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Question 1. The term that refers to groups of myelinated axons from many neurons located in the brain and spinal cord is:

• incorrect1.

  Gray matter

• 2. Horn

• correct3.

  White matter

• 4. Nissl bodies

Rationales

• Option 1:Gray matter is the area in the central nervous system consisting of nonmyelinated nerve tissue.

• Option 2:The horn is the principal area of gray matter in the spinal cord.

• Option 3:White matter refers to groups of myelinated axons from many neurons located in the brain and spinal cord.

• Option 4:Nissl bodies are large granular bodies found in nerve cells.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 2. ____________ is to move away from the midline or to turn outward.

• correct1.

  Abduction

• 2. Adduction

• 3. Anterior

• 4. Posterior

Rationales

• Option 1:Abduction is movement away from the midline of the body.

• Option 2:Adduction is movement toward the midline from the body.

• Option 3:Anterior means nearer to or front of the body.

• Option 4:Posterior means nearer to or back of the body.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 3. In same-day surgery, the patient will have preoperative education for all of the following except:

• incorrect1.

  Decrease the need for postoperative analgesics

• 2. Alleviate anxiety

• 3. Help with postoperative outcomes

• correct4.

  Preparation for anesthesia

Rationales

• Option 1:Patient education focuses on full recovery. It is done to relieve anxiety and includes explanations about the procedure and postoperative outcomes.

• Option 2:Patient education focuses on full recovery. It is done to relieve anxiety and includes explanations about the procedure and postoperative outcomes.

• Option 3:Patient education focuses on full recovery. It is done to relieve anxiety and includes explanations about the procedure and postoperative outcomes.

• Option 4:Patient education focuses on full recovery. It is done to relieve anxiety and includes explanations about the procedure and postoperative outcomes.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

Question 4. The surgical technologist may be asked to assist the anesthesiologist during the intubation process by applying ______ pressure.

• 1. Negative

• 2. Blood

• 3. Positive

• correct4.

  Cricoid

Rationales

• Option 1:Refers to a place where pressure is smaller in one place relative to another place. The flow of air or fluids will naturally occur where the pressure is lower.

• Option 2:The pressure of blood in the circulatory system, often measured for diagnostic purposes.

• Option 3:When referring to ventilation, this means that airway pressure is applied at the patient’s airway through an endotracheal tube; the positive pressure causes the gas to flow into the lungs until the ventilator breath is terminated.

• Option 4:Cricoid pressure is also called the Sellick maneuver and is firm pressure applied to the cricoid cartilage prior to induction to reduce the risk of aspiration. It prevents the stomach contents from ejection and reduces the risk of aspiration into the respiratory tract.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

Question 5. After the certified surgical technologist (CST) finishes the scrub, hands and arms are described as:

• 1. Washed

• incorrect2.

  Sterile

• correct3.

  Surgically clean

• 4. Dirty

Rationales

• Option 1:The scrub serves to remove all transient flora and reduce resident flora to its lowest possible number. Since there will be some flora left over, the skin can never be considered sterile. Therefore, after the scrub, the hands and arms are surgically clean.

• Option 2:The scrub serves to remove all transient flora and reduce resident flora to its lowest possible number. Since there will be some flora left over, the skin can never be considered sterile. Therefore, after the scrub, the hands and arms are surgically clean.

• Option 3:The scrub serves to remove all transient flora and reduce resident flora to its lowest possible number. Since there will be some flora left over, the skin can never be considered sterile. Therefore, after the scrub, the hands and arms are surgically clean.

• Option 4:The scrub serves to remove all transient flora and reduce resident flora to its lowest possible number. Since there will be some flora left over, the skin can never be considered sterile. Therefore, after the scrub, the hands and arms are surgically clean.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

Question 6. An example of a selective medium is (select all that apply):

• 1. Triple sugar-iron agar

• 2. EMB

• 3. MacConkey

Rationales

• Option 1:Triple sugar-iron agar is not selective.

• Option 2:EMB means meosin methylene blue agar. A selective medium is one that encourages the growth of some organisms but suppresses others.

• Option 3:MacConkey is a selective medium. A selective medium is one that encourages the growth of some organisms but suppresses others.

• Question Type: MCMS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Microbiology

Question 7. An approach into the maxillary sinus through the canine fossa, a gingivobuccal incision, is for the surgical procedure called:

• correct1.

  Caldwell-Luc

• 2. Ethmoidectomy

• 3. Nasal polypectomy

• 4. Submucous resection

Rationales

• Option 1:The Caldwell-Luc procedure creates an intraoral opening to drain the maxillary sinus.

• Option 2:An ethmoidectomy uses an approach through the nose or an incision near the inner canthus of the eye to remove tissue and air cells.

• Option 3:A nasal polypectomy enters through the nasal cavity to excise lesions.

• Option 4:A submucous resection is done to relieve a nasal obstruction by an incision made anteriorly over the septum, through the mucous membrane.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 8. What procedure would a surgeon recommend to patients suffering from upper right quadrant pain, nausea, and vomiting after ingesting foods with a high fat content?

• 1. Appendectomy

• 2. Liver resection

• correct3.

  Cholecystectomy

• 4. Gastric bypass

Rationales

• Option 1:Appendectomy is excision of the appendix.

• Option 2:Liver resection is the removal of a part of the liver. It is often done on patients diagnosed with liver cancer.

• Option 3:Cholecystectomy is removal of the gallbladder and is the preferred treatment for patients with chronic cholecystitis (inflammation of the gallbladder) secondary to ingesting foods with a high fat content.

• Option 4:Gastric bypass is weight-loss surgery done on patients whose body weight is 100 pounds or more over their ideal body weight.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 9. Elective surgery may be cancelled if the patient presents with a low level of Hb because it indicates:

• correct1.

  Reduced oxygen-carrying capacity

• 2. Reduced ability to fight infection

• incorrect3.

  Reduced ability to form clots

• 4. Decreased clotting time

Rationales

• Option 1:Hemoglobin (Hb) is involved in the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide. This pigment of the red blood cells carries oxygen from the lungs to the tissues.

• Option 2:Immunodeficiency disorders reduce the body’s ability to fight infections and diseases.

• Option 3:Glycoprotein VI deficiency is a bleeding disorder associated with a decreased ability to form blood clots.

• Option 4:A low PT INR (prothrombin time) test indicates decreased clotting time.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

Question 10. For which type of surgery could a retrobulbar block be administered for anesthesia?

• correct1.

  Vitrectomy

• 2. Appendectomy

• 3. Mediastinoscopy

• incorrect4.

  Arthroscopy of the shoulder

Rationales

• Option 1:Retrobulbar means behind the eyeball. A block refers to nerve conduction blockade, which is used for a specific region of the body. It is often used in ophthalmic surgery. The other types of surgeries would typically be conducted under general anesthesia. 

• Option 2:Spinal/epidural block can be administered as an alternative to general anesthesia for an appendectomy.

• Option 3:Superficial cervical plexus and intercostal nerve blocks can be administered for a mediastinoscopy.

• Option 4:An interscalene nerve block is the most common type of nerve block used in shoulder arthroscopies and is the best way to block the first part of the brachial plexus, where the nerves to the shoulder come from.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 11. ______ is the term used to describe clamps that are placed at a right angle to a tubular structure such as the aorta.

• correct1.

