bio
Q1
(This is a rough what id think could possibly be in reference the drop down boxes. Please bear with me here.
Gluons - hold quarks together to form subatomic particles
Dark energy - a repulsive force that drives the universe's expansion
Inflation - a rapid expansion of the universe to the size of a grapefruit or football
Helium - the second atom to form after the Big Bang; contains two protons, neutrons and electrons
Hydrogen -the first atom to form after the Big Bang; contains one proton and electron
Quarks - building blocks of protons , neutrons and electrons
Supernova - the explosion or death of a star resulting in a black hole or neutron star
Galaxies - huge collections of gas, particles and stars held together by gravity and dark matter
Nebula - the gasses and matter left behind by a supernova that will eventually become a new galaxy
The singularity - all of the matter and energy of the universe contained within an infinitely dense point
Q2 cr/ps pro/euk
Nebula - ____ are the remnants of supernovas that will eventually form new galaxies
Flagella - Which structure looks like a tail and is used to propel certain bacteria
Nucleus - which of the following structures are not found within bacteria
Protists - ____ were the first unicellular eukaryotes to evolve
Cyanobacteria - which organisms evolved photosynthesis first
cell membrane, cytoplasm, DNA, ribosomes - Which four cellular structures do all living organisms have in common?
Mitochondria - Which organelle is required for cellular respiration?
Ribosomes - ____ are the organelles responsible for building proteins
Life exam 1
Ribosomes ____ build proteins and are required for every living organism
Opposable thumbs - which of the following traits is not used to differentiate from our closest living primate relatives
Vascular Tissue - what evolutionary development allowed plants to grow larger
Phloem - ____ carries glucose throughtout vascular plants
Hominins - ____ are organism that are bipedal and always walk with too feet
Organelles - which of the following terms describes membrane - enclosed components of cells that carry out specialized functions
Homo ergaster - who were the hunter gatherers that were taller but not fully upright
Amphibians - which of the following groups contains members most closely associated with a wet or moist environment
Cambrian =- The earliest ancestors of about half of all extant animal phyla can be traced back to the __________ explosion.
Singularity - The _____ was an infinitely dense/hot cluster of all the matter and energy in the universe.
lack true leaves and roots - Most bryophytes, such as mosses, differ from all other plants in that they __________.
Nucleoid - The _____ is the region in bacteria where the DNA is located.
Genetic variation - is increased in a population due to sexual reproduction.
Desiccation - In addition to providing a layer of protection in reptiles, scales and eggs also prevented these organisms from drying out or ____.
Chemical energy - Many properties of living things involve the transfer and transformation of energy and matter. For example, plant chloroplasts convert energy from sunlight to which of the following forms of energy or matter?
Endothermic - Mammals are _____ because they can regulate their own body temperature
Photosynthesis - Which of these characteristics is shared by algae and seed plants
Homo heidelbergensis - Who did modern humans and Neanderthals evolve from?
Australopithicus - Who was short with long arms, body hair and the inability to use tools
Q3
Replication - Which of the following is not a principle that Darwin identified as a part of natural selection?
Genetic traits - Natural selection is a theory that states the environment will force selection of the best
Artificial selection - A farmer has bred his pineapple plants from the sweetest pineapples from his last harvest to get even sweeter pineapple plants. What is this an example of?
Intrasexual selection - What type of selection is most likely responsible for the large antlers seen on male elks?
Pangea - the supercontinent that separated due to continental drift.
Q4 (yes i know i skipped ex 2 just know the 4 guys for extra points
Natural selection - Which cause of genetic variation reliably increases the frequency of beneficial alleles?
Genetic drift - Chance events in small populations leads to _____ which causes unpredictable changes in allele frequencies
Sexual reproduction - Which of the following increases genetic diversity in a population?
And uses two sources of genetic information and recombines them to make a genetically unique organism.
Allele - An ____ is a version of a gene.
Bottleneck effect - The Black Summer fires occurred in 2000 on Kangaroo Island in South Australia. it is estimated that over 80% of the Koala population died in the fire. This will most likely result in ____.
Ex 3
Gurg - gurg
Polyploidy - _____ occurs in plants when they have more than two full sets of DNA.
