Science DU Practice Tests
DU pre-test 2
1. The __________ was formed by the federal government in response to the Dust Bowl.
a) Department of the Interior
b) Soil Conservation Service
c) Department of Agriculture
d) U.S. Forest Service
2. Migration behavior is stimulated by the change of __________ (or change in the amount of daylight).
a) Nesting
b) Photoperiods
c) Precocial
d) Daylight savings
3. The very first textbook about game management was published by __________.
a) Gifford Pinchot
b) Theodore Roosevelt
c) George Bird Grinnell
d) Aldo Leopold
4. What is a potential consequence of suppressing fire to protect infrastructure?
a) Permanently prevents wildfires in the area
b) Reduces the risk of future fires by eliminating fuel sources
c) Leads to a build-up of combustible materials, making future fires more intense and harder to control
d) Causes rain patterns to shift, reducing natural fire occurrence
5. Which of the following wetlands is dominated by trees?
a) Marshes
b) Fens
c) Bogs
d) Swamps
6. What does eclipse plumage refer to?
a) Down feathers of fledgling ducks
b) Female ducks molting to basic plumage
c) Periodic replacement of worn wing feathers with new ones
d) Male ducks molting into colorful breeding plumage
7. Which of the following best describes population density?
a) Age distribution of individuals in a population
b) Individuals of one species living and interacting together as a group
c) Number of offspring produced during a period of time
d) Number of individual animals per unit area
8. Why do temperate grasslands produce the most fertile soils on the earth?
a) The plentiful rainfall allows for nutrients to accumulate in the soil
b) The absence of trees and large plants indicates more nutrients are left in the soil
c) The abundance of grazing animals fertilize the soil evenly
d) The soil is enriched by decayed roots of grasses and forbs below the surface
9. Why do temperate grasslands produce the most fertile soils on the earth?
a) The abundance of grazing animals fertilize the soil evenly
b) The absence of trees and large plants indicates more nutrients are left in the soil
c) The soil is enriched by decayed roots of grasses and forbs below the surface
d) The plentiful rainfall allows for nutrients to accumulate in the soil
10. Which of the following families consists of species which have retractable claws?
a) Canidae
b) Felidae
c) Didelphidae
d) Dasypodidae
11. Grasslands are easily converted into agricultural land due to which of the following?
a) Fertile soils
b) Constant fires and grazing animals dominating the landscape
c) Desired elevation and topography
d) Significant amounts of rainfall
12. Which of the following best describes a vulnerable species?
a) Population has been reduced by 50 to 70 percent
b) Has less than 2,500 mature adults
c) Population has been reduced by 30 to 50 percent
d) Has less than 250 mature adults
13. Taiga, tropical and temperate are all examples of a __________ biome.
a) Wetland
b) Forest
c) Mountain
d) Grasslands
14. The phosphorus cycle is primarily conducted in __________.
a) Plants and animals
b) Soil and plants
c) Water and atmosphere
d) Water
15. Which of the following best describes the system in which carbon credits or greenhouse gas offsets are used and traded by companies to mitigate greenhouse gas emissions?
a) Mitigation markets
b) In-lieu mitigation programs
c) Mitigation banks
d) Carbon markets
16. Which of the following best describes the system in which carbon credits or greenhouse gas offsets are used and traded by companies to mitigate greenhouse gas emissions?
a) In-lieu mitigation programs
b) Mitigation banks
c) Mitigation markets
d) Carbon markets
17. Which of the following is the best description for the logging practice term known as clear-cutting?
a) Only cutting down the biggest or most valuable tree species in an area
b) Logging only the most mature trees
c) Removing all growth in an area, no matter the age or type of plant
d) Leaving some desirable mature trees standing
18. Conservation management funds are established through the sale of firearms, ammunition and sporting goods due to the __________.
a) The Fish and Wildlife Coordination Act
b) Pittman-Roberston Act
c) Dingell-Johnson Act
d) Weeks-McLean Act
19. Which of the following best describes a sustainable approach to clear-cutting forests?
a) Clear-cutting is never sustainable for any species under any condition
b) Clear-cutting is only sustainable when no species rely on the forest
c) Clear-cutting can be sustainable for certain species when monitored and combined with reforestation efforts
d) Clear-cutting is sustainable only in tropical rainforests due to rapid regrowth
20. Of the taxonomic groups listed, which is the least specific?
a) Class
b) Family
c) Species
d) Domain
21. Which of the following best describes freshwater ecosystems?
a) Land existing outside of water bodies
b) Bodies of water with both freshwater and saltwater mixed in equal parts
c) Bodies of water with high concentration of salt
d) Bodies of water with low salt concentration
22. The following illustration (of water supply from ground to stream) depicts which of the following concepts?
a) Baseflow contribution
b) Physical water trapping
c) Water cycle
d) Groundwater recharge
23. Sometimes __________ ducks are referred to as tree ducks since they perch in trees.
a) Sea
b) Dabbling
c) Stiff-tailed
d) Whistling
24. Which of the following are considered migratory game animals?
a) Quail
b) Dove
c) Grouse
d) Turkeys
25. Which statement best describes why temperate grasslands are often developed for agricultural purposes?
a) Grass roots decaying below the surface enrich the soil with nutrients, making it extremely fertile
b) Trees require substantial amounts of nutrients to grow, so the lack of trees in grassland areas allows for more fertile soil
c) Temperate grasslands receive the most rainfall compared to other grasslands
d) Grasslands have the least number of invasive species who absorb nutrients from the soil
26. Which of the following orders is grouped by having young which are born incompletely developed, and then carried in a pouch in the mother’s belly?
a) Didelphimorpha
b) Rodentia
c) Artiodactyla
d) Antilocapra
27. Which of the following processes involves wetland vegetation slowing water, which allows sediment and other particulate material to settle on the floor of the wetland?
a) Groundwater recharge
b) Physical trapping
c) Stopover sites
d) Biological uptake
28. Which of the following best describes the process of transpiration?
a) Plants release water vapor during photosynthesis and respiration
b) Energy flow from one organism to another
c) Bacteria perform nitrogen fixation
d) Water transforms from a liquid to a gas
29. Hooved species belong to the __________ scientific order.
a) Passeriformes
b) Carnivora
c) Columbiformes
d) Artiodactyla
30. The Bureau of Biological Survey is now known as which of the following?
a) Bureau of Land Management
b) National Park Service
c) U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service
d) U.S. Department of Agriculture
31. Market hunting and loss of habitat caused a significant decline in the U.S. __________ population.
a) Racoon
b) Squirrel
c) White tailed deer
d) Feral hog
32. Which of the following animals belong to the Cervidae family?
a) Bighorn sheep and mountain goats
b) Elk, moose and white tailed deer
c) Coyotes, bobcats and skunks
d) Northern bobwhite and wild turkey
33. Which of the following best describes biological processes occurring naturally in the ecosystem which removes contaminants?
a) Baseflow contribution
b) Pollution
c) Biological uptake
d) Groundwater recharge
34. Which of the following legislative efforts allowed the president of the United States to set aside protected wilderness areas?
a) Pittman-Robertson Act
b) Forest Reserve Act
c) Forest and Rangeland Act
d) Homestead Act
35. Which of the following best describes biological processes occurring naturally in the ecosystem which removes contaminants?
a) Baseflow contribution
b) Pollution
c) Biological uptake
d) Groundwater recharge
DU pre-test
1. A wetland sits in an area with seasonal flooding from snow melt, has anaerobic soil, contains a build-up of dead vegetation in the water and is filled with cypress trees. This area is most likely classified as which of the following types of wetland?