  Cross-clamping

• 2. Cauterizing

• 3. Mending

• 4. Occlusion

Rationales

• Option 1:Cross-clamping is placing the clamps across an artery or vessel at a right angle to occlude the vessel completely.

• Option 2:Cauterizing means to burn tissue with a cautery.

• Option 3:Mending means to correct errors or make something whole by repairing.

• Option 4:Occlusion means being closed.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 12. Which of the following procedures is done to repair a malformation of the upper lip?

• correct1.

  Cheiloplasty

• 2. Hysterectomy

• 3. Mandibulectomy

• 4. Blepharoplasty

Rationales

• Option 1:Cheiloplasty is the surgical repair for a malformation of the upper lip.

• Option 2:Hysterectomy is the surgical excision of the uterus and its associated structures.

• Option 3:Mandibulectomy is removal of the mandible.

• Option 4:Blepharoplasty is repair of the eyelid to remove excess skin.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 13. Which of the following statements is correct?

• correct1.

  0.2 mg is equal to 0.200 mg

• 2. 0.2 mg is less than 0.20 mg

• 3. 0.2 mg is greater than 0.200 mg

• incorrect4.

  None of the above are correct

Rationales

• Option 1:The first place after the decimal point is the tenths place value. A zero after the tenths place does not change the value of the number.

• Option 2:0.2 mg is equal to 0.20 mg. Any zeros following the number in the tenths place does not change the value of the number in the tenths place.

• Option 3:0.2 mg is equal to 0.200 mg. Any zeros following the number in the tenths place does not change the value of the number in the tenths place.

• Option 4:See all of the above.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Surgical Pharmacology

Question 14. A joint in which movement can occur in all planes and directions is known as a:

• 1. Hinge joint

• 2. Suture

• 3. Pivot joint

• correct4.

  Ball and socket joint

Rationales

• Option 1:A hinge joint allows movement in only one plane.

• Option 2:A suture is an immovable fibrous joint that joins skull bones.

• Option 3:Pivot joints allow only a rotational movement around a central axis.

• Option 4:A joint in which movement can occur in all planes and directions is known as a ball and socket joint.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

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• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 15. Upon removal of the endotracheal tube, the patient coughs violently, resulting in dehiscence of the surgical wound. What should the certified surgical technologist (CST) do next?

• correct1.

  Re-establish the sterile field

• 2. Hand off an oxygen mask

• incorrect3.

  Break scrub and assist the anesthesiologist

• 4. Apply bulky dressings to the wound

Rationales

• Option 1:Should wound dehiscence occur postop, the CST should re-establish the sterile field and prepare to assist the surgeon.

• Option 2:Preparation and handling of an oxygen mask is the responsibility of the anesthesia provider.

• Option 3:The CST’s responsibility is to maintain the sterile field until the patient is removed from the room. As such, the CST will not break scrub to assist the anesthesiologist with the patient.

• Option 4:Bulky dressings can be applied once the dehiscence is corrected and the wound approximated.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

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• Exam Subsection: Postoperative Procedures

Question 16. What procedure is used to physically remove bioburden from an item?

• incorrect1.

  Sterilization

• 2. Asepsis

• 3. Disinfection

• correct4.

  Cleaning

Rationales

• Option 1:Sterilization uses steam or gas to render an item sterilized and ready for use.

• Option 2:Asepsis is the absence of microorganism that can cause disease.

• Option 3:Disinfection is the killing of almost all microorganisms, except spores, on nonliving surfaces.

• Option 4:Cleaning is used to physically remove bioburden from an item.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Ancillary Duties

• |

• Exam Subsection: Equipment Sterilization and Maintenance

Question 17. Which vitamin serves a vital role in coagulation?

• correct1.

  K

• 2. D

• 3. E

• 4. B12

Rationales

• Option 1:Vitamin K is needed for adequate blood clotting.

• Option 2:Vitamin D regulates calcium, phosphate, and bone development.

• Option 3:Vitamin E is needed for digestion and metabolism of fats, decreasing blood clot formation, and promoting growth of muscle tissue.

• Option 4:Vitamin B12 is needed for nerve functioning, protein and carbohydrate metabolism, and normal growth.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Surgical Pharmacology

Question 18. What type of tube is inserted into the bile duct after cholecystectomy for drainage?

• 1. Chest tube

• incorrect2.

  Penrose drain

• correct3.

  T-Tube

• 4. Fogarty catheter

Rationales

• Option 1:A chest tube is inserted into the pleural space to drain out air or fluid to achieve negative pressure in the lungs

• Option 2:A Penrose drain is a flexible tube made out of rubber and is left inside the surgery site to promote drainage by capillary action. It is also used to retract the spermatic cord during an inguinal hernia repair

• Option 3:A T-tube is inserted into the bile duct to drain excessive bile.

• Option 4:A Fogarty catheter is inserted into a blood vessel that contains an embolus. It has a balloon that is inflated to extract the embolus.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Ancillary Duties

• |

• Exam Subsection: Equipment Sterilization and Maintenance

Question 19. ____________ is the apprehension or fear about upcoming events.

• 1. Alzheimer

• correct2.

  Anxiety

• 3. Atrophy

• 4. Paranoia

Rationales

• Option 1:Alzheimer disease is a progressive form of dementia.

• Option 2:Anxiety is a vague uneasiness about upcoming events.

• Option 3:Atrophy is the wasting away of an organ or tissue.

• Option 4:Paranoia is a condition in which patients exhibit persecutory or jealous delusions.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 20. The certified surgical technologist (CST) should have which of the following suction tips ready for abdominal procedures?

• 1. Frazier

• 2. Yankauer

• correct3.

  Poole

• 4. Baron

Rationales

• Option 1:Frazier is a small suction tip used in pediatric and neurological procedures.

• Option 2:Yankauer is a basic suction device used for superficial hemorrhage and plume evacuation.

• Option 3:Poole is the suction tip of choice for abdominal procedures. It has several ports to allow deep suctioning of blood and body fluids from the abdominal cavity.

• Option 4:The Baron is a small suction tip originally created for the ear.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 21. Epinephrine is combined with local anesthesia to:

• correct1.

  Prolong the effects of local anesthesia

• 2. Inhibit the postoperative inflammatory response

• 3. Induce amnesia

• incorrect4.

  Prevent blood clot formation

Rationales

• Option 1:When used as an adjunct in anesthesia, epinephrine causes vasoconstriction and hemostasis.

• Option 2:Medications that inhibit inflammatory response include aspirin and ibuprofen.

• Option 3:Benzodiazepines are a category of drugs used to cause amnesia (e.g., propofol).

• Option 4:Anticoagulants are used for the prevention of blood clot formation. These can include heparin, aspirin, and warfarin.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Surgical Pharmacology

Question 22. __________ is the extensive loss or removal of blood.

• correct1.

  Exsanguination

• 2. Examination

• 3. Extrusion

• 4. Extrusion

Rationales

• Option 1:Exsanguination is loss of blood to the point where life cannot be sustained.

• Option 2:Examination is the inspection of the body and its systems to determine the presence or absence of disease.

• Option 3:Extrusion refers to being forced or pushed out.

• Option 4:Exposure is the process of opening, as in a surgical procedure.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 23. Vein ligation and stripping for treatment of varicose veins involves ligation of which vein?

• 1. Esophageal

• 2. Hepatic

• correct3.