(ex is latin for out) Emigration - is the movement of individuals out of a population.
Chemoattractants - Human fertilization relies on the release of _____ from the egg which relay chemical messages to sperm.
Niche - The maggot fly is an example of how introduction of a new ____ can result in speciation.
Microevolution - studies the changing allele frequencies of populations over time.
Founder effect - Soon after the island of Hawaii rose above the sea surface (about one million years ago), the evolution of life on this new island should have been most strongly influenced by ________.
Gene flow - Comparisons of Neanderthal DNA revealed that there are more similarities to non-African DNA compared to those from Africa. Additionally, scientists found that Neanderthal DNA is as closely related to East Asians as to Europeans. This indicates that interbreeding occurred before human migration further east. What process of population genetics generated these results?
Habitat isolation - Two populations of flightless birds with somewhat different coloration live on different islands. When birds from the two populations are brought together, they produce young whose appearance is intermediate between the two parents. These offspring can breed with each other or with either parent population. What keeps the two populations separate?
Founder and genetic drift - The Dunkers are a religious group that moved from Germany to Pennsylvania in the mid 1700s. They do not marry with members outside their own immediate community. Today, the Dunkers are genetically unique and differ in gene frequencies compared to everyone else. Which of the following mechanisms likely explains the genetic uniqueness of this population?
Bottle neck - An earthquake decimates a ground-squirrel population, killing 98% of them. The surviving population happens to have broader stripes compared to the initial population. If stripe patterns are genetically determined, what effect has the ground-squirrel population experienced during the earthquake?
Geneflow - Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human evolution by increasing ________.
Sexual reproduction - No two people are genetically identical, except for identical twins. The main source of genetic variation among humans is
Habitat isolation - Dog breeders maintain the purity of breeds by keeping dogs of different breeds apart when they are fertile. This kind of isolation is ____.
Reduced hybrid viability - Two species of frogs belonging to the same genus occasionally mate, but the embryos stop developing after a day and then die. These two frog species are kept separate by ________.
hybrid breakdown - Which postzygotic barriers prevent formation of hybrids beyond the first generations?
Allopatric speciation - One particular species of house finch were found only in western North America until 1939, when a few individuals were released in New York City. These individuals established a breeding population and gradually expanded their range. The two populations have recently come in contact. If the two forms were unable to breed when their expanding ranges met, it would be an example of ________.
Gametic isolation - Rocky Mountain juniper and one-seeded juniper are two species with overlapping ranges. Pollen (sperm) from one species are unable to fertilize female egg of the other species. These two juniper species are kept separate by ________.
Q5
Disaccharide - the dimer of a carbohydrate; two monomers linked together
Starch - storage polysaccharide found in plants
Polysaccharide - three or more monomers linked together in a chain
dehydration synthesis - process used to link monomers together
Hydrolysis - process used to break polymers into individual monomers
glycosidic linkage - What type of bond holds polysaccharides together
Polymer - A _____ is a chain of repeating subunits or monomer
Chitin - structural polysaccharide found within the cell walls of fungi
Glycogen - storage polysaccharide found in animals
Cellulose - structural polysaccharide found in the cell wall of plants
Monosaccharide - the monomer of a carbohydrate
Q6imporatante
Ketone- What functional group is not found in fats or phospholipids
Ester linkage - type of bond that is found in fats and phospholipids
Phospholipid - a lipid containing a glycerol, two fatty acids and a phosphate group; can be saturated or unsaturated
Fat - a molecule made of a glycerol and three fatty acids; can be saturated or unsaturated
Fatty Acid - part of a fat/phospholipid that has a carboxyl and a chain of carbons and hydrogens; can be saturated or unsaturated
Steroid - a lipid containing four fused rings of carbon
Amphipathic - Phospholipids are ________ because they contain both hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts.
Quaternary - Which level of protein folding hold multiple peptides together in a polypeptide?
disulfide bridges - What type of bonds can occur between sulfhydryl groups in tertiary structure?
Secondary Structure - Alpha helices and beta pleated sheets are associated with
Energy Storage - Which of the following is not a function of proteins?