a) Bog
b) Fen
c) Marsh
d) Swamp
2. Which of the following is the best description for the saltcedar species?
a) Rodents which destroy vegetation in marshes and riverbanks, causing erosion and the spread of parasites and pathogens
b) An invasive species growing on riverbanks which consumes incredible amounts of water and depletes water sources for other species
c) An invasive species which chokes out native aquatic vegetation and invertebrates
d) Floating aquatic plants which cover the surface of a body of water, restricting light availability and depleting oxygen levels
3. Where would a taiga habitat most likely be found?
a) Egypt, Sudan and Chad
b) Bolivia, Brazil and Paraguay
c) France, Austria and Hungary
d) Russia, Mongolia and China
4. Which of the following animals was driven to extinction as a result of market hunting?
a) Bison
b) Pronghorn
c) Passenger Pigeon
d) Red Wolf
5. Which category of ducks has a smaller wing-to-body ratio and must run across the water to gain speed to take flight?
a) Dabbling
b) Whistling
c) Sea
d) Diving
6. Which of the following is the best example of environmental sustainability?
a) Implementing crop rotation to maintain soil fertility
b) Clear-cutting forests without replanting trees
c) Allowing industrial waste to flow into nearby rivers
d) Overfishing a marine ecosystem to maximize short-term profits
7. Which term describes a spongy substance formed by partially decomposed vegetation?
a) Peat
b) Brackish
c) Anerobic
d) Hydric
8. Which of the following families consists of species which have horns present?
a) Canidae
b) Dasypodidae
c) Mephitidae
d) Bovidae
9. Which of the following best describes the role of the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service?
a) Manage migratory birds, marine fish and endangered species
b) Monitor and regulate air and water quality
c) Oversee federally protected land such as national parks
d) Assist agricultural producers in incorporating sustainable practices
10. Which of the following is an example of secondary succession?
a) A landslide strips away all vegetation and soil from a mountainside, leaving a bare surface
b) A large field developed for agriculture is abandoned and reverts to a grassland
c) Moss breaking down exposed bedrock into soil
d) Glaciers retreat, leaving grasses to populate the rocky soil
11. Which of the following was outlawed by the Lacey Act in 1900 to curtail market hunting?
a) Sale of wild birds and mammals
b) Use of lead shot in hunting
c) Consumption of game meat in public
d) Trade of pelts and feathers
12. The Duck Stamp Act is an incentive program which encourages producers and landowners to conserve grasslands. When did the act pass?
a) 2001
b) 1934
c) 1900
d) 2014
13. Which of the following acts established closed seasons for hunting migratory birds?
a) Weeks-McLean Act
b) Pittman-Robertson Act
c) Lacey Act of 1900
d) Endangered Species Act
14. The mallard and northern shoveler are examples of __________ ducks.
a) Sea
b) Diving
c) Dabbling
d) Stiff-tailed
15. The Pittman-Robertson Act provides funding to state wildlife agencies to restore wildlife. Which of the following describes how this Act is funded?
a) Tax on sporting arms and ammunition
b) Donations from conservationists
c) Federal funding
d) Tax on all outdoor recreational equipment
16. A boreal forest contains trees which are most commonly __________.
a) Deciduous
b) Broadleaf
c) Coniferous
d) Deciduous broadleaf
17. Which of the following is an example of commensalism?
a) Barnacles attach to a whale’s skin to gain access to nutrient-rich waters as the whale moves, but the whale is unaffected
b) Lions kill and eat a zebra, gaining energy
c) Two plants growing close together, the presence of one reduces the resources available to the other
d) Bees collect nectar for food as they pollinate flowers, aiding plant reproduction
18. Which of the following is an example of a limiting factor?
a) Trumpeter swans flying into U.S. wetlands from Canada during breeding season boost the local breeding population temporarily
b) Lack of vegetation during drought keeps populations of black-tailed jackrabbits in the Southwest from growing
c) White-tailed deer infected with brainworm parasites may show abnormal behavior and die, reducing population numbers
d) A malnourished gray wolf may have fewer or weaker pups, reducing its contribution to population growth
19. Which of the following is an example of modifying a habitat to adapt to animal behavior or create a more ideal environment for populations?
a) Reducing populations causing human conflict
b) Creating food plots for target species
c) Using pesticides to remove a target species
d) Relocating animals to a unique home range
20. When do ducks begin pairing to prepare for breeding?
a) Ducks pair year-round and do not have a typical breeding season
b) During the fall migration
c) Mid-winter or during spring migration
d) Mid-summer or early fall
21. Where are most nutrients found in rainforests?
a) Vegetation
b) Soil
c) Animals
d) Fungi
22. Which of the following is an example of habitat degradation?
a) Clear-cutting rainforests for agriculture
b) Highway construction through a forest
c) Overgrazing by livestock in savannas
d) Draining wetlands for commercial development
23. Grasslands, which are considered semi-arid, receive on average less than ____ inches of precipitation annually.
a) 45
b) 50
c) 40
d) 35
24. Building a duck box is a conservation management strategy which can be beneficial to __________ ducks struggling to find suitable nesting areas.
a) Cavity-nesting
b) Domesticated
c) Ground-nesting
d) Migratory
25. What is the largest order of class Aves, which are commonly referred to as perching birds?
a) Galliformes
b) Chiroptera
c) Falconiformes
d) Passeriformes
26. Which of the following conditions would be best suited for developing a grassland?
a) Warm, humid climate with frequent rainfall and waterlogged soils
b) Constant humidity with over 100 inches of annual precipitation
c) Arid regions with extreme temperature shifts
d) Semi-arid areas receiving less than 35 inches of annual precipitation
27. Which of the following best represents how waterfowl utilize stopover sites?
a) As areas for resting and gaining energy for migration
b) As protected shelters for molting
c) As breeding grounds
d) As mating grounds
28. The __________ provides financial aid to states for the restoration and management of fish through angler and boat-related taxes.
a) Dingell-Johnson Act
b) Migratory Bird Treaty Act
c) Lacey Act of 1900
d) Pittman-Robertson Act
29. A single tree can take in more than __________ pounds of carbon dioxide annually?
a) 70
b) 150
c) 80
d) 40
30. Which of the following best describes habitat destruction?
a) Breaking up habitats to the point where the habitat can no longer remain functional
b) Complete loss of habitat through direct human involvement
c) Non-use of natural resources with little-to-no human intervention and interaction
d) Altering a habitat until the quality of the habitat can no longer support life
31. Pollution from agricultural runoff and soil runoff from development areas are examples of __________.
a) Fragmentation
b) Degradation
c) Restoration
d) Point-source pollution
32. Which of the following best describes wetland restoration?
a) Maintaining wetlands for wildlife and recreational uses
b) Returning a wetland to its original state
c) Sustainable commercial and recreational use
d) Providing long-term security to an area
33. Which of the following is true about chlorophyll?
a) None of the choices
b) Is required to perform photosynthesis
c) Is required in producers to create carbon dioxide
d) Synthesizes food from oxygen and water
34. A __________ is a controlled fire created by experts to clear fire fuel.
a) Prescribed burn
b) Hotshot
c) Wildfire
d) Backdraft
35. Which of the following best describes levees?
a) Some generate power from water flow
b) Stops water from naturally changing courses and prevents flooding
c) Stops water to create reservoirs to hold water and slowly release water as necessary
d) Flows parallel to bodies of water
36. How much of an ecosystem must be covered by trees to be classified as a forest?
a) 10 percent
b) 20 percent
c) 25 percent
d) 15 percent
37. Which of the following is NOT a requirement to be classified as a wetland?
a) The soil is primary hydric, formed under prolonged flooding
b) The area is saturated during part of the growing season
c) The area supports hydrophytic plants for at least parts of the year
d) The area must have standing water year-round
38. Which of the following best describes the strategy utilized by the program (no-net loss)?
a) Regulation
b) Mitigation
c) Incentivization
d) Justification
39. Which term refers to any part of an animal’s environment which provides protection and enhances the survival of the animal?
a) Cover
b) Home range
c) Area of occupancy
d) Conservation
40. Which of the following monitoring methods involves counting the individual animals observed while walking a linear path?
a) Wildlife camera trapping
b) Transect counts
c) Circular plot point counts
d) Nest monitoring
41. Which of the following wetlands occurs near lakes and streams, particularly in areas where heavy rain or snowmelt causes seasonal flooding?