  Saphenous

• 4. Meningeal

Rationales

• Option 1:The esophageal vein is in the esophagus.

• Option 2:The hepatic vein drains the liver.

• Option 3:Vein stripping removes the saphenous vein from the lower extremity.

• Option 4:The meningeal veins are in the brain.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 24. Which of the following drugs is given postoperatively to reduce inflammation?

• correct1.

  Dexamethasone

• 2. Diazepam

• 3. Dopamine

• incorrect4.

  Dantrolene

Rationales

• Option 1:Dexamethasone decreases inflammation.

• Option 2:Diazepam is an antianxiety and anticonvulsant medication.

• Option 3:Dopamine is an adrenergic used for shock and hypotension.

• Option 4:Dantrolene is a skeletal muscle relaxant used for stroke, spinal cord injury, and malignant hyperthermia.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Surgical Pharmacology

Question 25. The functional microscopic units of the kidney are called the:

• incorrect1.

  Renal pyramids

• 2. Ureters

• 3. Bladder

• correct4.

  Nephrons

Rationales

• Option 1:The renal pyramid is a structure in the renal medulla that contains the renal tubules.

• Option 2:The ureters are the tubes that connect the kidney with the bladder.

• Option 3:The bladder is the reservoir that holds urine in the pelvic cavity.

• Option 4:The functional microscopic units of the kidney are called the nephrons.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 26. The term used to describe the premature separation of the placenta from the wall of the uterus is known as:

• 1. Abruptio placentae

• incorrect2.

  Placenta previa

• correct3.

  Cephalopelvic disproportion

• 4. Retained placenta

Rationales

• Option 1:Abruptio placentae is the premature detachment of the placenta after 20 weeks of gestation.

• Option 2:Placenta previa is a placenta that is implanted in the lower uterine segment.

• Option 3:Cephalopelvic disproportion is a condition in which the fetal head is too large for the maternal pelvis.

• Option 4:A retained placenta is one that is not expelled within 2 hours of second-stage labor.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 27. A condition caused by progressive damage to the heart valves due to exposure to streptococcal infection is known as:

• 1. Pericarditis

• 2. Heart failure

• 3. Myocardial infarction

• correct4.

  Rheumatic heart disease

Rationales

• Option 1:Pericarditis is inflammation of the membrane enclosing the heart.

• Option 2:Heart failure refers to cessation of the heartbeat or a failure to maintain adequate circulation of blood.

• Option 3:Myocardial infarction (heart attack) is caused by occlusion of one or more of the coronary arteries.

• Option 4:Rheumatic heart disease is a condition caused by progressive damage to the heart valves due to exposure to streptococcal infection.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 28. Which of the following catheters will the certified surgical technologist (CST) have on the sterile field for an embolectomy?

• incorrect1.

  Malecot

• 2. Foley

• 3. Jackson-Pratt

• correct4.

  Fogarty

Rationales

• Option 1:A Malecot drain is used for postoperative draining from the kidneys or bladder.

• Option 2:A Foley catheter is used to drain and collect urine from the bladder.

• Option 3:Jackson-Pratt is an active drain used for postoperative drainage of body fluids.

• Option 4:A Fogarty catheter will be used in an embolectomy procedure to remove an embolus from an artery.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 29. A solution in which the salt concentration outside a cell is the same as that inside the cell is known as:

• 1. Hypertonic

• 2. Hypotonic

• correct3.

  Isotonic

• 4. Base

Rationales

• Option 1:A hypertonic solution causes cells to shrink due to loss of water by osmosis.

• Option 2:A hypotonic solution causes cells to swell due to gain of water by osmosis.

• Option 3:A hypertonic solution causes cells to shrink due to loss of water by osmosis; a hypotonic solution causes cells to swell due to gain of water by osmosis. An isotonic solution contains the same concentration of dissolved materials as in a cell, and causes no change in cell volume.

• Option 4:A pH of 7 is considered neutral, neither acidic or alkalinic (base).

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

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• Exam Subsection: Microbiology

Question 30. During a lumpectomy performed for a cancerous breast tumor, the procedure consists of:

• correct1.

  Removal of tumor and margins

• 2. Removal of tumor and lobes

• 3. Removal of tumor and muscle

• incorrect4.

  Removal of entire breast

Rationales

• Option 1:Lumpectomy is the surgical removal of a tumor from the breast. Tissue on the margin of the lesion is sampled for the presence of cancerous cells.

• Option 2:Lumpectomy is the surgical removal of a tumor from the breast. Tissue on the margin of the lesion is sampled for the presence of cancerous cells.

• Option 3:Radical Mastectomy is the removal of the tumor and the muscle.

• Option 4:Mastectomy is excision of the breast tissue.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 31. Strabismus repair is a type of:

• 1. Plastic surgery

• 2. ENT surgery

• correct3.

  Ophthalmic surgery

• 4. GYN surgery

Rationales

• Option 1:Plastic surgery refers to procedures that restore appearance or function to a body structure.

• Option 2:ENT is an abbreviation for ear, nose, and throat surgery.

• Option 3:Strabismus correction is a type of eye surgery to repair deviation of the rectus muscles.

• Option 4:GYN is an abbreviation for gynecology.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 32. A Potts scissor is used for:

• correct1.

  Vascular surgery

• 2. Genitourinary (GU) surgery

• 3. Plastic surgery

• 4. Orthopedic surgery

Rationales

• Option 1:Potts scissors are used for soft tissue dissection and can be used for incising vessels, such as veins and arteries.

• Option 2:Metzenbaum scissors are often used for GU cases to dissect soft tissue.

• Option 3:Stevens tenotomy scissors are an example of dissectors used in plastic surgery cases.

• Option 4:Orthopedic cases will require the use of curved Mayo scissors for heavy tissue and Metzenbaum scissors for soft tissue dissection.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 33. __________ is a drug used to treat bradycardia in the presence of hypertension.

• incorrect1.

  Protamine

• 2. Aminophylline

• 3. Meperidine

• correct4.

  Atropine

Rationales

• Option 1:Protamine is used in cases of heparin overdose.

• Option 2:Aminophylline is a bronchodilator.

• Option 3:Meperidine is an opiate antagonist.

• Option 4:Atropine increases the heart rate and reduces secretions.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Surgical Pharmacology

Question 34. TURP is an abbreviation for:

• 1. Transurethral reposition of the prostate

• incorrect2.

  Transurethral repair of the prostate

• 3. Transurethral realignment of the prostate

• correct4.

  Transurethral resection of the prostate

Rationales

• Option 1:There is currently no surgical procedure done through the urethra to reposition the prostate.

• Option 2:There is currently no surgical procedure done through the urethra to repair the prostate.

• Option 3:There is currently no surgical procedure done through the urethra to realign the prostate.

• Option 4:TURP is the removal of prostatic tissue using a device inserted through the urethra.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 35. Polyuria means:

• correct1.

  Frequent urination

• incorrect2.

  Painful urination

• 3. Frequent night urination

• 4. Insufficient urination

Rationales

• Option 1:Polyuria means excessive secretion and discharge of urine.

• Option 2:Dysuria means painful urination.

• Option 3:Nocturia means frequent urination at night.

• Option 4:Oliguria means insufficient urination.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 36. When a patient is moved into Trendelenburg position, the operating team will do all of the following EXCEPT:

• correct1.

  Place the Mayo stand in a lower position

• incorrect2.

