Benchmark Quizzes

Module 1

  1. Select all of the statements that are true about STRs: 

    • First discovered by Kary Mullis

    • STR is the acronym for Short Trunkated Repeats

    • Multiple copies of an identical (or similar) DNA sequence arranged in direct succession where repeat sequence unit is 2 to 6 bp in length

    • AKA minisatellites

  2. RFLP testing is more discriminatory that STR testing.

    • True

    • False

  3. Peak height is measured in relative fluorescent units (RFU)

Module 2 Quiz 1

  1. RNA is single stranded and DNA is double stranded.

  2. In RNA In uracil pairs with Adenine.

  3. DNA is stored in the nucleus and the mitochondria.

  4. RNA transports proteins

Module 2 Quiz 2

  1. During the s-phase, DNA and packaging proteins are duplicated, this takes approximately 10-12 hrs.  

    • True

    • False

  2. DNA from specific genes are transcribed into RNA than RNA is translated into an amino acid sequence, used to build proteins.

  3. Helicase unwinds parental double helix at replication fork

  4. DNA ligase joins Okazaki fragments of lagging strand

  5. Topoisomerase breaks swivels and rejoins DNA

  6. Endosymbiont theory states that… An early ancestor of eukaryotic cells engulfed a non-photosynthetic prokaryotic cell that used oxygen and it then developed into the mitochondria.

  7. During interphase chromosomes are segregated and the cell divides.

    • true

    • false

  8. Primase makes RNA primer at 5’ and the end of the lagging strand and at the 5’ end of each Okazaki fragment of the lagging strand

  9. DNA polymerase III adds nucleotides to an RNA primer or pre-existing DNA strand

  10. DNA polymerase I removes RNA primer from 5’end

  11. Select all of the true statements: 

    • In the nucleus, DNA is coiled around enzymes called histones to form chromatin

    • Each chromosome consists of multiple strands of DNA 

    • Most human cells have 46 pairs of chromosomes

    • Chromatin condenses to from chromosomes

Module 3

  1. Which of the following is an example of a situation where you would use the sum rule to determine probability?

    • The probability of picking a red card that is also a king from a standard deck of cards.

    • The probability of choosing 2 students from a class to take a test and both of them being boys.

    • The probability of picking 2 cards, one red and one black.

    • The probability of selecting one M&M candy from a bag and it being red or green.

  2. The Law of Segregation states that two alleles for each trait separate (segregate) during gamete formation, and then unite at random, one from each parent, at fertilization.

    • True

    • False

Quiz 2

  1. Base in one position of DNA molecule is replaced by one of the other bases. Substitution

  2. Proportion of individuals in a population that express a particular phenotype. phenotype frequency

  3. A mutation that changes a wild type allele of a gene to a different allele.

    forward mutation

  4. Group of interbreeding individuals of same species, inhabit same space at same time

    population

  5. Changes in the frequency of alleles within a population.

    microevolution, genetic drift

  6. Parts of two nonhomologous chromosomes change places.

    Reciprocal Translocation

  7. 3/5 List the 5 assumptions for Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium

    • no migration

    • no natural selection

    • large population

    • random mating

    • no new mutations

Module 4 Quizzes

  1. How many nanograms is equal to 49.4 grams?

    • 49.4g x 1/10^-9ng = 4.94e+10 ng

  2. How many milliliters are in a 2 L bottle of soda?

    • 2000 ml

  3. How many grams is equal to 80.4 mg?

    • .0804 g

  4. How much salt is needed to make 0.58 L of a 2 mM salt-water solution (molecular weight of NaCL = 58.43 g/mol)?

    • 0.068g

  5. How many grams of acetic acid do you need to make 500.0 mL of 0.825 M acetic acid (molecular weight = 60.06 g/mol)? 

    • 24.8g

  6. How much cherry juice (3.56 mM) is needed to make 7.54 mL of Shirley Temple (6.12 uM)? 

    • 12.96 uL

Module 5 Quizzes

  1. Reduction is when a molecule gains an electron

  2. The high dose hook effect causes false positive reactions in immunochromatographic tests.

    • false

  3. Oxidation is when a molecule loses and electron

  4. Reduction is when a molecule gains an electron

  5. Select all of the following that are true about affinity:

    • overall strength of antibody-antigen complex

    • affinity is the strength of interaction btwn antigen and antibody at a single antigenic site