a) Freshwater swamps
b) Mangrove swamps
c) Bogs
d) Tidal marshes
42. A farmer using __________ helps ensure an area is not overgrazed by moving cattle from pasture to pasture.
a) Continuous grazing
b) Set stocking
c) Prescribed burn
d) Rotational grazing
43. The __________ was formed by the federal government in response to the Dust Bowl.
a) U.S. Forest Service
b) Department of Agriculture
c) Soil Conservation Service
d) Department of the Interior
44. Migration behavior is stimulated by the change of __________ (or change in the amount of daylight).
a) Precocial
b) Photoperiods
c) Nesting
d) Daylight savings
45. The very first textbook about game management was published by __________.
a) Theodore Roosevelt
b) Aldo Leopold
c) Gifford Pinchot
d) George Bird Grinnell
46. What is a potential consequence of suppressing fire to protect infrastructure?
a) Permanently prevents wildfires in the area
b) Reduces the risk of future fires by eliminating fuel sources
c) Leads to a build-up of combustible materials, making future fires more intense and harder to control
d) Causes rain patterns to shift, reducing natural fire occurrence
47. Which of the following wetlands is dominated by trees?
a) Swamps
b) Bogs
c) Fens
d) Marshes
48. What does eclipse plumage refer to?
a) Female ducks molting to basic plumage
b) Periodic replacement of worn wing feathers with new ones
c) Down feathers of fledgling ducks
d) Male ducks molting into colorful breeding plumage
49. Which of the following best describes population density?
a) Age distribution of individuals in a population
b) Number of offspring produced during a period of time
c) Individuals of one species living and interacting together as a group
d) Number of individual animals per unit area
50. Why do temperate grasslands produce the most fertile soils on the earth?
a) The plentiful rainfall allows for nutrients to accumulate in the soil
b) The soil is enriched by decayed roots of grasses and forbs below the surface
c) The abundance of grazing animals fertilize the soil evenly
d) The absence of trees and large plants indicates more nutrients are left in the soil
51. Which of the following families consists of species which have retractable claws?
a) Dasypodidae
b) Canidae
c) Felidae
d) Didelphidae
52. Grasslands are easily converted into agricultural land due to which of the following?
a) Constant fires and grazing animals dominating the landscape
b) Significant amounts of rainfall
c) Fertile soils
d) Desired elevation and topography
53. Which of the following best describes a vulnerable species?
a) Has less than 2,500 mature adults
b) Population has been reduced by 50 to 70 percent
c) Has less than 250 mature adults
d) Population has been reduced by 30 to 50 percent
54. Taiga, tropical and temperate are all examples of a __________ biome.
a) Mountain
b) Forest
c) Wetland
d) Grasslands
55. The phosphorus cycle is primarily conducted in __________.
a) Water
b) Water and atmosphere
c) Plants and animals
d) Soil and plants
56. Which of the following best describes the system in which carbon credits or greenhouse gas offsets are used and traded by companies to mitigate greenhouse gas emissions?
a) Mitigation banks
b) In-lieu mitigation programs
c) Mitigation markets
d) Carbon markets
57. Which of the following is the best description for the logging practice term known as clear-cutting?
a) Removing all growth in an area, no matter the age or type of plant
b) Logging only the most mature trees
c) Leaving some desirable mature trees standing
d) Only cutting down the biggest or most valuable tree species in an area
58. Conservation management funds are established through the sale of firearms, ammunition and sporting goods due to the __________.
a) Pittman-Roberston Act
b) Dingell-Johnson Act
c) Weeks-McLean Act
d) The Fish and Wildlife Coordination Act
59. Which of the following best describes a sustainable approach to clear-cutting forests?
a) Clear-cutting is only sustainable when no species rely on the forest
b) Clear-cutting can be sustainable for certain species when monitored and combined with reforestation efforts
c) Clear-cutting is never sustainable for any species under any condition
d) Clear-cutting is sustainable only in tropical rainforests due to rapid regrowth
60. Of the taxonomic groups listed, which is the least specific?
a) Domain
b) Class
c) Family
d) Species
61. Which of the following best describes freshwater ecosystems?
a) Bodies of water with high concentration of salt
b) Bodies of water with both freshwater and saltwater mixed in equal parts
c) Bodies of water with low salt concentration
d) Land existing outside of water bodies
62. The following illustration (groundwater supply to stream) depicts which of the following concepts?
a) Groundwater recharge
b) Baseflow contribution
c) Physical water trapping
d) Water cycle
63. Sometimes __________ ducks are referred to as tree ducks since they perch in trees.
a) Sea
b) Stiff-tailed
c) Dabbling
d) Whistling
64. Which of the following are considered migratory game animals?
a) Dove
b) Quail
c) Turkeys
d) Grouse
65. Which statement best describes why temperate grasslands are often developed for agricultural purposes?
a) Grasslands have the least number of invasive species who absorb nutrients from the soil
b) Grass roots decaying below the surface enrich the soil with nutrients, making it extremely fertile
c) Trees require substantial amounts of nutrients to grow, so the lack of trees in grassland areas allows for more fertile soil
d) Temperate grasslands receive the most rainfall compared to other grasslands
66. Which of the following orders is grouped by having young which are born incompletely developed, and then carried in a pouch in the mother’s belly?
a) Artiodactyla
b) Didelphimorpha
c) Antilocapra
d) Rodentia
67. Which of the following processes involves wetland vegetation slowing water, which allows sediment and other particulate material to settle on the floor of the wetland?
a) Biological uptake
b) Stopover sites
c) Physical trapping
d) Groundwater recharge
68. Which of the following best describes the process of transpiration?
a) Bacteria perform nitrogen fixation
b) Energy flow from one organism to another
c) Water transforms from a liquid to a gas
d) Plants release water vapor during photosynthesis and respiration
69. Hooved species belong to the __________ scientific order.
a) Columbiformes
b) Passeriformes
c) Carnivora
d) Artiodactyla
70. The Bureau of Biological Survey is now known as which of the following?
a) U.S. Department of Agriculture
b) Bureau of Land Management
c) National Park Service
d) U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service
71. Market hunting and loss of habitat caused a significant decline in the U.S. __________ population.
a) White tailed deer
b) Feral hog
c) Squirrel
d) Racoon
72. Which of the following animals belong to the Cervidae family?
a) Northern bobwhite and wild turkey
b) Elk, moose and white tailed deer
c) Bighorn sheep and mountain goats
d) Coyotes, bobcats and skunks
73. Which of the following best describes biological processes occurring naturally in the ecosystem which removes contaminants?
a) Biological uptake
b) Groundwater recharge
c) Baseflow contribution
d) Pollution
74. Which of the following best describes biological processes occurring naturally in the ecosystem which removes contaminants?
a) Biological uptake
b) Baseflow contribution
b) Pollution
d) Groundwater recharge
75. Which of the following legislative efforts allowed the president of the United States to set aside protected wilderness areas?
a) Homestead Act
b) Pittman-Robertson Act
c) Forest Reserve Act
d) Forest and Rangeland Act
Practice test 3
1. Birth and death rates are expressed as the number per _____ individuals per unit of time.
a) 100
b) 10,000
c) 1,000
d) 100,000
2. Migration behavior which is stimulated by the change in the amount of daylight is known as which of the following?
a) Photoperiod
b) Circadian
c) Photomorphogenesis
d) Standing Heat
3. Rotational grazing can be an effective management technique for grassland areas.
a) True
b) False
4. An ecologist is surveying the assemblage of different populations of flora and fauna inhabiting a dead tree in the middle of a forest. Surveying the tree would be studying which of the following levels of ecology?
a) Biosphere
b) Atmosphere
c) Habitat
d) Geosphere
5. Which of the following is true about the Forest and Rangeland Planning Act?
a) Authorized the U.S. Forest Service to establish national parks for conservation
b) Authorized the U.S. Forest Service to develop standards in order to ensure a future supply of wood resources from forests
c) Mandated the U.S. Forest Service to eliminate logging in protected areas
d) Directed the U.S. Forest Service to focus on wildlife habitat preservation only
6. Which of the following parks was the first established national park?
a) Redwood National And State Park
b) Glacier National Park
c) Zion National Park
d) Yellowstone National Park
7. Which of the following is used to classify a grassland?
a) Soil type
b) Climate
c) Vegetation types
d) Plant life
8. The Bureau of Biological Survey and the Bureau of Fisheries was combined under which president to create the Bureau of Wildlife?
