A lumbar tap, tests what type of fluid?

• Cerebrospinal

Ultrasound and __________ are both non ionizing diagnostic modalities

• MRI

What lab tests can sometimes reveal evidence of the particular microbe that causing your illness?

• blood test

• Urine test

• Throat swab

• All of the above

A pregnant woman comes into the Dr. complaining of a palpable breast lump, what diagnostic test was ordered ?

• mammography

• Pet scan

• Cat scan

• None of the above

What modality would be best to diagnose a broken arm ?

• X-ray

This imaging test is the oldest, most frequently used form of electro- magnetic radiation. What is it?

• x ray

This imaging test is the safest for of medical imaging, non-ionizing, and cost effective, what is it?

• ultrasound

This test uses x rays to create 3D images to show internal organs, what is it ?

• cat scan

This test uses special dye radioactive tracers, used to see the metabolism of organs. Shows area of higher chemical activity, can measure blood flow and oxygen use. What is it?

• pet scan

This test uses strong magnetic fields and radio waves to create 3D data set, it is non-ionizing. What is it?

• MRI

A tiny sample of tissue that is taken from an internal organ for testing is?

• biopsy

All the following are possible complications of a biopsy except ?

• aneurysm

An abnormal growth of tissue is called ?

• neoplasm

All are the main groups of neoplasms according to ICD-10 classification except.

•  A mass

• benign neoplasms

• malignant neoplasms

• neoplasms of uncertain or unknown behavior

• In situ neoplasms

A group of abnormal cells that have not spread are called ?

• carcinoma in situ

All example of benign tumors except.

• hemangioma

• Fibroid

• Adenoma

• Hepatocellular carcinoma

The result of gene defects which are influenced by environment factors are called ?

• multifactoral disease

A chromosome is a strand of DNA that is a type of nucleic acid which is usually found in the ____________

• cell nucleus

Fibroid is also known as.

• leiomyoma

Down syndrome is also known as.

• trisomy 21

A dominant disorder is a condition caused by a single defective gene. This is known as ?

• autosomal dominant

A recessive disorder is a condition caused by a pair of defective genes. This is known as ?

• autosomal recessive

The most common - link recessive disorder is?

• red green color blindness

The cerebral aqueduct connects which two ventricles in the brain.

• 3rd ventricle with 4th

An occurance of gene mutation or a chromosomal abnormality in a portion of an individuals cells is called

• mosiacism

When a large segment of DNA breaks from one chromosome, and reattach to a different chromosome it's known as . 

• translocation

Presence of three copies of chromosomes in a cell is called ?

• trisomy

All are three major goals of inflammation except.

• prepare site for healing

• Vascular response

• Cellular response

• To reduce pain

Follow are classing signs of inflammation except.

• pain

• Redness

• Cold

• Swelling

Inflammation of gallbladder is called?

• cholecystitis

All are characteristic of acute inflammation except

• minimal scarring

• Chief phagocytuc cell is neutrophil

• Resolution more than six months

• Resolution within a few weeks

Levels of cytokines tend to increase sharply during _______ episodes.

• depression

Disease in which immune system triggers an inflammatory response when there are no foreign
invaders to fight off is called.

• autoimmune disease

All of the following are autoimmune diseases except ___________

• Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

• Hepatitis

• Rheumatoid arthritis

• Multiple sclerosis

All are example of acute malnutrition except

• wasting

• Kwashikor

• Maramus

• Stunting

Poor growth, loss of subcutaneous fat, muscle atrophy, apathy, and pronounced weight loss are characteristics of ________________.

• maramus

Severe protein malnutrition, edema, irritability, pitting edema and distended abdomen are characteristics of?

• kwashiorkor

What are the fat soluble vitamins?

• A,D,E,K

Low weight for height, as a result of acute malnutrition, recent food deficit and illness is called?

• wasting

All are water soluble vitamins except?

• K

• C

• B1

• Folic acid

• B2

What is the main cause of thyroid goiter?

• iodine deficiency

Iron deficiency may lead to blood conditions called __________

• anemia

All are example of congenital diseases except?

• kidney stones

• Dromedary hump

• Horseshoe kidney

• Junctional parenchymal defect

Any disease present by birth is called?