  Make sure the patient’s knees are bent on the OR table

• 3. Ensure the patient’s body is not touching metal

• 4. Monitor decreased tidal volume

Rationales

• Option 1:The Mayo stand should never be lowered to prevent injury to the patient’s legs.

• Option 2:The patient’s knees should be bent over the break in the OR (operating room) table.

• Option 3:No area of the patient’s body should touch metal to prevent injury to skin, nerves, or vessels.

• Option 4:The anesthesiologist will monitor the patient’s tidal volume.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 37. Before transferring a patient from the operating room table to the stretcher, what needs to happen?

• correct1.

  Lock the stretcher

• 2. Raise the side rails

• 3. Uncover the patient

• 4. Administer additional anesthesia

Rationales

• Option 1:Prior to moving the patient, team members must ensure that both the stretcher and operating room table are locked in place.

• Option 2:The side rails will be lifted once the patient is comfortably situated on the stretcher.

• Option 3:Uncovering the patient will increase the risk of hypothermia.

• Option 4:Anesthesia will be discontinued once the surgical intervention is completed.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Postoperative Procedures

Question 38. Which of the individual roles does not participate in the preoperative assessment of the surgical patient?

• 1. Anesthesiologist (MD)

• 2. Certified registered nurse anesthetist (CRNA)

• correct3.

  Surgical technologist

• 4. Surgeon (MD)

Rationales

• Option 1:The anesthesiologist and surgeon handle direct patient care preoperatively and are responsible for the medical well-being of the patient.

• Option 2:A CRNA provides pain medication (anesthesia) care for patients before, during, and after surgery. They administer medications to keep patients asleep or pain-free during surgery and constantly monitor every biological function of the patient's body.

• Option 3:The surgical technologist’s role is primarily as the scrub responsible for the sterile field, instrumentation, and sterile technique.

• Option 4:The anesthesiologist and surgeon handle direct patient care preoperatively and are responsible for the medical well-being of the patient.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

Question 39. Glycine is used for which of the following procedures?

• 1. Circumcision

• incorrect2.

  Vasectomy

• 3. Nephrectomy

• correct4.

  TURP

Rationales

• Option 1:Glycine is not applicable for use during a circumcision procedure. 

• Option 2:Glycine is not applicable for use during a vasectomy procedure.

• Option 3:Glycine is not applicable for use during a nephrectomy procedure.

• Option 4:Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) requires continuous irrigation of the bladder with an isotonic nonhemolytic fluid, such as 1.5% glycine. This is to prevent absorption into the venous circulation.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 40. Which of the following bacteria causes toxic shock?

• 1. Streptococcus pyogenes

• correct2.

  Staphylococcus aureus

• 3. Escherichia coli

• incorrect4.

  Clostridium perfringens

Rationales

• Option 1:S. pyogenes causes impetigo, scarlet fever, and rheumatic fever.

• Option 2:S. aureus causes toxic shock.

• Option 3:E. coli causes urinary tract infections, diarrhea, and nosocomial infections.

• Option 4:C. perfringens causes gangrene and food poisoning.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Microbiology

Question 41. During a reduction mammoplasty, in which position is the patient placed to assess the breasts for size and symmetry?

• correct1.

  Fowler

• 2. Trendelenburg

• 3. Kraske

• 4. Dorsal recumbent

Rationales

• Option 1:After temporary closure of the second breast has occurred, the patient may be placed in the Fowler (sitting) position to judge the size and symmetry of both breasts. 

• Option 2:Trendelenburg is a position in which the patient’s head is low and the legs and feet are on an elevated plane.

• Option 3:Kraske is the jackknife position. 

• Option 4:Dorsal recumbent is supine.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 42. The correct number of pairs of coccygeal nerves is:

• correct1.

  1

• 2. 8

• incorrect3.

  12

• 4. 5

Rationales

• Option 1:Coccygeal nerves are the lowest of the 31 pairs of peripheral nerves that connect with the spinal cord.

• Option 2:There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves: eight cervical, 12 thoracic, five lumbar, five sacral, and one coccygeal nerve root pairs.

• Option 3:There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves: eight cervical, 12 thoracic, five lumbar, five sacral, and one coccygeal nerve root pairs.

• Option 4:There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves: eight cervical, 12 thoracic, five lumbar, five sacral, and one coccygeal nerve root pairs.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 43. Which part of the surgical gown and glove is not sterile?

• 1. Sterile glove

• 2. Front of the gown

• 3. Sleeve of the gown

• correct4.

  Cuff of the gown

Rationales

• Option 1:Donning sterile attire incorporates the use of sterile gloves.

• Option 2:The chest to waist of a surgical gown is the component that is considered to be sterile.

• Option 3:The gown’s sleeve is considered to be sterile to 2 inches above the elbow.

• Option 4:The cuff of the gown is not considered sterile because it has been exposed to a surgically clean hand and not a sterile hand.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

Question 44. A(n) __________ is a benign lesion filled with synovial flu that can arise from a tendon sheath.

• 1. Excision

• 2. Globe

• 3. Sebaceous cyst

• correct4.

  Ganglion cyst

Rationales

• Option 1:Excision means a surgical removal.

• Option 2:Globe is a term used to describe the eyeball.

• Option 3:A sebaceous cyst is a cyst that originates on a sebaceous gland.

• Option 4:A ganglion cyst is a benign lesion filled with synovial fluid that can arise from any joint in the hand or wrist.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 45. One meter is equal to______ centimeters.

• 1. 0.01

• incorrect2.

  10

• correct3.

  100

• 4. 1,000

Rationales

• Option 1:The conversion factor from a meter to a centimeter is 100. So, 1 centimeter equals 0.01 meter.

• Option 2:The conversion factor from a meter to a centimeter is 100. So, 10 centimeters equals 0.1 meter.

• Option 3:The conversion factor from a meter to a centimeter is 100. One meter equals 100 centimeters.

• Option 4:The conversion factor from a meter to a centimeter is 100. So, 1,000 centimeters equals 10 meters.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Surgical Pharmacology

Question 46. A root and a combining vowel used together are called a:

• 1. Prefix

• correct2.

  Combining form

• 3. Suffix

• 4. Affix

Rationales

• Option 1:A prefix is an element that is placed before the root word.

• Option 2:The combining form is a part of a word that occurs only as part of a compound word.

• Option 3:The suffix is the element that is added to the base or stem of a word.

• Option 4:An affix is a prefix or suffix added to a base or stem to form a word.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 47. What procedure is commonly performed with a pyloroplasty?

• 1. Partial gastrectomy

• correct2.

  Vagotomy

• 3. Cholecystectomy

• incorrect4.

  Whipple

Rationales

• Option 1:Partial gastrectomy is the removal of a part of the stomach.

• Option 2:A pyloroplasty repairs the pylorus, the lower portion of the stomach that opens into the duodenum. A vagotomy is a transection of the vagus nerve to reduce gastric secretion in patients with peptic ulcers. Pyloroplasty is performed in conjunction with vagotomy to enhance gastric emptying.

• Option 3:Cholecystectomy is the removal of the gallbladder.

• Option 4:A Whipple procedure — also known as a pancreaticoduodenectomy — is a complex operation to remove the head of the pancreas, the first part of the small intestine (duodenum), the gallbladder and the bile duct.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 48. A Kerrison rongeur is used for which of the following procedures?

