket
D. Put it on the counter
Answer: A. Properly dispose of the needle immediately
Injection complications may include:
A. Infection or injury
B. Improved hearing
C. Increased vision
D. Hair growth
Answer: A. Infection or injury
Part IV — Administrative Medical AssistingMedical Records & EHR
The primary purpose of a medical record is to:
A. Document patient care and relevant health information
B. Store employee schedules only
C. Advertise the practice
D. Replace communication
Answer: A. Document patient care and relevant health information
Documentation should be:
A. Accurate, timely, and objective
B. Based on guesses
C. Written days later whenever possible
D. Altered to make the office look better
Answer: A. Accurate, timely, and objective
If an error is made in a paper medical record, the medical assistant should generally:
A. Erase it completely
B. Follow the organization's approved correction procedure
C. Tear out the page
D. Use correction fluid
Answer: B. Follow the organization's approved correction procedure
An EHR is:
A. An electronic health record
B. An emergency hearing report
C. An employee hiring record
D. An electronic billing receipt only
Answer: A. An electronic health record
A strong EHR password should:
A. Be shared with coworkers
B. Be unique and protected
C. Be the patient's name
D. Be written on the computer monitor
Answer: B. Be unique and protected
When leaving an EHR workstation, the medical assistant should:
A. Leave the chart open
B. Secure/lock the workstation according to policy
C. Give the password to the patient
D. Turn the monitor toward the waiting room
Answer: B. Secure/lock the workstation according to policy
Which information is considered protected health information?
A. Patient diagnosis linked to identifying information
B. Office furniture inventory
C. Staff lunch menu
D. Building temperature
Answer: A. Patient diagnosis linked to identifying information
Scheduling
The main purpose of scheduling appointments appropriately is to:
A. Maximize waiting time
B. Organize patient care efficiently
C. Avoid all urgent visits
D. Keep the schedule empty
Answer: B. Organize patient care efficiently
A patient with a medical emergency should:
A. Always wait for a routine appointment
B. Be handled according to the practice's emergency protocol
C. Be ignored
D. Be told to return next year
Answer: B. Be handled according to the practice's emergency protocol
Double-booking means:
A. Scheduling two patients for the same appointment time
B. Cancelling an appointment
C. Scheduling no patients
D. Scheduling only one patient
Answer: A. Scheduling two patients for the same appointment time
A cancellation occurs when:
A. A patient or office cancels a scheduled appointment
B. A patient arrives early
C. A claim is paid
D. A prescription is refilled
Answer: A. A patient or office cancels a scheduled appointment
A no-show is a patient who:
A. Arrives early
B. Fails to appear for a scheduled appointment without appropriate notice
C. Calls to confirm
D. Requests records
Answer: B. Fails to appear for a scheduled appointment without appropriate notice
When scheduling a new patient, the medical assistant may need to collect:
A. Demographic and insurance information
B. The patient's social media password
C. Another patient's information
D. Unrelated private information
Answer: A. Demographic and insurance information
A referral appointment is commonly made when:
A. A patient needs services from another provider or specialist
B. The office is closed
C. The patient needs a parking space
D. A record is archived
Answer: A. A patient needs services from another provider or specialist
Telephone Communication
When answering the office telephone, the medical assistant should:
A. Identify the office and themselves according to office policy
B. Say "Who is this?"
C. Put everyone on hold
D. Give medical advice immediately
Answer: A. Identify the office and themselves according to office policy
A caller reports severe difficulty breathing. The medical assistant should:
A. Schedule a routine appointment
B. Follow emergency protocol and direct the caller to appropriate emergency care
C. Diagnose asthma
D. Recommend a medication independently
Answer: B. Follow emergency protocol and direct the caller to appropriate emergency care
Telephone messages should include:
A. Relevant caller information and reason for the call
B. Gossip
C. Personal opinions
D. Another patient's information
Answer: A. Relevant caller information and reason for the call
A medical assistant receiving a prescription refill request should:
A. Prescribe the medication independently
B. Follow office protocol and route the request appropriately
C. Change the dose
D. Automatically approve every refill
Answer: B. Follow office protocol and route the request appropriately
When taking a telephone message, the medical assistant should:
A. Repeat important information to confirm accuracy
B. Rely entirely on memory
C. Guess missing information
D. Delete the message
Answer: A. Repeat important information to confirm accuracy
Billing & Coding
ICD-10-CM codes are primarily used to report:
A. Diagnoses
B. Procedures only
C. Office furniture
D. Employee hours
Answer: A. Diagnoses
CPT codes primarily describe:
A. Medical procedures and services
B. Patient diagnoses only
C. Insurance companies
D. Employee benefits
Answer: A. Medical procedures and services
HCPCS codes may be used for:
A. Certain healthcare services, procedures, supplies, and products
B. Employee attendance
C. Patient passwords
D. Office cleaning
Answer: A. Certain healthcare services, procedures, supplies, and products
Medical coding should be based on:
A. Proper documentation
B. What will produce the highest payment regardless of documentation
C. Guesswork
D. Patient preference
Answer: A. Proper documentation
Upcoding means:
A. Reporting a more expensive/higher-level service than was actually supported or performed
B. Correcting a spelling error
C. Updating a patient's address
D. Scheduling a follow-up
Answer: A. Reporting a more expensive/higher-level service than was actually supported or performed
Fraudulent billing can result in:
A. Legal and financial consequences
B. Automatic promotion
C. No consequences
D. Better patient care
Answer: A. Legal and financial consequences
A copayment is generally:
A. A fixed amount the patient may owe for a covered service
B. The provider's salary
C. An insurance premium
D. A diagnosis
Answer: A. A fixed amount the patient may owe for a covered service
A deductible is generally:
A. An amount the patient must pay before insurance begins paying according to the plan
B. A medical procedure
C. A diagnosis code
D. A provider credential
Answer: A. An amount the patient must pay before insurance begins paying according to the plan
Coinsurance is generally:
A. A percentage of covered costs the patient shares after applicable requirements
B. A fixed provider salary
C. A medical diagnosis
D. A prescription
Answer: A. A percentage of covered costs the patient shares after applicable requirements
The CMS-1500 form is commonly associated with:
A. Professional healthcare claims
B. Employment applications
C. Patient consent only
D. Medical school applications
Answer: A. Professional healthcare claims
An explanation of benefits (EOB) generally:
A. Explains how an insurance claim was processed
B. Serves as a prescription
C. Replaces the medical record
D. Gives a diagnosis
Answer: A. Explains how an insurance claim was processed
Insurance
Before billing insurance, the office should generally verify:
A. Patient eligibility and coverage according to office procedures
B. The patient's favorite physician
C. The patient's favorite food
D. The weather
Answer: A. Patient eligibility and coverage according to office procedures
A patient's insurance information should be:
A. Updated when changes occur
B. Permanently stored without verification
C. Shared publicly
D. Ignored
Answer: A. Updated when changes occur
Prior authorization generally means:
A. Approval may be required by an insurer before certain services or medications
B. The patient has already paid everything
C. The provider has retired
D. The claim has been denied
Answer: A. Approval may be required by an insurer before certain services or medications
A claim denial means:
A. The insurer did not approve payment as submitted
B. The patient automatically has no insurance
C. The provider performed no service
D. The patient's record is destroyed
Answer: A. The insurer did not approve payment as submitted
Coordination of benefits is used when:
A. A patient has more than one health insurance plan
B. A patient has no insurance
C. A patient changes physicians
D. A patient cancels an appointment
Answer: A. A patient has more than one health insurance plan
Office Procedures
Incoming mail should be handled:
A. According to office procedures
B. By any patient
C. Without confidentiality precautions
D. Only once per month
Answer: A. According to office procedures
A medical assistant should dispose of confidential documents:
A. In a regular public trash can
B. According to the office's secure disposal procedure
C. In the waiting room
D. By giving them to patients
Answer: B. According to the office's secure disposal procedure
When faxing protected health information, the medical assistant should:
A. Verify the destination and use appropriate safeguards
B. Send it to any number
C. Fax it publicly
D. Skip verification
Answer: A. Verify the destination and use appropriate safeguards
When using email to communicate protected health information, the medical assistant should:
A. Follow organizational security and privacy policies
B. Use any personal email account
C. Forward it to friends
D. Post it online
Answer: A. Follow organizational security and privacy policies
Inventory management helps the office:
A. Maintain adequate supplies and reduce waste
B. Eliminate all documentation
C. Avoid ordering supplies
D. Increase patient wait times
Answer: A. Maintain adequate supplies and reduce waste
Medical supplies should be rotated so that:
A. Older supplies are used appropriately before newer supplies
B. Newest supplies are always used first
C. Expired supplies are used first
D. Expiration dates are ignored
Answer: A. Older supplies are used appropriately before newer supplies
When receiving a shipment of medical supplies, the medical assistant should check:
A. Quantity, condition, and expiration dates as applicable
B. Only the color of the boxes
C. Only the shipping company's logo
D. Nothing
Answer: A. Quantity, condition, and expiration dates as applicable