• acquired

All are physical and chemical agent except

• electric shock

• Extreme cold

• Bug bites

• Extreme heat

• All of the above

Heat exhaustion may cause all of the following except except.

• shallow breathing

• Syncope

• Less sweating

• Tachycardia

All are signs and symptoms of heat stroke except.

• nausea and vomiting

• Body temp more than 103 degrees F

• Headache

• Heavy sweating

Which of the following is not a consequence of extreme cold?

• hot skin

• Chillblain

• Hypothermia

• Frostbite

Which burns of the skin are called partial thickness?

• 1 st degree and 2nd degree

At your health screening you describe the following, headache, backache, and abdominal discomfort. These are categorized as. 

• symptoms

A patient wants to know what cause his illness, this info is called.

• etiology

You are expecting your 1st child and are told the child has a 1 in 800 chance of being born with a congenital anomaly, this statement is referring to the  ____________

• incidence

After a sonogram, the patient was diagnosed with liver cancer which had spread from the pancreas, this cancer will be referred to as.

• metastasis

You heard on the news that 10 % of the population has been affected by Hepatitis C virus. Which choice below explains this statement?

• prevalence

A disease, condition, or characteristic that is not congenital but develops after birth is ____________

• acquired

Painful inflammation of small blood vessels in your skin that occur in response to repeated exposure to cold is called __________

• chilblains

An injury that is caused by freezing of the exposed areas, skin and underlying tissues is called ___________.

• frostbite

____________ is a medical emergency that occurs when your body loses heat faster than it can produce heat .

• hypothermia

Rapid decompression causes _________ gas bubble formation in the blood and tissues causing respiratory problems.

• nitrogen

Death caused by electric shock is called.

• electrocution

Any substance that is harmful to your body is called…

• poison

Lack of oxygen coupled with accumulating carbon dioxide in the blood which can result in unconsciousness or death is called?

• asphyxiation

Redness of skin, pain, absence of blisters are the characteristics of ….. degree burn.

• 1 st degree

Very little or no pain, white charred skin appearance, loss of sensations, and an increased chance of infection are characteristics of a _____ degree burn.

• 3rd degree

All are complications of burns except?

• acute renal failure

• Pulmonary embolism

• Burn shock

• Increase of erythropoiesis

_____________ is a group of signs and symptoms that occur together and characterize a particular abnormality or condition.

• syndrome

What is the medical term for an unknown cause?

• idiopathic

Induced inadvertently by a physician or surgeon or by medical treatment or diagnostic procedures is called  _____________.

• iatrogenic

A disease that arises spontaneously and is not associated with or caused by a previous disease or injury.

• primary

The number of deaths in a given time or place?

• mortality

A medical condition that started before a person's health insurance went into effect.

• preexisting conditions

Which is the correct order to do a proper health assessment on a patient?

• get detailed patient history, do physical exam, order lab work

Select the gland that is not an endocrinologist gland.

• ovary

• Breast

• Pituitary

• Thyroid

What is the normal hematocrit value?

• 45%

A rise in plasma………. Results in jaundice?

• bilirubin

Formation of RBC is called?

• erythropoiesis

Which blood cells are responsible for carrying oxygen?

• RBC

Which blood cells are responsible for defense against infection?

• WBC

The ______ cells increase in patients with allergic diseases?

• eosinophil

Which blood cells are involved in blood clotting?

• platelets

Pulse rate that is 5g beats per minute would be described as…

• bradycardia

Normal blood pressure is.

• 120 systolic, 80 diastolic

Which structure in the liver filters blood?

• sinusoids

Which cells can ingest bacteria and other foreign matter from the blood?

• kupffer cells

All functions of the liver except..

• filter blood

• Matabolism

• Produces bile and emulsifies fats

• Forms RBC

Which enzyme goes high in obstructive biliary disease?

• alkaline phosphate

What is the primary function of the GB?

• Store and concentrate bile

What enzyme is responsible for gall bladder contraction?

• cholecystokinin

What hormones are produces by the pancreas.