    • the lower the avidity the lower possibility of cross-reactivity

    • affinity is the strength of interaction btwn antibody and antigen at a single antigenic site

    • sum of attraction and repulsive forces btwn epitope and paratope

    • the lower the affinity the higher possibility of cross-reactivity

    • sum of the binding affinities of all the binding sites

Module 6 Quizzes

  1. Select 3 examples of false positives for presumptive blood reactions

    • bleach

    • horseradish

    • metal salts

  2. Which of the following describes chemiluminescence?

    • light is emitted at a lower wavelength than that of the excitation source

    • light emitted as a result of a chemical rxn

    • light is emitted at a higher wavelength than that of the excitation source

    • a fluorescent glow as a result of a chemical rxn

  3. During a redox rxn, the compound that loses an electron is reduced

    • false

  4. Christmas tree staining is considered by some to be the only true confirmatory test for human semen

    • false

  5. Oligospermia is a medical condition that causes males to have lower sperm counts

  6. Semen fluoresces under light that is 450-495 nm and viewed with an

    orange goggle colored filter

  7. Drag the words into the correct boxes

    • HSA is only found in human saliva false

    • amylopectin consists of long linear chains of glucose residues false

    • luminol is a chemiluminescent rxn to detect semen false

    • reduction is the loss of electrons false

Module 7 Quizzes

Module 8 Quizzes

Module 9 Quizzes

Module 10 Quizzes

Module 11 Quizzes

Module 12 Quizzes

  1. QAS stands for Quality Assurance Standards

  2. Accreditation is the formal recognition that an analyst meets or exceeds a list of standards

  3. A developmental validation is commonly performed by an individual laboratory when beginning to run a new product

    • false

  4. A performance check is required to be performed

    • following a repair

    • annually

    • following routine maintenance

  5. Original observations data, and calculations shall be recorded immediately and shall be identifiable with the specific task.

  6. Contains no intentionally added template DNA and used to monitor contamination from extraction to DNA typing. Reagent blanks

    Contains no intentionally added template DNA and used to detect contamination contamination from reagents Negative control

  7. Proficiency testing is a quality assurance measure used to monitor performance and identify areas in which improvement may be needed True

Module 13 Quizzes

  1. The most common challenges to well settled forensic evidence in court involve: the integrity of the testing and the expert’s file

  2. chain of custody involves documentation regarding the whereabouts of evidence during the testing process

  3. The Frye test leaves the question of what scientific methodology is generally reliable to: the scientific community

  4. The 6th Amendments protects: the right to confront witnesses against you

  5. Expert witnesses are permitted to testify regarding an opinion they hold

    • true

  6. Hearsay is an out of court statement offered for the truth of the matter asserted

  7. The 6th Amendment applies to testimonial hearsay

  8. Lab reports completed by forensic scientists for use in court are testimonial hearsay

    • true

  9. A witness is qualified to testify as an expert if his or her specialized knowledge will assist:

    • the finer of fact (judge or jury)

Module 14 Quizzes

  1. product identifier

  2. signal word

  3. hazard statements

  4. precautionary statements

  5. supplier identification

  6. pictogram

  7. Which of the following statements are true regarding handling chemicals

    • check container for expiration date

    • transport large bottles using leak-proof secondary containers

    • use the smallest volume possible

    • wear PPE

  8. General safe practices are important for the health and safety of laboratory staff. Which of the following are general guidelines for maintaining a safe environment for laboratory activities?

    • know the location of safety equipment

    • always wear PPE

    • know what to do if an accident occurs

  9. What are some of the safeguards necessary for safe laboratory operation

    • protective clothing

    • safety showers

    • sharps container

    • waste disposal

  10. Keep all acids and bases in the same cabinet

    • false

  11. What does RAMP stand for

    • recognize

    • asses

    • minimize

    • prepare

  12. Always add water to acid, not acid to water

    • false