Peptide bonds - What type of bonds are responsible for holding primary structure together?
Carboxyls & Amines - What two functional groups make up an amino acid?
Ionic bonds - What type of bonds can occur between acidic and basic amino acids in tertiary structure?
R group - Which part of an amino acid varies?
Peptide - Proteins are held together by _____ bonds.
changes in the atmospheric pressure - Which of the following does not affect a proteins structure?
Hydrophobic interactiona bonds - What type of bonds can occur between nonpolar R groups in tertiary structure?
Ex 5 (please kill me)
Methyl - The only nonpolar functional group is a ____ group.
They are Double Stranded - Which of the following is NOT true regarding proteins?
a nitrogenous base and a sugar - Which of the following best describes nucleotides?
Glycerol - Fats and phospholipids both contain
Complementary - DNA is ____ because A pairs with T and G pairs with C.
Glycogen - When blood sugar is elevated, insulin is secreted from the pancreas and causes glucose to be stored as _____
22% - If a strand of DNA contains 28% thymine, what percentage of the DNA would be cytosine? Hint: Think about the complementary nature of DNA.
Glucose - Which of the following is not a polymer?
Disulfide - bridges (within proteins in your hair) are responsible for its overall shape and structure
DNA contains deoxyribose sugar - Which of the following statements is true regarding nucleic acids?
They are more common in plants than in animals. - Which of the following is true of unsaturated fats?
Long term energy storage - Which of the following is not a function of proteins?
Ester linkage - A glycosidic linkage is analogous to which of the following in lipids?
do not have a polar or charged regions - Cooking oil and gasoline (a hydrocarbon) are not amphipathic molecules because they ________.
the number of guanine and cytosine nucleotides will not necessarily be the same - In a single strand of RNA,
Unsaturated - ____ fats are less dense and therefore liquids at room temperature.
9 - BONUS: How many molecules of water are required to break down a protein that is 10 amino acids long?
The 5 end has a phosphate group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose - Which of the following statements about the 5' end of a strand of RNA is correct?
Phospholipids are both hydrophilic and hydrophobic. - Which of the following statements is true regarding lipids?
Glycosidic - Polysaccharides are held together by _____ linkages.
a covalent bond forms between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate of a second - When nucleotides polymerize to form a nucleic acid, ________.
Antiparallel - DNA is ____ because the two strands are oriented in opposite directions.
The polar heads interact with water; the nonpolar tails do not - How do phospholipids interact with water molecules?
Chitin - Which polysaccharide is an important component in fungi?
Function in the synthesis of proteins - One of the primary functions of RNA is to
Covalent Bonds - Which of the following is not associated with tertiary protein folding?
the presence of fatty acid tails with lots of carbon and hydrogen - What makes fats nonpolar?
It will have a positive sign in the R group - Which of the following is characteristic of a basic amino acid?
Saturated fats only contain C-C single bonds.- Which of the following is true regarding fats?
Chitin - Which of the following polysaccharides is not composed of glucose monomers?
R group - What is the only part of an amino acid that differs?
Denature - A protein can _____ and lose its shape when it's removed from its ideal temperature and pH.
Q8
nucleus --> rough ER --> vesicle --> Golgi --> vesicle --> cell membrane - Determine the proper order of organelles in the endomembrane system
Chromatid - the uncondensed version of DNA
Ribosome - responsible for translation of RNA into protein
Cristae - the folds of the inner membrane of the mitochondria
Rough Er- houses ribosomes and creates transport vesicles
Chromosome - condensed version of DNA
Transport vesicles - a phospholipid bubble that transports new protein to their final destination
Granum - a stack of green disks in the chloroplast
Nucleus - houses and protects the DNA; reads DNA and builds complimentary RNA
Lysosome - bubble of digestive enzymes that digest food and recycle molecules
Chlorophyll -green pigment responsible for capturing light energy in photosynthesis
Nucleoid - the location of the DNA in bacterial cells
Stroma - the space inside the chloroplast
Peptidoglycan - makes up the bacterial cell wall
Mitochondria - responsible for cellular respiration
Nuclear membrane - double phospholipid bilayer that surrounds the nucleus
Nuclear Pore - tiny holes in the nuclear membrane that allow substances to pass through
Smooth ER - stores calcium, detoxifies poisons, builds lipids, breaks down carbohydrates
Thylakoid - a green disc inside of the chloroplast
Golgi apparatus - receives, modifies, packages and ships newly made proteins
Central vacuole - stores excess water inside of plant cells
Chloroplast - responsible for photosynthesis in plants and algae
inner mitochondrial membrane - the space inside the mitochondria
Matrix - the space inside the mitochondria
Nucleolus - structure inside the nucleus that builds ribosomal RNA
Cisternae - the phospholipid bilayer folds of the Golgi apparatus
Ex 6
Rough ER - Which organelles in the main site of protein synthesis?