a) Franklin Roosevelt
b) Theodore Roosevelt
c) Woodrow Wilson
d) Abraham Lincoln
9. Which of the following parks was the first established national park?
a) Zion National Park
b) Yellowstone National Park
c) Redwood National And State Park
d) Glacier National Park
10. One acre of wetlands filters 7.3 gallons of water a month into fresh drinking water.
a) True
b) False
11. Which of the following best describes peat?
a) A solid substance created by fossilized plant material
b) A dry material composed of decomposed animal matter
c) A dense substance formed by compressed minerals
d) A spongy substance formed by partially decomposed vegetation
12. Which of the following is also known as the Duck Stamp Act?
a) Migratory Bird Hunting and Conservation Stamp Act
b) Avian Habitat Management Act
c) National Bird Conservation Act
d) Wildlife Preservation and Protection Act
13. When do male waterfowl molt into colorful breeding plumage?
a) After successful nest laying
b) Late summer before breeding season
c) After selecting a mate
d) Mid-spring after breeding season
14. Hunting and fishing regulations are independent of monitoring wildlife populations.
a) True
b) False
15. Hannah is monitoring a wetland habitat along the Gulf of Mexico. The water level is heavily influenced by the tidal patterns affecting the Gulf and is full of soft-stemmed vegetation, such as grasses and sedges. Although the wetland is next to the Gulf, the water is fresh. Which of the following is most likely the type of habitat?
a) Maritime forest
b) Freshwater swamps
c) Bog
d) Tidal marsh
16. Which of the following wetlands is dominated by emergent vegetation?
a) Geese Swans
b) Estuaries
c) Marshes
d) Deserts
17. Which of the following is NOT an invasive species impacting forest health in North American forests?
a) Norway maple
b) Japanese maple
c) White ash
d) Common camelia
18. Who published the first textbook on game management?
a) Edward Rosholt
b) Abraham Lincoln
c) Aldo Leopold
d) George Washington
19. What Act enabled funding through the sale of firearms, ammunition and sporting goods?
a) Lacey-grinnell Act
b) Pittman-Roberston Act
c) Dingell-johnson Act
d) Boone-crockett Act
20. Through the process of photosynthesis, a single tree can take in more than ___ pounds of carbon dioxide and can produce about 260 pounds of oxygen annually.
a) 50
b) 300
c) 40
d) 90
21. Moose antlers have one main beam with additional points coming from the beam.
a) True
b) False
22. In the Gulf of Mexico, there is a "dead zone" where aquatic life cannot be supported. Which of the following explains how healthy wetlands could have helped prevent this problem?
a) Wetlands contain bacteria which convert dissolved nitrogen to nitrogen gas, preventing algae blooms which deplete oxygen in the water
b) Wetlands release oxygen into the water, enhancing aquatic life
c) Wetlands absorb excess carbon dioxide, reducing ocean acidification
d) Wetlands filter out heavy metals, improving water clarity
23. Which of the following is an invasive species which negatively affects grasslands?
a) Apples
b) Oaks
c) Thistles
d) Grasses
24. Which of the following best describes stopover sites?
a) Breeding grounds for migratory birds
b) Permanent habitats for non-migratory birds
c) Feeding sites for local bird populations
d) Habitats utilized by migratory birds for resources along the flyway during bi-annual migration
25. When measuring a population, a census calculates the exact population.
a) True
b) False
26. Maintaining biodiversity, protecting freshwater quality, recharging groundwater and controlling floods are all critical components for which of the following biomes?
a) Forests
b) Tundra
c) Wetlands
d) Lakes
27. The Civilian Conservation Corps was created to repair damaged environments and improve unemployment as part of which of the following conservation acts?
a) National Economic Restoration Plan
b) Current And Future National Parks
c) First Wildlife Refuge Plan
d) Clean Water Act
28. Which president was responsible for establishing the first wildlife refuge?
a) Dwight D. Eisenhower
b) William Howard Taft
c) Theodore Roosevelt
d) Ronald Reagan
29. Which of the following is NOT an invasive species impacting forest health in North American forests?
a) Japanese maple
b) White ash
c) Common camelia
d) Norway maple
30. What is the difference between population size and density?
a) Size refers to the average weight of animals, while density refers to the number of animals per group
b) Density refers to the number of individual animals per unit area, while population size refers to the number of individual animals total
c) Density refers to the variety of species in an area, while population size refers to the total habitat area
d) Size refers to the total area covered by a species, while density refers to the number of species per unit area
31. Water found in a wetland with woody plants, saturated or slow-moving water and low oxygen levels in the soil is known as which of the following?
a) Lake
b) Swamp
c) Mountain
d) Desert
32. Which of the following best describes agroforestry?
a) Trees grown in areas of agriculture which are used to stabilize environmental conditions of crops
b) Crops grown in urban areas for local consumption
c) Trees planted for commercial logging in rural areas
d) Livestock raised alongside trees for grazing
33. When do male waterfowl molt into colorful breeding plumage?
a) After successful nest laying
b) Mid-spring after breeding season
c) After selecting a mate
d) Late summer before breeding season
34. Which of the following pests best represents insects which reproduce in the inner bark of trees, causing decay and death in healthy trees?
a) Pine shoot beetles
b) Spider mites
c) Crane flies
d) Bark beetles
35. An ecologist is surveying the assemblage of different populations of flora and fauna inhabiting a dead tree in the middle of a forest. Surveying the tree would be studying which of the following levels of ecology?
a) Geosphere
b) Biosphere
c) Atmosphere
d) Habitat
36. Which of the following is the best definition for the term reforestation?
a) Planting new trees in the same habitat older ones were removed from
b) Only cutting the largest or most valuable tree species in an area
c) Authorized the U.S. Forest Service to develop standards in order to ensure a future supply of wood resources from forests
d) Plentiful resources for feeding to replenish energy stores and protected shelter while resting for short periods
37. Which of the following is a private organization which has conserved more than 14 million acres since its founding and has sister organizations in both Canada and Mexico which have collectively raised more than $2 billion through the "Rescue Our Wetlands" campaign?
a) Norway Maple
b) Ducks Unlimited®
c) Fauna Of The Angelina National Forest
d) Freshwater Swamps
38. Who published the very first textbook about game management?
a) Aldo Leopold
b) Edward Rosholt
c) Charles Darwin
d) Franklin D. Roosevelt
39. Paul is a park ranger in charge of removing a brown bear which has been invading campsites. Paul sets up motion sensors which rapidly flash lights when triggered around the border of the park. After a period of time, there have not been any more bear sightings. This is an example of which of the following?
a) Competition
b) Habitat management technique
c) Frequent fires
d) Predator-human interactionsion
40. Which of the following factors is categorized as biotic?
a) Competition
b) Immigration
c) Adaptatiion
d) Vegetation
41. Organisms do NOT require nutrients, or chemical substances, during which of the following phases?
a) sleep
b) exercise
c) dream
d) place
42. Select the positive ecological interactions between organisms.
a) Predation
b) Commensalism
c) Competition
d) Mutualism
43. Which of the following is an example of disturbance leading to primary succession?
a) Strong wind
b) Glacial movement
c) Heavy rain fall
d) Earthquakes
44. Which of the following is true about chlorophyll?
a) Is used to store energy in plants
b) Is required for plant growth but not photosynthesis
c) Is required in order to perform photosynthesis
d) Is necessary for seed germination
45. Denitrification is an essential step in which of the following cycles?
a) Sulfur
b) Carbon
c) Nitrogen
d) Oxygen
46. Which of the following best describes why bogs are so effective at filtering water?
a) The dense vegetation in bogs absorbs pollutants from water
b) The acidic water in bogs neutralizes contaminants
c) The soil found in bogs act as a strainer and easily removes the sediment from water
d) The clay soil in bogs filters chemicals from water
47. Select the TWO statements which accurately describe a swamp.
a) Are dominated by herbaceous plants and grasses, have sandy soil
b) Are open water bodies with no vegetation
c) Contain mostly aquatic vegetation
d) Are filled with woody plants like trees and shrubs, have sphagnum moss covering the floor or forming floating mats
48. Which of the following is NOT a goal of wildlife management?
a) Sustaining populations to allow for harvest
b) Reducing populations of species which do not contribute to the environment
c) Reducing populations which are over-abundant and causing human-wildlife conflicts
d) Sustaining populations and species diversity for inherent value
49. Which of the following events adds to abundance?
a) Competition
b) Emigration
c) Death
d) Immigration
50. Which of the following orders is classified by arm, hand and extra long finger bones covered with a membrane which resembles a wing?
