LU6.2 Migraines, Headaches, CVAs
1. What is the medical term for a headache?
a) Neuralgia
b) Cephalgia
c) Migraine
d) Dysphagia
2. Which of the following is NOT a type of primary headache?
a) Tension-type headache
b) Cluster headache
c) Migraine
d) Headache due to meningitis
3. Which phase of a migraine attack is associated with visual disturbances and sensory symptoms?
a) Prodrome
b) Aura
c) Headache
d) Recovery
4. Which neurotransmitter is primarily involved in migraines?
a) Dopamine
b) Serotonin
c) Acetylcholine
d) Epinephrine
5. Which type of headache is characterized by intense, excruciating pain around one eye and nasal congestion?
a) Tension headache
b) Cluster headache
c) Sinus headache
d) Migraine without aura
6. What is the most commonly used imaging modality to rule out secondary causes of headaches?
a) X-ray
b) Computed Tomography (CT) scan
c) Electroencephalogram (EEG)
d) Spirometry
7. What is the primary goal of abortive therapy in migraine management?
a) To prevent migraines from occurring
b) To reduce the severity of the headache during an attack
c) To treat depression
d) To lower blood pressure
8. Which of the following medications is used as an abortive treatment for migraines?
a) Triptans
b) Beta-blockers
c) Antidepressants
d) Calcium channel blockers
9. What is a major contraindication for triptan medications in migraine treatment?
a) Asthma
b) Cardiovascular disease
c) Diabetes mellitus
d) Anxiety disorder
10. Which of the following should NOT be taken concurrently with triptans due to the risk of vasospasm?
a) Beta-blockers
b) Ergotamine
c) NSAIDs
d) Antidepressants
11. Which lifestyle modification can help prevent migraines?
a) Irregular sleep patterns
b) Reducing stress and maintaining a regular sleep schedule
c) Avoiding hydration
d) Increasing caffeine intake
12. Which medication is commonly used for the prevention of migraines?
a) Sumatriptan
b) Propranolol
c) Ibuprofen
d) Acetaminophen
13. What is the main cause of cerebrovascular accidents (CVAs)?
a) Decreased blood flow to a localized area of brain tissue
b) Increased intracranial pressure
c) Bacterial infections
d) Vitamin deficiencies
14. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for stroke?
a) Age
b) Hypertension
c) Gender
d) Family history
15. Which type of stroke is caused by a blood clot blocking an artery in the brain?
a) Hemorrhagic stroke
b) Ischemic stroke
c) Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
d) Lacunar stroke
16. Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of stroke?
a) Sudden weakness in the arms or legs
b) Slurred speech
c) Gradual improvement in vision
d) Facial drooping
17. What is the first imaging study typically performed in a suspected stroke patient?
a) MRI
b) CT scan
c) Angiography
d) PET scan
18. What does the acronym FAST stand for in stroke assessment?
a) Face, Arms, Speech, Time
b) Feet, Arms, Sensation, Temperature
c) Force, Alertness, Sensation, Therapy
d) Face, Alertness, Speech, Temperature
19. Which of the following statements about Transient Ischemic Attacks (TIAs) is true?
a) TIAs cause permanent brain damage
b) TIAs usually last for several days
c) TIAs are warning signs of potential future strokes
d) TIAs do not require medical attention
20. Which medication is commonly used for the acute management of ischemic stroke?
a) Aspirin
b) Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)
c) Warfarin
d) Atorvastatin
21. Which patient is NOT eligible for thrombolytic therapy (tPA) in stroke management?
a) A patient with an ischemic stroke within 3 hours
b) A patient with a hemorrhagic stroke
c) A patient under 80 years old
d) A patient with controlled hypertension
22. Why is blood pressure closely monitored after a stroke?
a) High blood pressure can lead to further damage
b) Low blood pressure can improve blood flow
c) Blood pressure does not affect stroke outcomes
d) Patients with stroke do not develop blood pressure changes
23. What is the primary goal of rehabilitation after a stroke?
a) To improve cardiovascular health
b) To restore function and independence
c) To prevent future infections
d) To eliminate the need for medication
24. What is the best position for a stroke patient with dysphagia during feeding?
a) Supine
b) Head elevated at least 30-45 degrees
c) Prone
d) Trendelenburg position
25. What is a major complication of impaired swallowing in stroke patients?
a) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
b) Aspiration pneumonia
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Muscle spasms
26. How often should stroke patients be turned in bed to prevent pressure ulcers?
a) Every 2 hours
b) Every 6 hours
c) Every 12 hours
d) Once per shift
27. Which of the following nursing interventions can help prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a stroke patient?
a) Encouraging bed rest
b) Applying compression stockings and early ambulation
c) Keeping the patient immobile
d) Avoiding leg elevation
28. Which intervention is best for promoting effective communication in a stroke patient with aphasia?
a) Speaking loudly and rapidly
b) Using short, simple sentences and allowing extra time for responses
c) Avoiding all forms of verbal communication
d) Encouraging the patient to write instead of speak
29. What is the primary nursing goal in the acute phase of stroke management?
a) Improve mobility and balance
b) Maintain airway patency and circulation
c) Encourage independent self-care
d) Monitor weight gain
30. Which of the following is NOT a common nursing diagnosis for stroke patients?
a) Ineffective Tissue Perfusion
b) Impaired Swallowing
c) Impaired Verbal Communication
d) Hyperthyroidism
Answer Key
1 b | 2. d | 3. b | 4. b | 5. b | 6. b | 7. b | 8. a | 9. b | 10. b |
11 b | 12. b | 13. a | 14. b | 15. b | 16. c | 17. b | 18. a | 19. c | 20. b |
21 b | 22. a | 23. b | 24. b | 25. b | 26. a | 27. b | 28. b | 29. b | 30. d |