Psych Final Exam Review

The recovery model in mental health was initiated by
1. consumers and survivor.
What does OT partnership in the public health model emphasis
1. occupational engagement.
betty presents in an agitated state, frustrated because no one is listening, how to practitioners benefit from listening to individual lived experiences?
1. offering respect and hope for personal recovery journeys.
What is OT's key contribution that supports mental health? - occupational participation.
Occupational participation is crucial as it refers to engagement in meaningful activities that provide purpose, structure, and social connection, all vital for mental well-being.
Shirley has a history of trauma and started participating in an occupation based community group. Which public health tier addresses mental well-being of persons at risk for mental illness? - tier 2, targeted.
Tier 2 interventions are designed for specific groups or individuals identified as being at risk for developing mental health conditions, providing early support and prevention.
Sheri is a person with a history of major depression. She reports that her mood is now stable, and she wants to focus on increasing her well-being. What does the concept of mental well-being address for persons living with mental illness? - capacity to reach full potential.
Mental well-being goes beyond symptom reduction; it's about fostering an individual's strengths, resilience, and ability to thrive and pursue their life goals, even while managing a mental illness.
What is the perspective guiding services in the public health model? - port of mental well-being is available for persons with or without mental illness.
The public health model adopts a universal approach, aiming to promote mental well-being for everyone, recognizing that mental health is a continuum and not just the absence of illness.
Henry has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder and has been struggling in school. He became frustrated in class, and the school resource officer was called in to intervene. Instead of leaning into behavioral consequences, what wraparound principle would be would best support a better alternative? - strengths based interventions.
Strength-based interventions focus on identifying and leveraging an individual's inherent abilities, interests, and resources to build positive coping strategies and achieve desired outcomes, rather than solely focusing on deficits.
study wraparound part of chapter.
What is not a key principle underpinning the person environment occupation model. - occupational participation is dependent on the person's abilities and motivation.
This statement describes an aspect influenced by the model's components rather than a core principle in itself, which typically emphasizes the dynamic interaction and interdependence of P, E, and O.
What is the PEO model? Select the best answer. - a systematic way to think about and understand complex occupational participation issues a person experiences.
The PEO model provides a holistic framework for OTs to analyze how the person, their environment, and their occupations interact to facilitate or hinder performance.
How many people are living with a mental health condition? - 1 in four.
This statistic highlights the widespread prevalence of mental health conditions, underscoring the critical need for accessible mental health services and support.
When did the recovery movement for mental illness begin, and what is its main focus? - the nineteen eighties, individual empowerment, hope, spirituality, and self determination.
The 1980s marked a significant shift towards valuing the individual's perspective and their potential for a meaningful life, emphasizing personal agency in their recovery journey.
All of the current practice challenges for OT in mental health exist except for - a concrete definition of what mental health actually means.
While the definition of mental health can be multifaceted or debated, other challenges like stigma, funding, and recognition of OT's role are more prominent current practice barriers.
How to otps support mental health?
OTPs support mental health by addressing occupational participation, promoting daily routines, developing coping strategies, adapting environments, and fostering meaningful roles.
TPs use a person centered approach to treatment in which they only look at a person's weaknesses in order to minimize them by whatever means necessary. True or false? - False.
Person-centered care explicitly moves beyond solely focusing on weaknesses, prioritizing an individual's strengths, goals, and values to foster autonomy and recovery.
review the OT values in mental health and recognize their appropriate descriptors (recovery oriented care, cultural responsiveness, evidence informed practice, justice, ethics, strength based methodologies).
moral principles that guide our practice such as fidelity and autonomy relates to ethics.
Which statement best describes functional recovery? - I'm able to perform better now in school, not just on grades, but on how I get along with my classmates.
Functional recovery emphasizes real-world performance and social participation, highlighting improvements in daily life activities and interpersonal relationships, not just clinical symptoms.
This element is the core of all PEO model interactions. - Motivation.
While not explicitly stated in all PEO descriptions as 'the core', motivation is often considered a critical underlying factor that drives the interaction between the person, environment, and occupation.
What is defined as “Having access to initiating and sustaining valued occupations within meaningful relationships and context.” - Participation.
Participation signifies active involvement in life situations, which is a central outcome for occupational therapy interventions, focusing on the client's engagement in valued roles and activities.
One criticism of PEO model is that it is culturally biased in favor of Western cultures. - True.