a) Aves
b) Chiroptera
c) Artiodactyla
d) Carnivora
51. In order to maintain a healthy balance of nutrients in the soil, Sam plants corn in the spring and soybeans in the fall. This is known as which of the following sustainable agricultural methods?
a) Responses
b) Biological Uptake
c) No-tillage
d) Rotational Crops
52. The significant amounts of rain implies rainforest ecosystems store nutrients differently than other forests. Where are most nutrients found in rainforests?
a) Soil
b) Animals
c) Vegetation
d) Ocean
53. If an area has an over-abundant population and the habitat can no longer sustain the population, the population has surpassed the_________.
a) Mortality threshold
b) Carrying capacity
c) Resource limit
d) Growth rate
54. Which of the following is a habitat requirement for breeding grounds?
a) Limited food resources to conserve energy and exposed areas for sunlight
b) Abundant water sources for hydration and open areas for mating rituals
c) Minimal shelter for resting and scarce resources for feeding
d) Plentiful resources for feeding to replenish energy stores and protected shelter while resting for short periods
55. In order to maintain a healthy balance of nutrients in the soil, Sam plants corn in the spring and soybeans in the fall. This is known as which of the following sustainable agricultural methods?
a) No-tillage
b) Biological Uptake
c) Rotational Crops
d) Responses
56. Rotational grazing can be an effective management technique for grassland areas.
a) True
b) False
57. While geese require a tail and primary feathers, which part of a duck would be required to be sent in for the Parts Survey conducted by the Fish and Wildlife Service?
a) Whistling ducks
b) The head
c) The neck
d) The wing
58. The Bureau of Biological Survey and the Bureau of Fisheries was combined under which president to create the Bureau of Wildlife?
a) Franklin Roosevelt
b) Woodrow Wilson
c) Theodore Roosevelt
d) Abraham Lincoln
59. After populations of game species began to decline, sportsmen and naturalists pushed which of the following rules requiring sustainable methods for harvesting game and fish?
a) Trip limits
b) Bag limits
c) Game commissions
d) Hunting pressure/hunter numbers
60. During the first year of life, waterfowl face a _____ percent mortality rate.
a) 50
b) 10
c) 34
d) 300
61. Which of the following is NOT a method used to convert wetlands in the United States?
a) Flooding to expand marine areas
b) Channelizing for transportation
c) Draining for agricultural use
d) Filling for urban development
62. Which of the following is a true statement about non-tidal marshes?
a) They occur in high-altitude areas with dry climates
b) They develop in rapidly draining areas with sandy soils
c) They are found along coastal regions with saltwater influence
d) They occur in poorly draining low places and along boundaries of freshwater sources
63. After populations of game species began to decline, sportsmen and naturalists pushed which of the following rules requiring sustainable methods for harvesting game and fish?
a) Hunting pressure/hunter numbers
b) Trip limits
c) Bag limits
d) Game commissions
64. Which of the following is NOT an example of supporting services?
a) Seed Dispersal
b) Glacial Movement
c) Photosynthesis
d) Pollination
65. Which of the following best describes peat?
a) A spongy substance formed by partially decomposed vegetation
b) A solid substance created by fossilized plant material
c) A dry material composed of decomposed animal matter
d) A dense substance formed by compressed minerals
66. Which of the following waterfowl species is known to share incubation responsibilities between both males and females?
a) Fishers
b) Whistling ducks
c) Eagles
d) Diving ducks
67. Which of the following would be considered the type of grassland with conditions containing a semi-arid climate, average rainfall of 27 inches per year, temperatures fluctuating between -40°F and 100°F and extremely fertile soil?
a) Temperate
b) Carbon markets
c) Mountain
d) Biological uptake
68. Through the process of photosynthesis, a single tree can take in more than ___ pounds of carbon dioxide and can produce about 260 pounds of oxygen annually.
a) 50
b) 40
c) 300
d) 90
69. Which of the following is NOT a reason why trees and larger shrubs do not thrive in grasslands?
a) Too low temperatures
b) Human land use
c) Frequent fires
d) High temperatures
70. Which of the following laws prohibited market hunting?
a) Migratory Bird Treaty Act of 1918
b) Lacey Act of 1900
c) National Wildlife Refuge System Act of 1966
d) Pittman-Robertson Act of 1937
71. Fill in the blank. Marine habitats cover more than ____ percent of the earth's surface.
a) 70
b) 19
c) 80
d) 33
72. __________ deer have a white underside of their tail used as a flag when startled.
a) White-tailed
b) Mule
73. Which of the following was outlawed by the Lacey Act in 1900 in order to curtail market hunting?
a) Capture of marine mammals
b) Hunting of migratory birds
c) Sale of wild birds and mammals
d) Trade of exotic plants
74. Which of the following is used to categorize types of terrestrial biomes?
a) Amount of biodiversity
b) First Wildlife Refuge Plan
c) Vegetation
d) Soil type
75. Which of the following is a habitat requirement for breeding grounds?
a) Abundant water sources for hydration and open areas for mating rituals
b) Minimal shelter for resting and scarce resources for feeding
c) Limited food resources to conserve energy and exposed areas for sunlight
d) Plentiful resources for feeding to replenish energy stores and protected shelter while resting for short periods
76. Which of the following habitat services are categorized by products harvested or extracted from the habitat, such as food, water, wood, oil and gas?
a) Provisioning
b) Transmitting
c) Periodic
d) Regulating
77. Which of the following is known to cause primary succession?
a) Floods
b) Tornadoes
c) Glacier movement
d) Acid rain
78. Which of the following is the best description of cultural habitat services?
a) Non-material benefits provided by the habitat
b) Physical protection offered by the habitat
c) Material resources provided by the habitat
d) Economic benefits derived from the habitat
79. You are studying a forest in Russia. The forest receives an average of 15 inches of rainfall annually and contains primarily coniferous trees. Which of the following is the most likely classification?
a) Temperate rainforest
b) Savanna
c) Taiga
d) Temperate grassland
80. Preservation is the act of rebuilding an area suffering severe habitat loss.
a) True
b) False
81. Preservation is the act of rebuilding an area suffering severe habitat loss.
a) True
b) False
82. Which of the following waterfowl species is known to share incubation responsibilities between both males and females?
a) Whistling ducks
b) Diving ducks
c) Eagles
d) Fishers
83. When measuring a population, a census calculates the exact population.
a) True
b) False
84. What is the difference between population size and density?
a) Size refers to the average weight of animals, while density refers to the number of animals per group
b) Density refers to the number of individual animals per unit area, while population size refers to the number of individual animals total
c) Size refers to the total area covered by a species, while density refers to the number of species per unit area
d) Density refers to the variety of species in an area, while population size refers to the total habitat area
85. A wetland sits in an area with seasonal flooding from snow melt, has anaerobic soil, contains a build-up of dead vegetation in the water and is filled with cypress trees. This area is most likely classified as:
a) swamp
b) mountain
c) lake
d) desert
86. Which of the following is a true statement about non-tidal marshes?
a) They are found along coastal regions with saltwater influence
b) They develop in rapidly draining areas with sandy soils
c) They occur in poorly draining low places and along boundaries of freshwater sources
d) They occur in high-altitude areas with dry climates
87. Which of the following is NOT an example of regulating services?
a) Resources extracted for commercial use
b) Products harvested or extracted from the habitat, which are used and relied on every single day
c) Energy produced from renewable sources
d) Materials harvested for construction
88. Which of the following best describes why temperate grasslands are often converted to agricultural land in the United States?
a) Grasslands are unsuitable for livestock grazing
b) Grasslands have some of the most fertile soils on Earth
c) Grasslands lack biodiversity compared to forests
d) Grasslands have limited water resources
89. What is desertification?
a) Wetlands that are drained and turn into farmland
b) Mountains that erode and transform into plains
c) Forests that are cleared for agriculture and become barren
d) Grasslands which undergo drought or demineralization and turn into a desert landscape
90. Which of the following best describes agroforestry?
a) Trees planted for commercial logging in rural areas
b) Trees grown in areas of agriculture which are used to stabilize environmental conditions of crops
c) Crops grown in urban areas for local consumption
d) Livestock raised alongside trees for grazing
91. Which of the following does NOT conduct nitrogen fixation?
a) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
b) Algae
c) Peanuts
d) Humans
92. Since the start of the Duck Stamp Act in 1934, how many national wildlife refuges have been created or expanded?
a) 200
b) 500
c) 300
d) 10
93. The Duck Stamp Act is an incentive program which encourages producers and landowners to conserve grasslands. When was this act passed?