• correct1.

  Laminectomy

• 2. Craniotomy

• incorrect3.

  Endarterectomy

• 4. Osteotomy

Rationales

• Option 1:A Kerrison rongeur is used to remove the spinous process of vertebrae of the spine during a laminectomy.

• Option 2:A craniotomy is an incision through the skull.

• Option 3:An endarterectomy is surgical removal of the lining of an artery.

• Option 4:Osteotomy is the procedure for cutting through a bone.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 49. When a surgical technologist scrubs for a prescribed length of time, what is the method for the surgical scrub called?

• 1. Counted method

• correct2.

  Timed method

• 3. Inspection method

• 4. Plane method

Rationales

• Option 1:The counted brush stroke method requires a measured number of brush strokes for each anatomical area to be scrubbed.

• Option 2:In the timed method for the surgical scrub, the hands and arms are scrubbed for a prescribed length of time.

• Option 3:There is no such method referred to as inspection.

• Option 4:Although when scrubbing we are scrubbing different planes, this does not necessarily define what is actually taking place.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

Question 50. The photosensitive cells in the retina that function in dim light but do not produce color vision are called the:

• correct1.

  Rods

• incorrect2.

  Cones

• 3. Ciliary body

• 4. Gyri

Rationales

• Option 1:The photosensitive cells in the retina that function in dim light but do not produce color vision are called the rods.

• Option 2:The cones are the photoreceptors in the retina.

• Option 3:The ciliary body is part of the vascular tunic of the eyeball behind the iris that changes the shape of the lens.

• Option 4:Gyri are the folds of the cerebral cortex of the brain.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

• Question 51. The registered nurse who administers anesthesia under the supervision of an anesthesiologist is also known as the:

  • correct1.

    CRNA

  • 2. CST

  • 3. CNOR

  • 4. LPN

  Rationales

  • Option 1:The CRNA is the certified registered nurse anesthetist.

  • Option 2:CST stands for certified surgical technologist.

  • Option 3:CNOR stands for certified nurse in the operating room.

  • Option 4:LPN stands for licensed practical nurse.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Ancillary Duties

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Administrative and Personnel

  Question 52. What is the role of the certified surgical technologist (CST) during a cardiac arrest in the operating room?

  • 1. Obtaining the crash cart

  • incorrect2.

    Performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

  • correct3.

    Maintaining sterility of the back table and Mayo stand

  • 4. Performing documentation

  Rationales

  • Option 1:The circulator will call for and obtain the crash cart containing all medications and supplies necessary to treat cardiac arrest.

  • Option 2:It will be the responsibility of nonsterile team members to initiate CPR.

  • Option 3:During cardiac arrest in the operating room, the CST must maintain sterility of the back table and Mayo stand to ensure the case can resume at the earliest opportunity.

  • Option 4:Documentation of all activity during a case is the responsibility of the circulating nurse.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

  Question 53. _______catheters are used to dilate the ureters.

  • correct1.

    Garceau

  • 2. Foley

  • 3. Fogarty

  • incorrect4.

    Groshong

  Rationales

  • Option 1:Garceau catheters are used to dilate the ureters.

  • Option 2:Foley catheters are inserted through the urethra to drain the bladder.

  • Option 3:Fogarty catheters contain an inflatable balloon used to remove emboli from the cardiovascular system.

  • Option 4:Groshong is a permanent catheter used for long-term administration of medication or parenteral nutrition.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

  Question 54. __________ is the space in the wrist through which the flexor tendons and the medial nerve pass.

  • 1. Metacarpal

  • 2. Cerumen

  • correct3.

    Carpal tunnel

  • 4. Tendon sheath

  Rationales

  • Option 1:Metacarpal refers to the bones that comprise the fingers.

  • Option 2:Cerumen is ear wax.

  • Option 3:The carpal tunnel is a canal in the wrist through which the flexor tendons and medial nerve pass.

  • Option 4:A tendon sheath is bursae that encircle tendons to reduce friction.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Basic Science

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

  Question 55. Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus?

  • correct1.

    Tetanus

  • 2. Poliomyelitis

  • 3. Rubella

  • incorrect4.

    Venereal warts

  Rationales

  • Option 1:Tetanus is caused by the bacteria Clostridium tetani.

  • Option 2:Poliomyelitis is caused by the virus called poliovirus.

  • Option 3:Rubella is caused by the virus called rubella.

  • Option 4:Venereal warts are caused by the virus called human papillomavirus.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Basic Science

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Microbiology

  Question 56. What agent is needed to activate fiberglass casting material prior to application?

  • 1. Saline

  • correct2.

    Water

  • 3. Lubrication

  • incorrect4.

    Heat

  Rationales

  • Option 1:Saline is not used as the components will contraindicate with the fiberglass material. 

  • Option 2:Water is needed to activate fiberglass casting material before use on a patient.

  • Option 3:Lubrication is not needed as fiberglass casting is applied on top of a stockinette. 

  • Option 4:Heat is not indicated as fiberglass needs to be cool or room temperature. 

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

  Question 57. The biological indicator (BI) for the steam sterilization method is:

  • 1. DART

  • 2. BOWIE-DICK

  • 3. Bacillus atrophaeus

  • correct4.

    Geobacillus stearothermophilus

  Rationales

  • Option 1:Daily air removal test

  • Option 2:Bowie and DART are Used to test the performance of effective air removal from the Prevacuum sterilizers.

  • Option 3:Used in EtO & Hydrogen Peroxide to test effectiveness of process.

  • Option 4:Highly resistant microorganisms used to test the effectiveness of steam sterilization.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Ancillary Duties

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Equipment Sterilization and Maintenance

  Question 58. A fistula between the bladder and vagina is called a:

  • correct1.

    Vesicovaginal fistula

  • incorrect2.

    Ureterovaginal fistula

  • 3. Urethrovaginal fistula

  • 4. Rectovaginal fistula

  Rationales

  • Option 1:A vesicovaginal fistula exists between the bladder and vagina.

  • Option 2:A ureterovaginal fistula is between the ureter and vagina.

  • Option 3:A urethrovaginal fistula is between the urethra and vagina.

  • Option 4:A rectovaginal fistula is found between the rectum and vagina.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

  Question 59. For which surgical procedure would a Dorman stone basket, a choledochoscope, and a T-tube be used?

  • 1. Ectropion repair

  • 2. Mastoidectomy

  • correct3.

    Cholecystotomy

  • 4. Carpal tunnel release

  Rationales

  • Option 1:Ectropion repair is an ophthalmic procedure.

  • Option 2:Mastoidectomy is the removal of air cells in the temporal bone.

  • Option 3:Cholecystotomy is an opening into the gallbladder to drain bile and remove stones. T-tubes are placed within the biliary system to drain bile.

  • Option 4:Carpal tunnel release is a procedure to decompress the median nerve at the wrist.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

  Question 60. Which of the following lasers is used to destroy bladder tumors?

  • 1. Argon

  • 2. Krypton

  • correct3.

    Nd:YAG

  • 4. CO2

  Rationales

  • Option 1:Argon lasers are used in plastics and ophthalmology.

  • Option 2:Krypton lasers are used in ophthalmology.

  • Option 3:Nd:YAG laser is used to destroy bladder tumors.

  • Option 4:The CO2 laser can be used on light or dark tissue.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

  Question 61. What would be the exposure phase time for an unwrapped instrument set with some lumens in a prevacuum/dynamic air removal steam autoclave?