Microfilaments are made of actin - Which statement is correct?
Plant, animal, bacteria - Determine which organisms have the following organelle: cell membrane.
low [Na+] and [K+] inside the cell and high [Na+] and [K+] outside. - The sodium-potassium pump generates the following concentration gradients across the plasma membrane
Pinocytosis - _____ is the uptake of liquids into a cell.
Plant and bacteria - Determine which organisms have the following organelle: cell wall.
an isotonic solution, and the plant cell is in a hypotonic solution - Which of the following statements correctly describes the normal tonicity conditions for typical plant and animal cells? The animal cell is in ________
Chloroplasts - What organelle is the site of photosynthesis?
The Na/K pump moves Na+ into the cell and K+ out of the cell - Which of the following statements is false?
Cisternae - The Golgi apparatus is made up of folds called _____.
Stomata - _____ are pores that allow for gas exchange in plants.
Golgi apparatus - Which of the following is found in animal cells?
Oxygen Gas - Which of the following would likely diffuse through the lipid bilayer of a plasma membrane most rapidly?
Large hydrophobic molecules - Which of the following are least likely to diffuse (simple or facilitated) through the phospholipid bilayer of a cell membrane without energy?
Central vacuole - The _____ is used to store excess water in plant cells.
In plant cells - Determine which organisms have the following organelle: central vacuole.
Smooth ER - If you were bitten by a rattle snake, which structure would try to neutralize the toxins present in the venom?
Aquaporins - Which of the following molecules dramatically increases the rate of diffusion of water across cell membranes?
on the interior surface of a food vacuole - During receptor-mediated endocytosis, where are the receptors that bind specific molecules located immediately following endocytosis?
Diffusion - Which of the following is not a function of integral proteins?
in both plant and animal cells - Determine which organisms have the following organelle: mitochondria.
Facilitated diffusion - Molecule X can diffuse very slowly across an artificial phospholipid bilayer that contains no transport proteins. By contrast, this same molecule is rapidly transported into cells of the small intestine during digestion. Based on this information, which transport mechanism is most likely responsible for glucose transport in the intestinal cells?
Plasmolysed - Plant cells in a hypertonic solution become ____.
Plant animal bacteria - Determine which organisms have the following organelle: ribosomes.
Matrix - Which of the following is not associated with chloroplasts?
Passive transport - Which of the following processes includes all of the others?
Amphipathic - Integral proteins are ____ because they contain both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions.
Phospholipid synthesis / steroid - Which of the following is not a role of the smooth ER?
extracellular matrix; provides internal support for the cell- Which structure-function pair is mismatched?
Golgi apparatus - The ____ is the shipping and receiving center of the cell.
Active Transport - If the concentration of phosphate inside the cell is 2.0% and 0.1% outside of the cell, how could the cell increase the concentration of phosphate in the cytoplasm?
Cristae - _____ are the folds of the inner mitochondrial membrane.
Q9
Metabolic Pathway - A _____ is a series of chemical reactions that are linked together in a chain.
What is the third step of an enzymatically catalyzed reaction? - What is the third step of an enzymatically catalyzed reaction?
Delta G - During an enzymatically catalyzed reaction, the ______ of the reaction will not change.
Substrate binds to active site - What is the first step of an enzymatically catalyzed reaction?
Covalent bonds - What type of bonds do NOT hold the substrate in place after induced fit?
EX
Endergonic / negative delta g - Which of the following terms are mismatched?