a) 1925
b) 1945
c) 1934
d) 1950
94. Almost 40 percent of forests in the United States have introduced invasive species due to the increase of domestic and global travel. Invasive species cost hundreds of billions of dollars annually.
a) True
b) False
95. Which of the following is an example of disturbance leading to primary succession?
a) Heavy rain fall
b) Glacial movement
c) Strong wind
d) Earthquakes
96. The Weeks-McLean Act allowed the establishment of which of the following?
a) Closed seasons for hunting migratory birds
b) Regulations for fishing in freshwater lakes
c) Open seasons for hunting all wildlife
d) Permits for logging in national forests
97. Hydric means.....
a) it is free of oxygen
b) permanently or seasonally saturated with water
c) permanently dry
d) abundant in oxygen
98. A volcano has erupted and cooled to leave bare rock. Lichens colonized the rock, breaking it down into soil, allowing plants to grow. In this example, which was the pioneer species?
a) Vegetation
b) Grasses
c) Lichens
d) Shrubs
99. Which of the following is NOT an example of restoration?
a) Enacting laws to protect land from human intervention
b) Cleaning up pollution from an area
c) Reintroducing native species to an area
d) Removing human-created objects from an environment
100. What is desertification?
a) Forests that are cleared for agriculture and become barren
b) Mountains that erode and transform into plains
c) Grasslands which undergo drought or demineralization and turn into a desert landscape
d) Wetlands that are drained and turn into farmland
Practice test 1
1. Forests are responsible for storing large amounts of carbon. However, there are some cases in which forests can also release significant amounts of carbon. When does this typically occur?
a) Trees can only hold a limited amount of carbon, so a forest of mature trees begins to release carbon as trees age
b) Trees do not release atmospheric carbon but do secrete carbon into the soil
c) Trees release carbon when decaying, so when areas experience deforestation large amounts of a forest’s sequestered carbon will be released
d) Trees release large amounts of carbon during the process of photosynthesis
2. In order to maintain a healthy balance of nutrients in the soil, Sam plants corn in the spring and soybeans in the fall. This is known as:
a) Rotational grazing
b) Rotational crops
c) Cover crops
d) No-tillage
3. In what year was the Federal Water Pollution Control Act established?
a) 1978
b) 1869
c) 1935
d) 1948
4. Which of the following is the best definition for the term reforestation?
a) Planting new trees in the same habitat older ones were removed from
b) None of these answer choices are correct
c) Planting trees in areas where trees were not previously present
d) Incorporating trees in areas of agriculture
5. Denitrification is an essential step in which of the following cycles?
a) Nitrogen
b) Carbon
c) Phosphorus
d) Hydrogen
6. The Agricultural Conservation Easement Program, which retires cropland and restores the land to grassland, is part of what piece of legislation?
a) The Farm Bill
b) The Endangered Species Act
c) The Pelly Amendment
d) The Lacy Act
7. Which of the following is true about chlorophyll?
a) None of the choices
b) Is required in order to perform photosynthesis
c) Synthesizes food from oxygen and water
d) Is required in producers to create carbon dioxide
8. Because diving ducks have a smaller wing-to-body ratio, they are required to do which of the following in order to take flight?
a) Swim to the surface with force
b) Launch themselves in the air
c) Run across the water to gain speed
d) Run across the ground to gain speed
9. Who published the very first textbook about game management?
a) Theodore Roosevelt
b) George Bird Grinnell
c) Aldo Leopold
d) Gifford Pinchot
10. Who published the very first textbook about game management?
a) Theodore Roosevelt
b) Aldo Leopold
c) George Bird Grinnell
d) Gifford Pinchot
11. Which order is defined by having a diet which consists of a majority of animal protein?
a) Artiodactyla
b) Cingulata
c) Chiroptera
d) Carnivora
12. Which of the following is the best description of taxonomy?
a) All of these are correct
b) Begins by placing an organism in a kingdom all the way down to a species
c) Branch of science where organisms are classified and named
d) Places an organism in descending, ordered groups
13. Why are waterfowl called an indicator species?
a) They are good indicators for both predator and prey health
b) They are good indicators of species health
c) They are good indicators of habitat health
d) They are good indicators of hunter success
14. Which of the following Acts grants the right for the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service to evaluate the impact of any federal or state actions affecting control or modification of bodies of water?
a) Fish and Wildlife Coordination Act
b) U.S. Fisheries Act
c) Lacey Act
d) Migratory Bird Treaty Act
15. The process of naming species uses __________, giving the species a name with two parts.
a) Binomial nomenclature
b) Diagnostic characteristics
c) Ecology naming
d) Monomial nomenclature
16. Because diving ducks have a smaller wing-to-body ratio, they are required to do which of the following in order to take flight?
a) Swim to the surface with force
b) Run across the water to gain speed
c) Run across the ground to gain speed
d) Launch themselves in the air
17. Which president was responsible for establishing the first wildlife refuge?
a) Ronald Reagan
b) Zachary Taylor
c) Ulysses S. Grant
d) Theodore Roosevelt
18. What act enabled funding through the sale of firearms, ammunition and sporting goods?
a) Weeks-McLean Act
b) National Economic Restoration Plan
c) The Fish and Wildlife Coordination Act
d) Pittman-Roberston Act
19. Water found in a wetland with woody plants, saturated or slow-moving water and low oxygen levels in the soil is known as:
a) Tidal Marsh
b) Bog
c) Fen
d) Swamp
20. Which order is defined by having a diet which consists of a majority of animal protein?
a) Cingulata
b) Carnivora
c) Artiodactyla
d) Chiroptera
21. Almost 40 percent of forests in the United States have introduced invasive species due to the increase of domestic and global travel. Invasive species cost hundreds of billions of dollars annually.
a) True
b) False
22. The Weeks-McLean Act allowed the establishment of which of the following?
a) Sale of migratory birds and their parts
b) Creation of a stamp for waterfowl hunters
c) Shipping, purchasing or acquiring wild birds
d) Closed seasons for hunting migratory birds
23. If an area has an over-abundant population and the habitat can no longer sustain the population, the population has surpassed the _________.
a) Carrying health
b) Carrying capacity
c) Population capacity
d) Population health
24. Which of the following is also known as the Duck Stamp Act?
a) Coastal Wetlands Planning, Protection and Restoration Act
b) The Farm Bill
c) North American Wetlands Conservation Act
d) Migratory Bird Hunting and Conservation Stamp Act
25. Which of the following best describes stopover sites?
a) Habitats utilized temporarily by mammals during regular daily activity
b) Habitats utilized by certain aquatic life for breeding sites and nurseries
c) Habitats utilized by humans for a short time for recreational purposes
d) Habitats utilized by migratory birds for resources along the flyway during bi-annual migration
26. A large plot of land in a grassland ecosystem was converted for agriculture. After four decades of use the land was abandoned and began to revert to its original state. This is an example of:
a) Climax community
b) Primary succession
c) Ecosystem management
d) Secondary succession
27. One acre of wetlands filters 7.3 gallons of water a month into fresh drinking water.
a) True
b) False
28. Which of the following is the best description of taxonomy?
a) Begins by placing an organism in a kingdom all the way down to a species
b) Branch of science where organisms are classified and named
c) All of these are correct
d) Places an organism in descending, ordered groups
29. Carol is surveying an area to determine if it meets the requirements to be classified as a wetland. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for her to take into consideration?
a) The soil is primary hydric, formed under prolonged flooding
b) The area supports hydrophytic plants for at least parts of the year
c) The area must have standing water year-round
d) The area is saturated during part of the growing season
30. In what year was the Federal Water Pollution Control Act established?
a) 1948
b) 1978
c) 1869
d) 1935
31. ________ includes all cervid, bovine, and apex predator species.