  • 1. 3 minutes

  • correct2.

    4 minutes

  • 3. 10 minutes

  • incorrect4.

    30 minutes

  Rationales

  • Option 1:Instrument set unwrapped, no lumen instruments

  • Option 2:Instrument set wrapped

  • Option 3:Instrument set unwrapped, some instruments with lumen

  • Option 4:Instrument set wrapped

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Ancillary Duties

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Equipment Sterilization and Maintenance

  Question 62. Why is warm saline used after gastrointestinal (GI) tract reanastomosis?

  • 1. Flush out remaining blood clots and tissue

  • 2. Maintain body temperature

  • correct3.

    Visual inspection of leakage from the site

  • 4. Flush away bacteria

  Rationales

  • Option 1:These will be removed prior to irrigation of the surgical site with sponges and instrumentation.

  • Option 2:Temperature and humidity are controlled in the operating room to prevent hypothermia.

  • Option 3:After reanastomosis, the surgeon will request warm saline to flush out the site to inspect for leaking of fluids or active bleeding from the site.

  • Option 4:While the surgeon may request the use of antibiotic-laced saline (“bug juice”), not all bacteria and microbes will be washed away. As such, the patient will receive a regimen of postoperative antibiotics to ward off infection.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

  Question 63. Which group of drugs interferes with transmission of pain impulses to the brain?

  • 1. Antibiotics

  • 2. Viscoelastic agents

  • correct3.

    Anesthetic agents

  • incorrect4.

    Antineoplastics

  Rationales

  • Option 1:Antibiotics destroy or inhibit the growth of microorganisms.

  • Option 2:Viscoelastic agents expand the chamber during eye surgery.

  • Option 3:Anesthetic agents produce loss of sensation, with or without loss of consciousness.

  • Option 4:Antineoplastics prevent the development or growth of malignant cells.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Basic Science

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Surgical Pharmacology

  Question 64. A radiological study that evaluates cardiac disease is:

  • correct1.

    Echocardiography

  • 2. Bronchoscopy

  • incorrect3.

    Mediastinoscopy

  • 4. Thoracoscopy

  Rationales

  • Option 1:The other choices are diagnostic procedures of the thorax. Chest x-rays, CT (computerized tomography) scan, MRI (magnetic resonance imaging), electrocardiography, and cardiac catheterization are other diagnostic procedures for cardiac disease.

  • Option 2:Bronchoscopy is a procedure to look directly at the airways in the lungs using a thin, lighted tube.

  • Option 3:A mediastinoscopy is a procedure used to examine the mediastinum. This is the space behind the breastbone (sternum) in the middle of the chest, between the two lungs. 

  • Option 4:Thoracoscopy is the visual examination of the lung surfaces and pleural space through a viewing tube (a thoracoscope).

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

  Question 65. A ______ forceps has small serrations that allow tension when grasping tissues.

  • correct1.

    Russian

  • 2. Singley

  • 3. DeBakey

  • 4. Bishop Harmon

  Rationales

  • Option 1:Russian forceps are tissue-handling forceps with broad, spoon-shaped tips, serrated around the edge.

  • Option 2:Singley forceps have fenestrated serrated jaws.

  • Option 3:DeBakey tissue forceps are longitudinal ribs, designed for delicate, nontraumatic vascular surgery.

  • Option 4:Bishop-Harmon forceps have teeth at the tips that are at right angles to the body. It is used for grasping tissue

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

  Question 66. The ability of the muscle to return to its original size after contraction or stretch is known as:

  • incorrect1.

    Contractility

  • correct2.

    Elasticity

  • 3. Extensibility

  • 4. Excitability

  Rationales

  • Option 1:Contractility is the ability to generate force.

  • Option 2:The ability of the muscle to return to its original size after contraction or stretch is known as elasticity.

  • Option 3:The ability of a muscle to be stretched when pulled is called extensibility.

  • Option 4:Excitability is the ability of a muscle to receive and respond to stimuli.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Basic Science

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

  Question 67. Which one of the following instruments has a rake on one end and a blade on the other?

  • 1. Volkmann retractor

  • 2. Murphy retractor

  • correct3.

    Senn retractor

  • 4. Army-Navy retractor

  Rationales

  • Option 1:Volkmann retractors have a rake on one end and two fenestrated openings on the other to provide better grip and visualization of the surgeon.

  • Option 2:Murphy retractor has a rake on one end and a loop on the other, used in general surgical procedures.

  • Option 3:Senn retractors have a rake on one end and a blade on the other and is often used in when the surgical site is 2 inches or less.

  • Option 4:Army-Navy retractors are double-bladed and is used for superficial tissue retraction.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

  Question 68. Spirometry is a noninvasive technique used for evaluation of the patient’s ______ status.

  • 1. Cardiac

  • correct2.

    Respiratory

  • 3. Circulatory

  • 4. Neurological

  Rationales

  • Option 1:Cardiac function can be examined through electrocardiography (ECG) and other methods.

  • Option 2:A spirometry examination evaluates lung capacity in patients with respiratory conditions.

  • Option 3:Circulatory assessment can be done through Doppler testing.

  • Option 4:Neurological function can be assessed during routine physical examination.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

  Question 69. Which piece of furniture will the surgical technologist typically use to supply necessary instrumentation to the surgeon?

  • 1. Back table

  • 2. Kick bucket

  • 3. Prep table

  • correct4.

    Mayo stand

  Rationales

  • Option 1:The back table will contain all instrumentation and supplies needed for a surgical procedure.

  • Option 2:The kick bucket is usually placed close to the surgeon and is where soiled sponges will be tossed after use. 

  • Option 3:The prep table is an auxiliary piece of furniture in the operating room and can be used for skin prep or placing extra sterile items.

  • Option 4:The Mayo stand is the CST’s primary work area during a surgical procedure, and it is where immediate instrumentation and/or supplies will be placed for use.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

  Question 70. What type of nonsuture needle is used to inject medication into IV tubing?

  • 1. Arterial needle

  • correct2.

    Hypodermic needle

  • incorrect3.

    Taper-cut needle

  • 4. Keith needle

  Rationales

  • Option 1:An arterial needle is used to insert diagnostic or angioplasty guiding catheters into the arterial system through guiding wires.

  • Option 2:Hypodermic needles are used to inject medications into IV tubing and into tissues.

  • Option 3:Taper-cut needle is a suture needle used to suture vascular tissue.

  • Option 4:Keith needles are straight-cutting suture needles that assist with tissue closure.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Ancillary Duties

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Equipment Sterilization and Maintenance

  Question 71. Which of the following instruments is used to occlude the mesentery artery during a colectomy?

  • 1. Babcock

  • 2. Kocher

  • incorrect3.

    Allis

  • correct4.

    Crile

  Rationales

  • Option 1:Babcock is an atraumatic grasper used to hold and manipulate soft tissue.

  • Option 2:Kocher is a traumatic grasper often used in orthopedics.

  • Option 3:Allis is an atraumatic grasper used in orthopedics and general cases.

  • Option 4:A Crile hemostatic clamp can be used to occlude the mesentery artery during a colectomy.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

  Question 72. What will the CST (certified surgical technologist) have ready for the surgeon while the surgical assistant is retracting the surgical wound?

  • correct1.