This criticism suggests the model's emphasis on individualism and autonomy might not universally apply or resonate within collectivist or non-Western cultural contexts where interdependence is more valued.
What does ACES stand for? - adverse childhood experiences.
ACES are traumatic events that occur before adulthood, such as abuse, neglect, or household dysfunction, which can have profound and lasting impacts on health and well-being.
What is the main tenet of the pair of ACEs model. - community level experiences combined with individual level.
The 'pair of ACEs' framework expands on individual ACEs by also considering adverse community environments (like poverty or discrimination), recognizing that broader social determinants impact health outcomes.
A secure or insecure attachment style is developed within what age of life? - first year.
Early experiences with caregivers during infancy are critical in shaping a child's attachment style, which influences their emotional regulation and relationship patterns throughout life.
During the assessment of functional cognition, Carl underestimates his need for help. This suggests difficulties with what? - metacognition.
Metacognition, or 'thinking about thinking,' involves self-awareness and the ability to monitor one's own cognitive processes; difficulty here leads to poor insight into one's own capabilities and limitations.
You are working with Zara to create memory strategies she can use in her new job to remember names and other important information - assigning meaning to the names or information and applying it to her own life.
Encoding strategies like giving meaning or relating new information to existing knowledge enhances memory retention and recall, making the information more salient and accessible.
Which of the following approaches is most consistent with OT's emphasis on functional cognition when using a cognitive remediation approach for selective attention? - an activity in which a person looks through a movie schedule to find the times for the movie they want to see.
This activity directly targets selective attention in a practical, real-world context, aligning with OT's focus on improving cognitive function within meaningful daily tasks.
Tyshawn has a diagnosis of schizophrenia as OTP. What would you expect in terms of cognitive impairment? - the impairments in memory processing speed and executive function are common.
Cognitive deficits are a core feature of schizophrenia and significantly impact daily functioning, affecting areas like attention, problem-solving, and the ability to learn new tasks.
Which of the following is most descriptive of of therapeutic principles that are shared between cognitive behavioral therapy and occupational therapy? - intervention is person centered.
Both CBT and OT prioritize the individual's unique needs, goals, and values as central to the intervention process, fostering active client collaboration and self-management.
Which of the following cognitive belief oriented interventions aligns most with acceptance and commitment therapy approaches? - developing skills to increase cognitive flexibility.
Acceptance and Commitment Therapy (ACT) emphasizes cognitive flexibility, which is the ability to adapt one's thinking and perspective, allowing for greater psychological agility in response to challenging thoughts and situations.
In what section of the OTPF are beliefs explicitly referenced? - Client factors.
The Occupational Therapy Practice Framework (OTPF) includes beliefs under client factors, recognizing their significant influence on an individual's identity, motivation, and occupational choices.
which of the following approaches can facilitate motivation to engage an occupation - establishing a meaningful relationship with people.
Strong, positive relationships provide social support, a sense of belonging, and opportunities for co-participation, all of which are powerful motivators for engaging in occupations.
Which are contributions of the self efficacy theory to OT practice. - It defines sources of self efficacy that can be considered by OTPs when promoting motivation.
Bandura's self-efficacy theory offers valuable insights for OTs by explaining how an individual's belief in their ability to succeed at a task influences their willingness to engage and persist in occupations.
In simple words, what is volition in in the model of human occupation theory? - peoples motivation to engage in occupations.
Volition is an individual's desire, interests, values, and sense of personal causation that drives their choices and engagement in occupations, forming a key component of the Model of Human Occupation (MOHO).
Maria is interested in spending time with her friends, but she finds it difficult, to make the effort to initiate activity due to her tendency to socially withdraw. This negative symptom is a common characteristic of what mental health diagnosis? - schizophrenia.
Social withdrawal, along with other negative symptoms like avolition (lack of motivation) and anhedonia (inability to experience pleasure), significantly impacts occupational participation in schizophrenia.
This is a component of executive functioning, and an example of this is your own mental framework of what a movie theater is. - schema.
A schema is a cognitive framework or concept that helps organize and interpret information; it's a mental blueprint that guides expectations and behaviors in familiar situations.
Which of the following is an example of an informal assessment for gauging someone's level of cognitive functioning. - observation.
Informal observation during daily tasks provides valuable, ecological information about a person's cognitive abilities in real-world contexts, complementing formal assessments.
