Exam

Lucia – Perineal Tear & Pain

Q1: Describe the sensory pathway of Lucia’s pain. Follow the pathway from where the midwife touched the damaged perineum to Lucia recognizing that it hurts. (2 marks)

A: Pain receptors in perineum send signals to spinal cord, then thalamus, then somatosensory cortex.

Q2: Explain how this prevents the pain message from travelling to the brain. (1.5 marks)

A: Lignocaine blocks sodium channels in nerves so pain signals don’t reach the brain.

Q3: Describe the 3 steps of haemostasis. (3 marks)

A: Vasoconstriction, platelet plug formation, coagulation.

Q4: List the subsequent 3 steps of tissue repair. (1.5 marks)

A: Inflammation, proliferation, remodelling.

Q5: When Lucia chooses to turn her pelvic floor muscles “on” or contracts her pelvic floor, describe the process of synaptic transmission at the neuromuscular junction. (1 mark)

A: Neurotransmitters released from neuron bind muscle, triggering action potential.

Q6: Describe the subsequent changes within the skeletal muscle cell/fibres that lead to contraction. (1 mark)

A: Calcium released, troponin moves tropomyosin, myosin binds actin, ATP powers contraction.

Hana – PPH / Oxygen / Perfusion

Q1: Explain the mechanism of oxygen transport via blood, in a healthy person. (1 mark)

A: Most O₂ binds haemoglobin, some dissolved in plasma.

Q2: What does a pulse oximeter measure? (1 mark)

A: SpO₂ – % of haemoglobin carrying oxygen.

Q3: If Hana had less blood in her body after a postpartum hemorrhage (PPH), how would this affect the oxygenation/perfusion of Hana’s tissues and cells? (1 mark)

A: Less blood reduces oxygen delivery and perfusion.

Q4: Describe the quick acting, short term sympathetic nervous system response that will raise Hana’s blood pressure. Use a homeostasis feedback loop to cover all the components of the response (stimulus > integrator > effectors). (2 marks)

A: Low BP detected by baroreceptors, heart rate and vessels increase to raise BP.

Q5: Describe the long-term renin-angiotensin-aldosterone-system RAAS response that will raise Hana’s blood pressure. Use a homeostasis feedback loop to cover all the components of the response (stimulus > integrator > effectors). (2 marks)

A: Low BP triggers renin → angiotensin II → aldosterone → vasoconstriction & sodium/water retention → BP rises.

Q6: Hana is still functioning for the moment with this loss of blood. Explain how Hana maintains ATP production with a lack of oxygen delivery (hypoperfusion) to Hana’s tissues following postpartum hemorrhage PPH. (1 mark)

A: Cells switch to anaerobic respiration, producing less ATP and lactic acid.

Q7: One month later, Hana has recovered from her birth and blood loss. Today she has been so busy with her newborn, she hasn’t urinated since getting up 6 hours earlier and may be becoming dehydrated. How has her body maintained her water balance and blood volume? (2 marks)

A: Osmoreceptors detect dehydration, ADH released → kidneys reabsorb water → urine ↓, blood volume maintained.

Kaz – Blood / Immunity

Q1: List the four main components of blood and the functions of each. (2 marks)

A: Plasma – transport, RBC – carry O₂, WBC – fight infection, platelets – clotting.

Q2: During birth, there’s a risk that some of the baby’s red blood cells could get into the mother’s blood stream. What would happen in Kaz’s immune system if the baby’s blood was O+ and entered Kaz’s O- blood stream at birth? (2 marks)

A: Mother makes anti-Rh antibodies, usually mild reaction on first exposure.

Q3: If Kaz produces anti-D antibodies and they cross the placenta in a future pregnancy, what could happen if the next baby is also O+? (1 mark)

A: Antibodies attack fetal RBCs → haemolytic disease.

Q4: What is the difference between innate and adaptive immunity, and which one is more involved in sensitization from exposure to different blood types? (2 marks)

A: Innate – fast, non-specific; Adaptive – specific, antibody memory; adaptive causes sensitization.

Q5: Where in the body are old or damaged RBCs mainly broken down? (0.5 mark)

A: Spleen.

Q6: What happens to the haemoglobin (and its components) when RBCs are destroyed? (1.5 marks)

A: Hb → globin (protein) + heme → iron recycled, bilirubin excreted.

Q7: Name one waste product formed during RBC breakdown and describe where it is excreted. (1 mark)

A: Bilirubin → excreted in bile.

Maia & Male Reproduction

Q1: Describe the ovarian cycle and its hormonal control. Include the role of the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, and ovaries in coordinating ovulation. (3 marks)

A: Hypothalamus releases GnRH → pituitary releases FSH & LH → follicles develop → ovulation → luteal phase.

Q2: Describe the uterine cycle and the related hormone control. (2 marks)

A: Menstruation sheds endometrium, proliferative phase regrows it (estrogen), secretory phase prepares for implantation (progesterone & estrogen).

Q3: Identify and describe one example of negative feedback in the ovarian cycle. (1 mark)

A: Estradiol and progesterone control GnRH, FSH, and LH to maintain balance.

Q4: Describe the role of Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH), Luteinizing Hormone (LH) and testosterone in male sexual development and function. (1.5 marks)

A: FSH supports spermatogenesis, LH stimulates testosterone, testosterone promotes sperm and regulates hormones.

Q5: Describe how both mitosis and meiosis are involved in the production of sperm in the male reproductive system. Where do these processes occur? (1.5 marks)

A: Mitosis – spermatogonia; Meiosis – spermatids; occurs in seminiferous tubules.

Q6: Name one male accessory gland that contributes to the production of semen, and describe the functions of its secretions that support sperm survival after ejaculation? (1 mark)

A: Seminal vesicles produce alkaline fluid with fructose and prostaglandins to nourish sperm.

Tom – Exercise / ATP / Fluids

Q1: List the three (3) main processes of cellular respiration that produce ATP. Include the location for each process and list the two (2) waste products produced overall. (3 marks)

A: Glycolysis – cytoplasm; Krebs – mitochondria; ETC – inner mitochondrial membrane; wastes: CO₂ & H₂O.

Q2: Describe the mechanism of expiration at rest. (1 mark)

A: Diaphragm and intercostals relax, lungs recoil, air leaves passively.

Q3: As Tom starts to exercise, his body responds to the increased demand for gas exchange, with increased ventilation. How does the lung capacity change at this time? (0.5 mark)

A: Breaths become deeper and faster.

Q4: Explain how sperm are produced and describe how the reproductive hormones regulate spermatogenesis. (2 marks)

A: Spermatogonia → sperm in seminiferous tubules; GnRH triggers FSH for sperm support, LH for testosterone.

Q5: Why may Tom be concerned that his cycling is disrupting healthy sperm production (spermatogenesis)? (1 mark)

A: Heat, pressure, oxidative stress reduce sperm quality.

Q6: Tom is dehydrated at the end of his ride. He describes being very sweaty. How else may Tom have lost water from his system? (0.5 mark)

A: Water lost in exhaled air.

Q7: Tom describes being thirsty and has low urine output. Explain how Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) helps the kidneys conserve water in this situation. (2 marks)

A: High osmolarity triggers ADH → kidneys reabsorb water → urine decreases, blood volume maintained.