a) Furbearers
b) Big Game
32. Grasslands are dominated by grasses and several species of forbs. Which of the following best describes a forb?
a) Broadleaf plants and lower shrub vegetation
b) Invasive species which takes over grasslands
c) A drought tolerant species of grass
d) Trees and taller shrubs which survive in grasslands
33. Which of the following is a habitat requirement for breeding grounds?
a) Habitats with food and other resources, waterfowl may travel significantly within this habitat
b) Access to ample amounts of easily accessible resources nearby, ideal to allow breeding pairs to spread out
c) Plentiful resources for feeding to replenish energy stores and protected shelter while resting for short periods
d) None of the choices
34. The clear-cutting of forests can be sustainable for certain species under monitored conditions and with reforestation efforts.
a) True
b) False
35. What percent of forests remain in the United States?
a) 62
b) 33
c) 58
d) 47
36. The Civilian Conservation Corps was created to repair damaged environments and improve unemployment as part of which of the following conservation acts?
a) Yellowstone National Park Protection Act
b) First Wildlife Refuge Plan
c) National Economic Restoration Plan
d) Organic Act
37. Which of the following is a characteristic of the taiga?
a) Includes deciduous and coniferous forests
b) Northernmost forests with seasonal climate including long winters and short summers
c) Lacks seasonal climate, but can have wet and dry seasons
d) Most diverse of all ecosystems
38. Which of the following best describes kudzu and garlic mustard found in North American forests?
a) Common deciduous tree species
b) Harvestable crops grown through agroforestry methods
c) Invasive species impacting forest health
d) Moss species found in temperate forests
39. Which of the following is a private organization which has conserved more than 14 million acres since its founding?
a) United States Fish and Wildlife Service
b) Environmental Protection Agency
c) Ducks Unlimited®
d) The Farm Bill
40. Which of the following is true about chlorophyll?
a) None of the choices
b) Synthesizes food from oxygen and water
c) Is required in producers to create carbon dioxide
d) Is required in order to perform photosynthesis
41. If an area has an over-abundant population and the habitat can no longer sustain the population, the population has surpassed the_________.
a) Carrying health
b) Population capacity
c) Population health
d) Carrying capacity
42. When do male waterfowl molt into colorful breeding plumage?
a) After successful nest laying
b) Late summer before breeding season
c) Mid-spring after breeding season
d) After selecting a mate
43. Which of the following is the best description for the logging practice term known as clear cutting?
a) Logging only the most mature trees
b) Logging all trees of the same age in one area
c) Only cutting down the biggest or most valuable trees species in an area
d) Leaving some desirable mature trees standing
44. Organisms do NOT require nutrients, or chemical substances, during which of the following phases?
a) Maintenance
b) Reproduction
c) Sleep
d) Growth
45. Forests are responsible for storing large amounts of carbon. When does a case occur in which forests release significant amounts of carbon back into the atmosphere?
a) Trees do not release atmospheric carbon but do secrete carbon into the soil
b) Trees release large amounts of carbon during the process of photosynthesis
c) Trees release carbon when decaying, such as during deforestation
d) Trees can only hold a limited amount of carbon
46. Denitrification is an essential step in which of the following cycles?
a) Nitrogen
b) Hydrogen
c) Carbon
d) Phosphorus
47. Forests are responsible for storing large amounts of carbon. When does a case occur in which forests release significant amounts of carbon back into the atmosphere?
a) Trees release large amounts of carbon during the process of photosynthesis
b) Trees can only hold a limited amount of carbon
c) Trees do not release atmospheric carbon but do secrete carbon into the soil
d) Trees release carbon when decaying, such as during deforestation
48. Which of the following is NOT one of the states currently experiencing wetland reductions of between 80 to 100 percent?
a) Texas
b) California
c) Missouri
d) Iowa
49. The Agricultural Conservation Easement Program, which retires cropland and restores the land to grassland, is part of what piece of legislation?
a) The Endangered Species Act
b) The Farm Bill
c) The Lacy Act
d) The Pelly Amendment
50. Which of the following is a true statement about non-tidal marshes?
a) They are inhospitable to most plant and animal types
b) Their water levels are influenced by tidal patterns
c) They contain salt-water
d) They occur in poorly draining low places and along boundaries of freshwater sources
51. What percentage of Duck Stamp sales goes to supporting habitat restoration?
a) 75%
b) 58%
c) 98%
d) 25%
52. In order to maintain a healthy balance of nutrients in the soil, Sam plants corn in the spring and soybeans in the fall. This is known as:
a) Rotational crops
b) Rotational grazing
c) Cover crops
d) No-tillage
53. Grasslands are dominated by grasses and several species of forbs. Which of the following best describes a forb?
a) Invasive species which takes over grasslands
b) Broadleaf plants and lower shrub vegetation
c) A drought tolerant species of grass
d) Trees and taller shrubs which survive in grasslands
54. ________ includes species which are trapped and harvested for their pelt.
a) Furbearers
b) Big game
55. When do male waterfowl molt into colorful breeding plumage?
a) After successful nest laying
b) After selecting a mate
c) Late summer before breeding season
d) Mid-spring after breeding season
56. Fill in the blank. Marine habitats cover more than ____ percent of the earth’s surface.
a) 20
b) 70
c) 50
d) 90
57. The red wolf population has been reduced by 83 percent, with no more than 30 mature individuals remaining. According to this data, the red wolf would be classified as:
a) Threatened
b) Critically endangered
c) Vulnerable
d) Over-abundant
58. ________ includes all cervid, bovine, and apex predator species.
a) Furbearers
b) Big Game
59. Which of the following legislation provides funding for conservation programs to help farmers restore and protect wetlands?
a) The Farm Bill
b) Duck Stamp Act
c) The Organic Act
d) Clean Water Act
60. A large plot of land in a grassland ecosystem was converted for agriculture. After four decades the land was abandoned and began to revert to its original state. This is an example of:
a) Ecosystem management
b) Primary succession
c) Secondary succession
d) Climax community
61. In order to maintain a healthy balance of nutrients in the soil, Sam plants corn in the spring and soybeans in the fall. This is known as:
a) Rotational crops
b) Rotational grazing
c) No-tillage
d) Cover crops
62. Which of the following best describes kudzu and garlic mustard found in North American forests?
a) Common deciduous tree species
b) Invasive species impacting forest health
c) Moss species found in temperate forests
d) Harvestable crops grown through agroforestry methods
63. Which of the following best describes kudzu and garlic mustard found in North American forests?
a) Harvestable crops grown through agroforestry methods
b) Common deciduous tree species
c) Invasive species impacting forest health
d) Moss species found in temperate forests
64. Approximately $430 million are generated each year from which of the following?
a) Crabbing
b) Hunting waterfowl and bird watching
c) Hunting deer
d) Camping
65. What percent of forests remain in the United States?
a) 47
b) 62
c) 33
d) 58
66. Which of the following species became extinct due to market hunting?
a) Carolina parakeet
b) Passenger pigeon
c) Pronghorn
d) Bison
67. Which of the following examples corresponds to the category of protection restoration efforts?
a) Conservation easement or regulatory measure like the Organic Act
b) Controlling hydrologic regime to ensure proper water levels
c) Optimizing the use of fertilizer and pesticides
d) Re-establishing the topography of an area
68. Which of the following best describes stopover sites?
a) Habitats utilized by migratory birds for resources along the flyway
b) Habitats utilized by certain aquatic life for breeding sites
c) Habitats utilized by humans for a short time for recreational purposes
d) Habitats utilized temporarily by mammals during regular daily activity
69. The Civilian Conservation Corps was created to repair damaged environments and improve unemployment as part of which act?