This type of intervention approach for cognitive disabilities requires intensive training greater than forty hours in order for clients to generalize their new learning. - remediation.
Cognitive remediation aims to improve underlying cognitive processes through repeated practice and structured exercises, with generalization to real-life tasks often requiring significant time and effort.
These are immediate surface level thoughts that arise from core beliefs. - automatic thoughts.
Automatic thoughts are spontaneous, often unnoticed cognitions that pop into our minds in response to situations, bridging the gap between events and our emotional and behavioral reactions.
The dynamic interactions that comprise human functioning are made up of what according to the dynamic interaction model. - beliefs, emotions, behaviors and physiological state.
The Dynamic Interactional Model of Cognitive Rehabilitation emphasizes the dynamic interplay between these four components, highlighting how changes in one can influence the others and impact overall functioning.
What is the name of the general technique that cognitive behavioral therapy uses to help clients focus on changing unhelpful beliefs? cognitive restructuring.
Cognitive restructuring is a core CBT technique where individuals learn to identify, challenge, and modify irrational or unhelpful automatic thoughts and core beliefs, leading to more balanced thinking.
Focusing on psychological flexibility and understanding that a thought is simply a thought and nothing else is the hallmark of this treatment approach - acceptance and commitment therapy.
ACT promotes psychological flexibility by teaching individuals to accept unwanted thoughts and feelings without judgment, and to commit to actions aligned with their values, rather than trying to eliminate distress.
This type of open ended questioning leads to guided self discovery of the client and therapist uncovering relevant information to the topic of discussion in addition to alternative options for addressing an issue - Socratic questioning.
Socratic questioning is a collaborative dialogue technique used in CBT to help clients critically examine their thoughts, beliefs, and assumptions, fostering deeper insight and problem-solving skills.
Using the ABC model for behavior and learning, when you state that a friend did not call you when he said he would, what is that deemed as according to this model? - an activating event.
In the ABC model (Activating event, Beliefs, Consequences), the activating event is the objective situation or trigger that precedes an individual's thoughts and emotional/behavioral reactions.
What is cognitive diffusion? - part of ACT, acceptance commitment therapy process, and involves stepping back from thoughts and realizing that is all that they are.
Cognitive defusion is a technique within ACT that helps individuals detach from their thoughts, viewing them as mental events rather than absolute truths, thereby reducing their impact on behavior.
Your client's been afraid to go to the grocery store by himself for fear of not being able to contain his anxiety around others. You schedule an appointment for him to visit your friend's boutique at 4PM on Friday. You challenge him to remain in the store and window shop for ten minutes. What intervention strategy did you just use? - Behavioral activation.
Behavioral activation involves increasing engagement in activities that are pleasurable or mastery-oriented, often through systematic exposure to feared situations, to improve mood and reduce avoidance behaviors.
Two educational components and learning methods that are fundamental for OTPs to include the cognitive behavioral approaches are - psychoeducation and homework.
Psychoeducation helps clients understand their condition and treatment, while homework assignments provide opportunities to practice new skills and strategies in real-life settings, reinforcing learning beyond therapy sessions.
Your coworker complains to your boss that you never clean up after yourself, and you know that this is another person on your team leaving the mess behind. You don't say anything about the other person. You take the heed and apologize to them during this meeting. What stress response did you demonstrate? - fawn.
The 'fawn' response is one of the four stress responses (fight, flight, freeze, fawn) where an individual attempts to appease or please others to avoid conflict or perceived harm, often at their own expense.
This core model of stress is used to explain why some people that are genetically prone to stressors that evoke certain behaviors, e. G, alcoholism, may not develop the problem behavior. - diathesis stress model.
The diathesis-stress model proposes that psychological disorders result from an interaction between a predisposition (diathesis) and stressful life events, explaining why not everyone with a genetic vulnerability develops a disorder.
matching section on words and phrases that pertain to motivation and their descriptors: remotivation process, autonomy.
Remotivation process involves restoring an individual's interest in their environment and life, while autonomy refers to the individual's sense of control and choice over their actions and decisions, both critical for motivation.
When you hire a personal trainer to help you meet your weight loss goals because you need someone else to push you, what kind of agent is the trainer? - proxy.
A proxy agent is an individual who acts on behalf of another to influence outcomes, providing external support and motivation when personal agency might be insufficient.
According to Bandura's social learning theory, people learn through observing others in social context. What are the four prerequisites for social learning to occur? - Attention, retention, reproduction, and motivation.