It helps the enzyme promote the chemical reaction - What is the function of an activator?
The substrates have a very similar structure - Which of the following characteristics is most likely associated with an enzyme that catalyzes two different chemical reactions?
Enzyme is helped to promote chemical reactions - What is the function of an activator?
Breakdown of glucose in cellular respiration - Which of the following is an example of catabolism?
Metabolic pathway - A _____ is a series of chemical reactions that are linked together in a chain.
Uphill - If a reaction has a positive delta G, then it
Activation - Enzymes catalyze chemical reactions by lowering the ____ energy of the reactions.
Photosynthesis - Which of the following processes is endergonic?
all chemical reactions in the body - Metabolism refers to
Competitive inhibition - HIV is the virus that causes AIDS. In the mid-1990s, researchers discovered an enzyme in HIV called protease. Once the enzyme's structure was known, researchers began looking for drugs that would fit into the active site and block it. If this strategy for stopping HIV infections were successful, it would be an example of what phenomenon?
All options are correct - In a spontaneous reaction,
Substrate - A _____ binds to the active site of an enzyme and is converted into product.
Induced fit - When _____ occurs, the enzyme pulls the substrate into the active site so that they fit together perfectly.
Anabolic reaction - When _____ occurs, the enzyme pulls the substrate into the active site so that they fit together perfectly.
Noncompetitive - _____ inhibitors bind to an enzyme and change the shape of the active site.
Activators - ____ are proteins that help substrates and active sites fit together during enzymatically catalyzed reactions.
Competitive inhibition - Which of the following conditions may be overcome by increasing the substrate concentration in a reaction with a fixed amount of enzyme?
Q10
Glucose - What is being oxidized during cellular respiration?
Combustion - During a ____ reaction, electrons are transferred from a fuel source to oxygen
36-38 - How many molecules of ATP are produced during CR per glucose?
To fuel atp synthesis - What is the goal of chemiosmosis?
H20, CO2, and energy - What are the products of a combustion reaction?
To start the oxidation of glucose - What is the goal of glycolysis?
To finish the oxidation of glucose - What is the goal of the Krebs cycle?
Water - What is being reduced during cellular respiration?
Oxidized - FADH2 is ____ into FAD.
Reduced - NAD+ is ____ to become NADH.
To reduce oxygen to water - What is the goal of the electron transport chain?
They are oxidized - What happens to the electron carriers when they reach the electron transport train?
Reduction - During a(n) ____, a molecule gains an electron.
to continue the oxidation of glucose - What is the goal of pyruvate oxidation?
Hydrocarbons - In general, ____ are a good fuel source because their covalent bonds contain lots of stored energy.
to transport electrons to O2 - What is the main function of electron carriers in cellular respiration?
Oxidation - During a(n) ____, a molecule loses an electron.
Q11
Citric acid cycle - During which of the following processes is most of the CO2 from the catabolism of glucose is released?
NADH - Which of the following is a product of glycolysis and the Krebs cycle?
Glycolysis - ____ is a metabolic pathway that is used by every single living organism.
pyruvate , atp nadh - What are the products of glycolysis?
10 NADH - How many molecules of NADH are made during glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation and the Krebs cycle?
Acetyl CoA is oxidized into CO2 - What happens during the Krebs cycle?
2 acetyl coa - During pyruvate oxidation, pyruvate is oxidized into ____.
Pyruvate - Which of the following products is only produced during glycolysis?
Cytoplasm - Where does glycolysis occur in the cell?
Atp is made - Which of the following does not occur during pyruvate oxidation?
3 ATP, 6 CO2, 9 NADH and 3 FADH2 - Which of the following combinations of products would result from three acetyl CoA molecules entering the citric acid cycle?
To finish the oxidation of glucose - What is the goal of the Krebs cycle?
Co2 - Which of the following is a product that is only produced during pyruvate oxidation and the Krebs cycle?
FADH2 - Which of the following product is only made during the Krebs cycle?
EX 8
Redox - The ETC is a series of _____ reactions.
C02 - Which of the following is a product that is only produced during pyruvate oxidation and the Krebs cycle?