    Yankauer suction

  • incorrect2.

    Irrigation

  • 3. Self-retaining retractor

  • 4. Laparotomy sponges

  Rationales

  • Option 1:The CST will have a Yankauer suction tip ready to evacuate blood from the surgical site to provide adequate visualization for the surgeon.

  • Option 2:Irrigation of the wound can be achieved with normal saline and is done after hemostasis is performed.

  • Option 3:The surgeon will request a self-retaining retractor once the surgical site is reached and explored.

  • Option 4:Laparotomy sponges are used for abdominal procedures, such as pancreatectomy of surgeries involving the liver, large intestine, or small intestine.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

  Question 73. The outermost layer of tissue that connects the kidneys to their surrounding structures is known as the:

  • 1. Renal column

  • correct2.

    Renal fascia

  • incorrect3.

    Minor calyx

  • 4. Renal capsule

  Rationales

  • Option 1:The renal column is an extension of the renal cortex.

  • Option 2:Renal fascia is a fibrous membrane that holds the kidneys in place.

  • Option 3:The minor calyx (minor calyces) encircle the renal pyramids.

  • Option 4:The renal capsule is the cuplike extension of the renal pelvis.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Basic Science

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

  Question 74. The following medication is an antibiotic:

  • correct1.

    Keflex

  • 2. Propofol

  • incorrect3.

    Pitocin

  • 4. Marcaine

  Rationales

  • Option 1:Keflex is the trade name for cephalexin, which inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis.

  • Option 2:Propofol is used for general anesthesia.

  • Option 3:Pitocin, also known as oxytocin, stimulates uterine contractions.

  • Option 4:Marcaine is a local anesthetic.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Basic Science

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Surgical Pharmacology

  Question 75. For which surgical procedure would you not be required to have bone wax available?

  • correct1.

    Femoropopliteal bypass

  • incorrect2.

    Laminectomy

  • 3. Craniotomy

  • 4. Total knee replacement

  Rationales

  • Option 1:A femoropopliteal bypass is a soft tissue surgical procedure and does not use bone wax for hemostasis. 

  • Option 2:Involves surgery on the vertebrae.

  • Option 3:Involves surgery on the skull.

  • Option 4:Involves surgery on the knee joint.

  • Question Type: MCSS

  • |

  • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

  • |

  • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

  • Question 76. Draping the Mayo stand, putting blades on knife handles, and gowning and gloving the surgeon are all responsibilities of the:

    • correct1.

      Surgical technologist

    • 2. Circulator

    • 3. Circulator and surgical technologist

    • 4. Surgeon’s assistant

    Rationales

    • Option 1:These are all responsibilities of the surgical technologist.

    • Option 2:The circulator is not a sterile member of the team and cannot handle sterile items.

    • Option 3:Only the circulator is a nonsterile member of the team. The circulator may not handle sterile items other than aseptically presenting them to the surgical technologist to accept for the sterile field.

    • Option 4:The surgeon’s assistant assists the surgeon during the procedure and does not provide sterile supplies to create a sterile field.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

    Question 77. The ______ is the most used donor site for bone grafting.

    • 1. Scapula

    • incorrect2.

      Clavicle

    • 3. Costal cartilage

    • correct4.

      Iliac crest

    Rationales

    • Option 1:Not an optimal donor site for bone grafting because of size and location.

    • Option 2:Not an optimal donor site for bone grafting because of size and location.

    • Option 3:Cartilage is not used for bone grafting.

    • Option 4:The iliac crest is the optimal source for obtaining autogenous cancellous and cortical bone.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Basic Science

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

    Question 78. Which of the following means excessive or above?

    • 1. Hypo-

    • incorrect2.

      Supra-

    • correct3.

      Hyper-

    • 4. Histo-

    Rationales

    • Option 1:Means less than, below, or under

    • Option 2:Means above or on top

    • Option 3:Means excessive or above

    • Option 4:Means tissue

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Basic Science

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

    Question 79. Which of the following viruses causes genital herpes?

    • correct1.

      HSV-II

    • 2. VZV

    • 3. EBV

    • incorrect4.

      HSV-1

    Rationales

    • Option 1:HSV type II (HSV II) causes genital herpes.

    • Option 2:VZV (varicella zoster virus) causes chicken pox and shingles.

    • Option 3:EBV is the Epstein-Barr virus and is a member of the herpes virus family and can cause mononucleosis.

    • Option 4:Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV I) causes oral herpes.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Basic Science

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Microbiology

    Question 80. Eight (8) is what percent of 20?

    • correct1.

      40%

    • 2. 20%

    • 3. 75%

    • incorrect4.

      25%

    Rationales

    • Option 1:To convert a fraction to a percentage, convert the denominator to 100 by multiplying the denominator, 20, by 5. Then, multiply the numerator, 8, by the same number, 5, which gives the product 40. The resulting fraction is 40/100, which is equivalent to 40%.

    • Option 2:To convert a fraction to a percentage, convert the denominator to 100 by multiplying the denominator, 20, by 5. Then, multiply the numerator, 8, by the same number, 5, which gives the product 40. The resulting fraction is 40/100, which is equivalent to 40%.

    • Option 3:To convert a fraction to a percentage, convert the denominator to 100 by multiplying the denominator, 20, by 5. Then, multiply the numerator, 8, by the same number, 5, which gives the product 40. The resulting fraction is 40/100, which is equivalent to 40%.

    • Option 4:To convert a fraction to a percentage, convert the denominator to 100 by multiplying the denominator, 20, by 5. Then, multiply the numerator, 8, by the same number, 5, which gives the product 40. The resulting fraction is 40/100, which is equivalent to 40%.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Basic Science

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Surgical Pharmacology

    Question 81. ______________ is a vasoconstrictor that can be mixed with local anesthetic to provide hemostasis.

    • incorrect1.

      Thrombin

    • correct2.

      Epinephrine

    • 3. Avitene

    • 4. Gelfoam

    Rationales

    • Option 1:Thrombin is an enzyme that promotes blood clotting and is often used for hemostasis.

    • Option 2:Epinephrine is a vasoconstricting medication that can be combined with other medications, such as Marcaine, to provide localized bleeding control.

    • Option 3:Avitene is a topical anesthetic that comes in the form of a pad.

    • Option 4:Gelfoam is a topical anesthetic that can be used in pad form or gelatin granules.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

    Question 82. What is the advantage of using ethylene oxide gas sterilization?

    • 1. It is the safest method of sterilization.

    • 2. It has the shortest total cycle time.

    • 3. It is the least expensive method.

    • correct4.

      It is safe for heat- and moisture-sensitive items.

    Rationales

    • Option 1:Real potential risks to personnel, patient, and the environment.

    • Option 2:The process is long and can take up to 16 hours for items to be “aerated” out.

    • Option 3:It is very expensive to operate.

    • Option 4:Items that are sensitive to steam sterilization. It is also less damaging to sensitive plastic and rubber materials.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Ancillary Duties

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Equipment Sterilization and Maintenance

    Question 83. The needle used to instill CO2 gas into the abdomen is:

    • 1. Spinal needle

    • correct2.

      Verres needle

    • 3. Free needle

    • 4. Blunt needle

    Rationales

    • Option 1:A spinal needle refers to a needle used for a lumbar puncture to extract cerebrospinal fluid from the spine.

    • Option 2:The Verres needle is used for insufflation of carbon dioxide to establish a pneumoperitoneum.