Bandura's theory emphasizes that these four components are necessary for observational learning: paying attention to the model, remembering their actions, being able to perform the actions, and having the motivation to do so.
What is the key purpose of a peer in peer mediated intervention? - To act as a key and active agent of change within the intervention.
Peers in such interventions leverage their lived experience to provide empathy, credible support, role modeling, and a sense of shared understanding that can be highly effective in fostering recovery and skill development.
OTP working in an inpatient mental health setting wants to introduce a daily creative arts group. One of the goals of the group is to improve mood and experience of positive emotions by scheduling daily fun and relaxing creative activities. The OTP is using which principle to to guide their planned group session - behavioral activation.
Behavioral activation encourages engaging in pleasant or goal-directed activities to combat inertia and improve mood, aligning with the idea that doing can improve feelings, rather than waiting for feelings to improve before doing.
Time use research suggests that when compared to the general population, individuals with serious mental illness tend to spend less time in what types of activities - productivity and active leisure activities.
This imbalance in time use often reflects the impact of symptoms, lack of motivation, or social isolation, highlighting areas where OT can intervene to promote healthier, more engaging routines.
As a OT working in a community mental health center, you want to start a program to engage people with paid work. Why can work be particularly helpful for developing more satisfying patterns and timing? - Beyond engaging in productive activities, work also helps to structure time, build social networks, and generally gives the individual more money to spend on enjoyable activities.
Work offers multifaceted benefits, including a sense of purpose, improved financial stability, opportunities for skill development, and social integration, all contributing to overall well-being and recovery.
Charlotte reports her pain at seven out of 10 on a zero pain numeric rating scale. Which of the following assessments could be used to understand the impact of pain on her confidence to participate in non patients despite her pain. - Pain self efficacy questionnaire.
The Pain Self-Efficacy Questionnaire specifically measures an individual's belief in their ability to perform daily activities despite experiencing pain, which is crucial for guiding functional interventions.
What which comorbid psychiatric disorders are commonly associated with chronic pain? - mood and anxiety.
The bidirectional relationship between chronic pain and mood/anxiety disorders is well-established, with each condition often exacerbating the other and requiring integrated treatment approaches.
When evaluating a person with intellectual disabilities and limited verbal communication skills, which of the following approaches would be best to understand their pain experiences? - observational measures such as behavior pain indicators.
For individuals with communication barriers, observing behavioral cues like facial expressions, body movements, vocalizations, or changes in routine can provide critical information about their pain levels.
A mood is a longer lasting emotional state and requires a trigger to activate activate it. - false.
Moods are indeed longer-lasting emotional states, but unlike emotions, they often do not require a specific, immediate trigger; they can be diffuse and less intense than acute emotions.
In the modal model of emotions, what four phases do emotions unfold? - situation, attention, appraisal, and response.
This model describes the sequential process by which emotions are generated: encountering a situation, focusing attention on it, interpreting its meaning, and then reacting emotionally.
There are strategies that people use to regulate emotions. What is response modulation? - suppress the emotion.
Response modulation is an emotion regulation strategy that involves directly influencing the emotional response itself, often through suppression, once the emotion has already been triggered.
What is the term described as “difficulty recognizing emotions”? - alexithymia.
Alexithymia is a personality construct characterized by difficulty identifying and describing one's own emotions, often accompanied by difficulties distinguishing between physical sensations and emotional states.
What is the name of the structure in your brain that has been long named a major structure for our emotions? - Amygdala.
The amygdala is a key brain region involved in processing emotions, particularly fear and threat detection, and plays a central role in emotional learning and memory.
During a typical lifespan, emotional regulation can become dysregulated due to the frequency of negative emotions during what phase in a person's life? - adolescence.
Adolescence is a period of significant emotional and neurobiological development, where increased emotional intensity and still-developing self-regulation skills can lead to challenges in managing negative emotions.
According to principles of dialectical behavioral theory. What is true about distress tolerance? - skills are taught using engagement in activities to help tolerate negative emotions.
DBT's distress tolerance skills focus on enduring and surviving crisis situations without making things worse, often by engaging in distracting, self-soothing, or improving activities to manage intense emotional pain.
If you're in a discussion with a group of friends about a football team and an upcoming game and someone attempts to enter the discussion by simply repeating the name of one player on that team, what does the person have a problem with - central coherence.