FADH2 - Which of the following is exclusively a product of the Krebs cycle?
ATP IS MADE - Which of the following does not occur during pyruvate oxidation?
pyruvate, ATP and NADH - Which best describes the products of glycolysis?
3 ATP, 6 CO2, 9 NADH and 3 FADH2 - Which of the following combinations of products would result from three acetyl CoA molecules entering the citric acid cycle?
C02 is removed from each pyruvate - What happens during the first step of pyruvate oxidation?
to transport electrons to O2 - What is the main function of electron carriers in cellular respiration?
Final electron acceptor - During aerobic respiration, the _____ is always oxygen.
Reduced - During alcohol fermentation, acetaldehyde is _____ to form alcohol.
IMM - Where are the proteins of the ETC located?
Acetyl CoA is oxidized into CO2 - What happens during the Krebs cycle?
36- 38 ATP - How many molecules of ATP are produced during CR per glucose?
Citric acid cycle - During which of the following processes is most of the CO2 from the catabolism of glucose is released?
Pyruvate - During lactic acid fermentation, _____ is reduced to form lactic acid.
to transport electrons to O2 - What is the main function of electron carriers in cellular respiration?
FADH2 - Which of the following is a product that is only made during the Krebs cycle?
NADH - Which of the following is a product of glycolysis and the Krebs cycle?
Pyruvate - Which of the following is only produced during glycolysis?
ATP, NAD+, CO2 and ethanol - In the absence of oxygen, yeast cells can obtain energy by fermentation, which results in the production of which of the following sets of molecules?
H2o - Which of the following products are produced during the ETC?
Atp synthase - ____ is the enzyme responsible for building ATP during oxidative phosphorylation.
6 NAD+ 2FAD, 2 ADP, 2 Acetyl CoA - List the reactants (and numbers of each molecule) for the Krebs cycle.
The Ph of the matrix increases - During oxidative phosphorylation, which of the following changes occurs?
Q12
Benign - tumors cant metastazie
Capsule - capsules is a tough outer coat that surrounds certain tumors
Transformation - When a cell undergoes _____, it has been converted from a healthy cell into a cancerous cell.
Ex 9
To check for errors before prgoressing to M phase - What is the function of the G2 checkpoint?
a plant cell in the process of cytokinesis - Through a microscope, you can see a cell plate beginning to develop across the middle of a cell and nuclei forming on either side of the cell plate. This cell is most likely ________
Protein synthesis - Which of the following is NOT a function of cell division?
Are stuck in the cell cycle - One difference between cancer cells and normal cells is that cancer cells
Centrosome - What is the name of the microtubule-organizing center found in animal cells during all phases of the cell cycle?
Anaphase I - During which of the following phases of meiosis do homologous chromosomes separate?
Capsule - Malignant tumors can spread because they lack a _____,
G2 - Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. In which stage of the cell cycle would the nucleus contain 6 picograms of DNA?
Apoptosis - When a cell encounters an error in the cell cycle that can't be fixed, it undergoes_____. (Use the technical term)
Miotic spinde - Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, Taxol prevents microtubule depolymerization. Thus, Taxol stops mitosis by interfering with which of the following structures or processes?
M phase - When does cytokinesis occur?
Prophase - During which phase of mitosis do the chromatids begin to condense into chromosomes?
an increase in the amount of cytoplasm - G1 is associated with which of the following cellular events?
Genome - The human ____ is composed of 46 chromosomes and about 20,000 genes.
Cleavage furrow - In animal cells, a _____ is formed during cytokinesis.
Kintechore - Microtubules bind to _____ on the centromere of a chromosome.
replication of the DNA - Which of the following events occurs prior to M phase of the cell cycle?
during both mitosis and meiosis II - During which of the following processes do sister chromatids separate from each other?
Spinde ls required - What is true of both mitosis and meiosis?
Prophase - The M phase checkpoint ensures that all chromosomes are attached to the mitotic spindle. If this does not happen, cells would most likely be arrested in ________.
Meisosis II haplid diploid mesisios - Which of the following statements describes a major difference between meiosis II and mitosis?
Zygote - A fertilized egg is called a _____.