• insulin and glucagon

Which enzyme below is not made by the pancreas

• alkaline phosphate

• Lipase

• Amylase

• Trypsin

The renal arteries carry approximately -----------% of the cardiac output to the kidneys.

• 25%

The functional unit of the kidney is called

• nephron

Renal corpuscle consist of?

• bowman’s capsule and glomeruli

Which artery supplies the blood to the kidneys?

• renal arteries

Hemolysis leads to high levels of………..

• indirect bilirubin

High levels of direct bilirubin is caused by

• obstruction

Right hepatic duct and left hepatic duct join together to form?

• COMMON HEPATIC DUCT

The cystic duct joins with the ……. To form………

• CHD TO FORM CBD

The distal CBD joins with the main pancreatic duct to open into ---------part of duodenum at ----.

• 2nd , ampulla of vaster

What is the most common cause for acute liver failure in US?

• Tylenol abuse

Evaluation of the liver allograft include all of the follow except.

• vasculature

• Echtecture

• Size

• Nerve supply of liver

• Fluid collection

The most common vascular complication of liver transplant is.

• HEPATIC ARTERY THROMBOSIS

The most common cause for liver transplant failure is..

• rejection

Which of the following is not a vascular complication of a liver transplant.

1. Thrombosis

2. Stenosis of the hepatic artery

3. Stenosis of the aorta.

4. Stenosis of the PV

5. Stenosis of the IVC.

All of the following are biliary complications of the liver transplant except.

• bile leak

• Stone formation

• Biliary stricture

• Biliary aneurysm

What is the most common cause for renal transplant

• chronic end stage renal disease failure

commonly the renal transplant will be places into the..

• right iliac fossa

What is the most common vascular complication of renal transplant

• renal artery stenosis

What is the most common site of urinary obstruction after renal transplant?

• site of ureteral and bladder

What is the most common complication immediately postoperative and writhing the first year or renal transplant ?

• acute rejection, and ATN

Why would you preform color Doppler on a post-transplant, what are you looking for?

• perfusion

Most pancreas transplants are done to treat?

• type 1 diabetes

A pancreas transplant is often done in conjunction with….

• kidney transplant

The normal sonography finding of the transplant pancreas parenchyma should appear?

• Heterogeneous and hypoechoic

All of the following are pathology of pancreatic transplant except?

• pseudoaneurysm

• Fistula

• True cyst formation

• Fluid collections

The donor pancreas’s is attached to?

• small intestine or colon

What is the time frame acute rejection would occur following a transplant.

• 1-3 weeks

What is the major long term cause of graft failure after the first 6 months?

• chronic rejection

If dual transplant was being done where would the pancreas be placed?

• RLQ

Sonographically, how would a pancreas look with acute rejection?

• enlarged, heterogeneous

Fluid collections are a common complication after a pancreatic transplant , with the most common being a ?

• lymphocele

How would a sonography demonstrate patient focused care?

• sonographer shows patient focused care by greeting patient, introducing myself, informing patient of procedure, making them feel heard and cared for.

Infection control encompasses a wide variety of factors ranging from hand washing to full gowning. What one precaution can you provide that protects the patient, sonographer, and coworkers?

• handwashing

Professionalism in the workplace assures the patient of your competency. How would you project a professional demeanor when interacting with the patient?

• Speaking clearly and politely while making eye contact, clean and put together scrubs

What is the definition of a neoplasm?

• an abnormal growth of cells due to cellls grouping together

What is the definition of a benign tumor?

• tumor that does not metastasize, non cancerous growth of cells

Is carcinoma in situ of the breast benign or malignant, how is it treated?

• it is benign and it isn’t treated unless it become cancerous or starts producing mass effect

What is the most common benign turmeric of the liver?

• cavernous hemangioma, appears wells defined and hyperechoic

What does ultrasound evaluation of liver parenchyma include?

• size, echo texture, echogenicity, vascular structure, masses or lesions

How does diffuse hepatocellular disease affect hepatocytes in the liver?

• Cause widespread damage to hepatocytes, damaging liver function, can lead to fibrosis.

What is the affect of fatty infiltration on the liver?

• Fat accumulation in the hepatocytes causes liver to become enlarged and hyperechoic