Central coherence refers to the ability to integrate details into a global whole or context; a problem with this might manifest as focusing on isolated details without grasping the overall meaning or social context.
People with autism have a difficult time remembering specific things about which makes communicating difficult. - false.
Individuals with autism often have strong rote memory for specific facts or details; their communication difficulties typically stem from challenges with social reciprocity, understanding non-verbal cues, and inferring others' perspectives.
A person with schizophrenia has difficulty with which aspect of communication? - reading social cues.
Deficits in social cognition, including understanding nonverbal cues, facial expressions, and prosody, are common in schizophrenia and significantly impair effective communication and social interaction.
You created a short book that focused on your client walking to lunch at school to help him learn appropriate social behaviors when walking to lunch with his peers. What intervention methods did you employ? - social stories.
Social stories are a widely used intervention for individuals with autism spectrum disorder to teach appropriate social behaviors and expectations in specific situations, using a narrative format.
Your client states that, quote, it's hard to remember taking her medicine. Assume this is your first encounter with her. What would be important for you as a cota to understand so you could potentially help her choose the best answer? - what her current routine is.
Understanding a client's existing routine is crucial for identifying natural opportunities to integrate new habits (like medication taking) and for developing personalized, context-specific strategies for adherence.
Which type of activity would likely be all consuming for someone with a psychiatric disability? - watching TV.
For some individuals with psychiatric disabilities, passive activities like watching TV can be all-consuming and contribute to sedentary lifestyles and social isolation, potentially exacerbating symptoms.
Your client states they don't do much of anything. You prescribe homework in order to examine what the person does, who they deal with and where. What did you have them do? - create a time diary.
A time diary is an effective tool for tracking how an individual actually spends their time, providing objective data to identify patterns, imbalances, and opportunities for meaningful occupational engagement.
This intervention strategy was mainly designed for working women as it strives to find a balance between restful and reviving occupations. - redesigning daily occupations (redo).
The 'Redo' intervention aims to help individuals, particularly working women, integrate more restorative and energizing activities into their daily routines to prevent burnout and promote well-being.
What percentage of adults living in The USA are affected by pain or chronic pain? - 20%.
This high prevalence signifies chronic pain as a major public health issue with significant impact on quality of life, functional ability, and healthcare costs.
matching the appropriate statements about pain catastrophizing phenomenon. It should be easy, but it's magnification, hopelessness, and reunification, those examples of statements that match each one.
Pain catastrophizing involves an exaggerated negative mental set towards pain, characterized by magnification (overstating threat), helplessness (inability to cope), and rumination (excessive focus on pain sensations).
Pain is subjective - true.
Pain is a unique, personal experience influenced by biological, psychological, and social factors, meaning its intensity and impact vary greatly from person to person.
This specific intervention for pain uses educational strategies to inform clients of pain processes. It's been shown to work best when combined with movement therapy as it decreases pain catastrophizing and fear of movement. - pain neuroscience education (PNE).
PNE helps clients reconceptualize pain by understanding the neurobiology of pain, reducing the threat associated with it, and thereby decreasing fear-avoidance behaviors and improving active engagement in recovery.
An OTP is working in a community mental health setting with a person whose goal is to focus on skills for independent living. Over the last week, they present with an abnormally elevated mood and low energy level resulting in varied social interactions of grandiose statements and engagement in high risk activities, which type of mood episode might they be experiencing? - manic.
A manic episode is characterized by a distinct period of abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood, accompanied by increased energy and goal-directed activity, often with risky behaviors and grandiosity.
Neuroimaging studies implicate the prefrontal cortex as the area of the brain most associated with obsessive disorders. Because of this, OTPs working with these with people with OCD could expect to primarily assess and intervene with which one of the following brain functions. - executive function.
Executive functions, which include planning, inhibition, and cognitive flexibility, are heavily reliant on the prefrontal cortex and are often impaired in obsessive disorders, impacting an individual's ability to control intrusive thoughts and compulsive behaviors.
The big five model includes the following basic tendencies that compose personality, extroversion, openness to experience, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and - neuroticism.
Neuroticism refers to a tendency to experience negative emotions such as anxiety, anger, and depression, and is a core dimension in the widely accepted Big Five personality trait theory.
An OTP working with persons with personality disorders should be attentive in her assessment of the person's situation and consider which of the following causes - childhood traumas that may alter attachment in relationships.