a) Yellowstone National Park Protection Act
b) Organic Act
c) National Economic Restoration Plan
d) First Wildlife Refuge Plan
70. Water found in a wetland with woody plants, saturated or slow-moving water and low oxygen levels in the soil is known as:
a) Bog
b) Swamp
c) Tidal Marsh
d) Fen
71. Which of the following best describes kudzu and garlic mustard found in North American forests?
a) Harvestable crops grown through agroforestry methods
b) Common deciduous tree species
c) Moss species found in temperate forests
d) Invasive species impacting forest health
72. Since the start of the Duck Stamp Act in 1934, how many national wildlife refuges have been created or expanded?
a) 100
b) 400
c) 200
d) 300
73. Which of the following examples corresponds to the category of protection restoration efforts?
a) Conservation easement or regulatory measure like the Organic Act
b) Controlling hydrologic regime to ensure proper water levels
c) Optimizing the use of fertilizer and pesticides
d) Re-establishing the topography of an area
74. Organisms do NOT require nutrients, or chemical substances, during which of the following phases?
a) Sleep
b) Maintenance
c) Growth
d) Reproduction
75. When do male waterfowl molt into colorful breeding plumage?
a) After successful nest laying
b) Mid-spring after breeding season
c) After selecting a mate
d) Late summer before breeding season
76. Which of the following is the purpose of the Endangered Species Act?
a) To provide financial aid to states for management of fish
b) To protect and recover species which are endangered or threatened
c) To increase public opportunities for recreational use
d) To create large amounts of funding used to purchase waterfowl habitats
77. Since the start of the Duck Stamp Act in 1934, how many national wildlife refuges have been created or expanded?
a) 100
b) 300
c) 400
d) 200
78. Which of the following is NOT a reason for conducting a prescribed burn?
a) Clearing dead vegetation from the forest floor
b) Preventing wildlife from entering unwanted areas
c) Removing weak and dying trees
d) Rejuvenate growth by releasing seeds
79. Which of the following is NOT one of the states currently experiencing wetland reductions of between 80 to 100 percent?
a) Missouri
b) California
c) Iowa
d) Texas
80. Which of the following is a characteristic of the taiga?
a) Most diverse of all ecosystems
b) Lacks seasonal climate, but can have wet and dry seasons
c) Northernmost forests with seasonal climate including long winters and short summers
d) Includes deciduous and coniferous forests
81. Organisms do NOT require nutrients, or chemical substances, during which of the following phases?
a) Growth
b) Maintenance
c) Reproduction
d) Sleep
82. Which of the following species became extinct due to market hunting?
a) Pronghorn
b) Passenger pigeon
c) Carolina parakeet
d) Bison
83. Which of the following wetlands is dominated by emergent vegetation?
a) Swamps
b) Marshes
c) None of the choices
d) Bogs
84. The process of naming species uses __________, giving the species a name with two parts.
a) Diagnostic characteristics
b) Ecology naming
c) Binomial nomenclature
d) Monomial nomenclature
85. Which of the following is considered primary grassland habitat?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
86. The Agricultural Conservation Easement Program is part of what piece of legislation?
a) The Farm Bill
b) The Pelly Amendment
c) The Lacy Act
d) The Endangered Species Act
87. Adrian sees a bird with a distinctly hooked beak, bright yellow legs, and a bright yellow ring around the eye. What family does this bird belong to?
a) Columbidae
b) Falconidae
c) Picidae
d) Odontophoridae
88. ________ includes species which are trapped and harvested for their pelt.
a) Furbearers
b) Big game
89. Which of the following best describes high-grading harvest?
a) Cutting off the tallest branches of trees
b) Only cutting the largest or most valuable tree species in an area
c) All growth was cleared in an area no matter the age or type
d) Cutting trees which were small and overcrowding other trees
90. Adrian sees a bird with a distinctly hooked beak, bright yellow legs, and a bright yellow ring around the eye. What family does this bird belong to?
a) Odontophoridae
b) Picidae
c) Columbidae
d) Falconidae
91. Which of the following wetlands is dominated by emergent vegetation?
a) None of the choices
b) Swamps
c) Marshes
d) Bogs
92. Which of the following best describes high-grading harvest?
a) Cutting off the tallest branches of trees
b) Only cutting the largest or most valuable tree species in an area
c) Cutting trees which were small and overcrowding other trees
d) All growth was cleared in an area no matter the age or type
93. The Migratory Bird Conservation Commission is made up of the Secretary of Agriculture, two senators, two members of the house and ____________.
a) Representation from Ducks Unlimited®
b) The President
c) The Secretary of the Interior
d) The chief biologist of the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service
94. Suppressing fire to protect infrastructure leads to a build-up of combustible materials, causing the fire to grow out of control more quickly.
a) True
b) False
95. Most grasslands are __________ owned.
a) privately
b) publicly
96. The presence of hair and mammary glands are a diagnostic feature of which class?
a) Aves
b) Mammalia
c) Chiroptera
d) Carnivora
97. One acre of wetlands filters 7.3 gallons of water a month into fresh drinking water.
a) True
b) False
98. Preservation is the act of rebuilding an area suffering severe habitat loss.
a) True
b) False
99. Which of the following Acts grants the right for the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service to evaluate actions affecting bodies of water?
a) Fish and Wildlife Coordination Act
b) Migratory Bird Treaty Act
c) US Fisheries Act
d) Lacey Act
100. Which of the following is a true statement about non-tidal marshes?
a) They contain salt-water
b) They are inhospitable to most plant and animal types
c) Their water levels are influenced by tidal patterns
d) They occur in poorly draining low places and along boundaries of freshwater sources
The __ was formed by the federal government in response to the Dust Bowl.
a) Department of the Interior
b) Soil Conservation Service
c) Department of Agriculture
d) U.S. Forest ServiceMigration behavior is stimulated by the change of __ (or change in the amount of daylight).
a) Nesting
b) Photoperiods
c) Precocial
d) Daylight savingsThe very first textbook about game management was published by __.
a) Gifford Pinchot
b) Theodore Roosevelt
c) George Bird Grinnell
d) Aldo LeopoldWhat is a potential consequence of suppressing fire to protect infrastructure?
a) Permanently prevents wildfires in the area
b) Reduces the risk of future fires by eliminating fuel sources
c) Leads to a build-up of combustible materials, making future fires more intense and harder to control
d) Causes rain patterns to shift, reducing natural fire occurrenceWhich of the following wetlands is dominated by trees?
a) Marshes
b) Fens
c) Bogs
d) SwampsWhat does eclipse plumage refer to?
a) Down feathers of fledgling ducks
b) Female ducks molting to basic plumage
c) Periodic replacement of worn wing feathers with new ones
d) Male ducks molting into colorful breeding plumageWhich of the following best describes population density?
a) Age distribution of individuals in a population
b) Individuals of one species living and interacting together as a group
c) Number of offspring produced during a period of time
d) Number of individual animals per unit areaWhy do temperate grasslands produce the most fertile soils on the earth?
a) The plentiful rainfall allows for nutrients to accumulate in the soil
b) The absence of trees and large plants indicates more nutrients are left in the soil
c) The abundance of grazing animals fertilize the soil evenly
d) The soil is enriched by decayed roots of grasses and forbs below the surfaceWhich of the following families consists of species which have retractable claws?
a) Canidae
b) Felidae
c) Didelphidae
d) DasypodidaeGrasslands are easily converted into agricultural land due to which of the following?
a) Fertile soils
b) Constant fires and grazing animals dominating the landscape
c) Desired elevation and topography
d) Significant amounts of rainfallWhich of the following best describes a vulnerable species?
a) Population has been reduced by 50 to 70 percent
b) Has less than 2,500 mature adults
c) Population has been reduced by 30 to 50 percent
d) Has less than 250 mature adultsTaiga, tropical and temperate are all examples of a __ biome.
a) Wetland
b) Forest
c) Mountain
d) GrasslandsThe phosphorus cycle is primarily conducted in __.
a) Plants and animals
b) Soil and plants
c) Water and atmosphere
d) WaterWhich of the following best describes the system in which carbon credits or greenhouse gas offsets are used and traded by companies to mitigate greenhouse gas emissions?
a) Mitigation markets
b) In-lieu mitigation programs
c) Mitigation banks
d) Carbon marketsWhich of the following is the best description for the logging practice term known as clear-cutting?
a) Removing all growth in an area, no matter the age or type of plant
b) Logging only the most mature trees
c) Leaving some desirable mature trees standing
d) Only cutting down the biggest or most valuable tree species in an areaConservation management funds are established through the sale of firearms, ammunition and sporting goods due to the __.
a) The Fish and Wildlife Coordination Act
b) Pittman-Roberston Act
c) Dingell-Johnson Act
d) Weeks-McLean Act