Early life experiences, particularly relational trauma and insecure attachment patterns, are significant etiological factors in the development of personality disorders, influencing an individual's interpersonal functioning and self-identity.
Which environmental factor is associated with the development of schizophrenia? - marijuana use.
While not a sole cause, significant cannabis use, especially during adolescence with high-potency strains, is an environmental risk factor that can increase the likelihood of developing schizophrenia in vulnerable individuals.
In order to be considered as having a depressive episode, you must have a depressed mood or lack of interest for how long? - at least two weeks.
The diagnostic criteria for a major depressive episode require the presence of a depressed mood or anhedonia, along with other symptoms, for a continuous period of at least two weeks.
Which type of symptoms have the greatest impact on occupational performance for people with schizophrenia? - negative symptoms.
Negative symptoms, such as anhedonia, avolition, and social withdrawal, are often the most debilitating aspects of schizophrenia, as they directly impair an individual's motivation and ability to engage in daily activities and social roles.
Which of these groups has an increased risk for suicidal ideation? Major depressive disorder, LGBTQ plus people, bipolar, or all of these groups? - all of these groups.
Suicidal ideation is a serious concern across various mental health conditions and vulnerable populations, necessitating careful assessment and intervention resources for all at-risk groups.
These are mental health conditions characterized by unwanted intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviors that significantly impair functioning - obsessive disorders.
Obsessive disorders, such as OCD, are defined by persistent, distressing thoughts (obsessions) and/or repetitive actions (compulsions) performed to neutralize the obsessions, which consume significant time and functional capacity.
In order to get an OCD diagnosis, signs and symptoms must exceed one hour daily and significantly impair functioning. - True.
The diagnostic criteria for OCD emphasize that obsessions or compulsions must be time-consuming (e.g., more than $1$ hour per day) or cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning.
cultural factors influence signs and symptoms, presentation, and interpretation, but obsessive disorders occur with similar age and gender patterns globally - true.
While the specific content of obsessions and compulsions can vary culturally, the underlying prevalence and demographic patterns of obsessive disorders tend to be consistent across different global populations.
This type of personality disorder is classified as a cluster A type and is marked by social deficits with cognitive and or perceptual distortion. - schizotypal.
Schizotypal Personality Disorder is part of Cluster A ('odd or eccentric') and involves eccentric behaviors, unusual thought patterns (e.g., magical thinking), and severe discomfort with close relationships, without meeting criteria for a psychotic disorder.
This cluster b type personality disorder can follow a childhood diagnosis of ODD and is marked by lack of empathy for others and a disregard for the rights of others. - antisocial personality disorder.
Antisocial Personality Disorder (Cluster B: 'dramatic, emotional, or erratic') is characterized by a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, often with a history of conduct disorder or ODD in childhood.
The ability to understand one's own other's mental states is called - mentalization.
Mentalization refers to the capacity to implicitly and explicitly understand the mental states (thoughts, feelings, intentions) of oneself and others, which is critical for effective social interaction and empathy.
This is a complex mental health condition that translates to split mind. It affects a person's thinking versus behavior. - schizophrenia.
Schizophrenia is a severe mental disorder that affects how a person thinks, feels, and behaves, leading to a distorted perception of reality, though the 'split mind' refers more to a disconnect between thought and emotion, not a split personality.
Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia? - social withdrawl.
Social withdrawal is a negative symptom, reflecting a reduction or absence of normal functions and behaviors, contrasting with positive symptoms like hallucinations or delusions.
If you have schizoaffective disorder, what other kind of disorder is present in addition to features of schizophrenia? - mood disorder.
Schizoaffective disorder is characterized by a combination of schizophrenia symptoms (e.g., delusions, hallucinations) and prominent mood symptoms, such as depression or mania, for a significant portion of the illness.
What is notable about dopamine when considering the neurochemistry of schizophrenia? - excess dopamine is linked to psychotic symptoms.
The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia suggests that an overactivity of dopamine in certain brain pathways contributes to the positive symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations.
The prevalence of schizophrenia diagnosis is extremely high around the globe (>10%). - False.
The lifetime prevalence of schizophrenia is relatively low, typically estimated to be around $0.3-0.7$ % globally, making it a serious but not extremely common disorder.
This is known as the time between early signs of schizophrenia and the time the full diagnostic criteria is met. - Prodromal period.
The prodromal period is a crucial phase where subtle changes in thinking, mood, and social functioning may occur before the full onset of psychotic symptoms, offering a window for early intervention.
This is a common cognitive impairment for people with schizophrenia in which simple single step directions would probably be easiest for your client to follow - slower processing speed.
Slower processing speed is a common cognitive deficit in schizophrenia, meaning individuals take longer to perform mental tasks, making multi-step or complex instructions challenging.
approximately what percentage of people ages 12 years old and up had a substance use disorder? - 15%.
This statistic indicates that substance use disorders affect a significant portion of the population, highlighting the need for widespread prevention and treatment efforts.
Which of the following cultural groups has lower rates of substance use disorder? - people using religion to cope and Asian americans.
Cultural factors, including religious practices that discourage substance use and specific cultural norms (e.g., among some Asian American subgroups) can influence the prevalence of substance use disorders.
If a medical doctor is using a medication assisted treatment approach with your client and prescribes an agonist, that what will that medicine do for the client? - help reduce cravings.
An agonist medication activates opioid receptors in the brain, similar to illicit opioids but in a controlled way, which helps reduce cravings and withdrawal symptoms without producing a euphoric high.
Since performance patterns can be greatly affected by substance use disorder, which is following most vital for the OT to consider when treating this population - structure/unstructured time.
Substance use disorders often disrupt healthy routines and time management; OTs can help clients establish new, productive daily structures to support recovery and reduce opportunities for substance use.
For individuals diagnosed with post traumatic stress disorder, what is the most common form of medical treatment? - antidepressants.
Antidepressant medications, particularly SSRIs, are often a first-line pharmacological treatment for PTSD to help manage symptoms like depression, anxiety, and irritability.
What do individuals who display resilience in the face of stress typically have? - social support.
Strong social support networks are a critical protective factor for resilience, providing emotional connection, practical assistance, and a sense of belonging that buffers the impact of stress.
Which diagnosis is the most common comorbidity with post traumatic stress disorder? - depression.
Depression frequently co-occurs with PTSD, often as a result of the chronic stress, emotional numbing, and functional impairment associated with the trauma response.
From the following list, which is the most important component to include in trauma informed care? - person input.
Trauma-informed care prioritizes the client's voice, choice, and collaboration, recognizing that empowering individuals to have input in their care promotes healing and prevents re-traumatization.
According to your textbook, which was published this year, approximately, what percentage of people will be exposed to trauma in their lifetime? - 90%.
This high percentage highlights that exposure to potentially traumatic events is very common, emphasizing the need for universal trauma awareness and prevention strategies.
This is the most serious of the trauma conditions that can develop after exposure to traumatic events through both direct and indirect means and presents with intrusive thoughts, avoidance behaviors, negative mood changes, and hyperarousal. - PTSD.
Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) is a severe and persistent stress-related disorder characterized by a constellation of symptoms across multiple domains, significantly impacting an individual's life.
Acute stress disorder is a condition that can develop after exposure to a traumatic event. It has a transient effect, meaning fleeting, on occupational performance. It affects women more than men. What is the most common risk factor for developing that condition? - prior mental health condition.
Having a pre-existing mental health condition increases an individual's vulnerability to developing acute stress disorder after a traumatic event, suggesting a lower threshold for stress response.
This type of attachment disorder results in a child having little to no boundaries with unfamiliar adults, which can pose a physical danger to them. These children may go up to unfamiliar adults to be willing to go away with them. - disinhibited social engagement.
Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder is characterized by a child's indiscriminate behavior toward unfamiliar adults, stemming from a history of neglect or abuse that interfered with the development of secure attachments.
This is a term used instead instead of social determinants because it helps to reframe perspectives and gives people control of the systemic changes needed to address social determinants of health - social driver.
The term 'social drivers' is used to emphasize the active and agency-oriented aspects of addressing social determinants, framing them as areas where collective action can lead to equitable change.
If you are connected to yourself, others, and the environments of your choice and generally experience enjoyment in everyday life, where are you on the continuum of mental health? - exceling.
Excelling on the mental health continuum represents a state of optimal well-being, characterized by high levels of self-awareness, positive relationships, environmental mastery, and overall life satisfaction.
In the WHO report, World Health Organization, equity through action on the social determinants of health, what was covered? - strategies to promote health equity.
The WHO report focuses on actionable approaches to reduce health inequities by addressing the underlying social, economic, and environmental conditions that influence health outcomes globally.