    • Option 3:A free needle is one that is not attached to a suture.

    • Option 4:A blunt needle is used on the liver or kidney.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

    Question 84. A temporary circulation route that exists only between a developing baby and its mother is called:

    • 1. Hepatic circulation

    • correct2.

      Fetal circulation

    • 3. Pulmonary circulation

    • 4. Maternal circulation

    Rationales

    • Option 1:Hepatic circulation delivers blood to the liver and subsequently drains into the hepatic veins.

    • Option 2:Fetal circulation is the circulatory system of the fetus, including the placenta and special blood vessels involved in the exchange of materials between the fetus and the mother.

    • Option 3:Pulmonary circulation is the flow of blood from the heart to the lungs.

    • Option 4:Maternal circulation refers to the mother’s cardiovascular system.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Basic Science

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

    Question 85. During a gastrostomy, a Malecot or Pezzar catheter is secured using what type of suture technique?

    • correct1.

      Purse string

    • 2. Retention

    • incorrect3.

      Traction

    • 4. Stick-tie

    Rationales

    • Option 1:The purse string suture is placed in a circular fashion around a structure and functions like a drawstring to close an opening.

    • Option 2:Retention sutures are placed laterally to a primary suture line for wound reinforcement.

    • Option 3:Traction sutures are used to retract a structure.

    • Option 4:A stick-tie is a suture ligature used for superficial bleeders and deeper vessels.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

    Question 86. The brand name for mepivacaine is:

    • correct1.

      Carbocaine

    • incorrect2.

      Marcaine

    • 3. Sensorcaine

    • 4. Xylocaine

    Rationales

    • Option 1:Brand names for mepivacaine include Carbocaine and Isocaine.

    • Option 2:Marcaine is the brand name for bupivacaine.

    • Option 3:Sensorcaine is another brand name for bupivacaine.

    • Option 4:Xylocaine is the brand name for lidocaine.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Basic Science

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Surgical Pharmacology

    Question 87. ___________ is administered to the patient to treat malignant hyperthermia.

    • 1. Diazepam

    • 2. Dopamine

    • correct3.

      Dantrolene

    • 4. Diprivan

    Rationales

    • Option 1:Diazepam is a medication used to treat anxiety and seizures.

    • Option 2:Dopamine is used in the treatment of psychiatric disorders and diseases such as Parkinson disease.

    • Option 3:Dantrolene is a direct-acting muscle relaxant and is used to treat malignant hyperthermia.

    • Option 4:Diprivan, also known as propofol, causes relaxation and sleepiness.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Basic Science

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Surgical Pharmacology

    Question 88. A ________ wound is an uninfected surgical wound not involving the alimentary, genital, or urinary tracts.

    • correct1.

      Clean

    • incorrect2.

      Contaminated

    • 3. Dirty

    • 4. Inflammation

    Rationales

    • Option 1:A clean wound has no break in surgical technique or involves the alimentary, genital, or urinary tracts.

    • Option 2:A contaminated would had had a major break in sterile technique.

    • Option 3:A dirty wound is more than 4 hours old, was contaminated prior to surgery, or has perforated viscera.

    • Option 4:Inflammation is the body’s immune response to injury.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

    Question 89. Which of the following steps can the certified surgical technologist (CST) take to prevent bone damage when the surgeon is working with a power saw on bone?

    • 1. llumination

    • 2. Retraction

    • correct3.

      Irrigation

    • incorrect4.

      Suction

    Rationales

    • Option 1:Proper lighting will be set prior to the beginning of surgery, giving the surgeon a clear view of the surgical site.

    • Option 2:The CST will help the surgeon by holding retraction.

    • Option 3:During orthopedic surgery (e.g., knee replacement), the CST can assist by irrigating bony areas while the surgeon is working with a power saw.

    • Option 4:Suction is an integral part of most surgeries, including orthopedic cases, and will be applied as needed by the CST.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

    Question 90. Who is responsible for identifying the surgical patient?

    • 1. Surgeon

    • 2. Anesthesiologist

    • 3. Circulator

    • correct4.

      The entire team

    Rationales

    • Option 1:The surgeon is the MD performing the procedure.

    • Option 2:The anesthesiologist will administer medications used for anesthesia and monitor the patient’s airway and vital signs intraoperatively.

    • Option 3:The circulator is the nonsterile team member who will assist the surgeon and surgical technologist during the case.

    • Option 4:Every member of the operative team, sterile and nonsterile, is responsible for identifying the surgical patient.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

    Question 91. Gastric banding is a surgical procedure used for:

    • 1. Gastric cancer

    • correct2.

      Morbid obesity

    • incorrect3.

      Gastric bypass

    • 4. Gastric biopsy

    Rationales

    • Option 1:Gastric cancer is treated by gastrectomy, surgical removal of the stomach.

    • Option 2:Gastric banding treats morbid obesity by altering the capacity of the stomach to effect weight loss.

    • Option 3:Gastric bypass is a surgical procedure for obesity that bypasses parts of the digestive system by surgical intervention.

    • Option 4:Gastric biopsy is the removal of tissue for closer examination.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

    Question 92. A patient who is having kidney surgery is placed in a _______ position.

    • 1. Lithotomy

    • incorrect2.

      Kraske

    • correct3.

      Lateral

    • 4. Prone

    Rationales

    • Option 1:The lithotomy position places the patient supine with the legs and feet in stirrups

    • Option 2:Kraske is another name for the jackknife position.

    • Option 3:A patient who is having kidney surgery is placed in the lateral position with the nonoperative side down.

    • Option 4:Prone is face down.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

    Question 93. Which of the following means tumor?

    • correct1.

      -oma

    • 2. -osis

    • 3. -itis

    • 4. -oid

    Rationales

    • Option 1:The suffix “-oma” means denoting tumors or other abnormal tissue 

    • Option 2:The suffix “-osis” means condition, process, or abnormal increase.

    • Option 3:The suffix “-itis” means inflammation of.

    • Option 4:The suffix “-oid” means form or shape.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Basic Science

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

    Question 94. Who is responsible for determining the correct surgical site during the preoperative phase?

    • 1. The anesthesiologist

    • 2. The surgeon

    • 3. The surgical technologist

    • correct4.

      The entire surgical team

    Rationales

    • Option 1:Is primarily responsible for maintaining the airway. 

    • Option 2:Is primarily responsible for the surgical procedure.

    • Option 3:Is primarily responsible for maintaining the sterile field.

    • Option 4:The entire surgical team is responsible for determining the correct site; this process occurs right before the incision and is called a “timeout.”

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

    Question 95. Which of the following methods can destroy spores?

    • 1. Heat

    • 2. Drying

    • incorrect3.

      Chemicals

    • correct4.

      Steam sterilization

    Rationales

    • Option 1:Steam sterilization is the only method known to destroy spores.

    • Option 2:Steam sterilization is the only method known to destroy spores.

    • Option 3:Steam sterilization is the only method known to destroy spores.

    • Option 4:Steam sterilization is the only method known to destroy spores.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Basic Science

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Microbiology

    Question 96. Neurosurgical sponges are also known as:

    • 1. Peanuts

    • 2. Kitners

    • correct3.

      Patties

    • 4. Raytecs

    Rationales

    • Option 1:Peanuts are small gauze sponges used for blunt dissection or fluid absorption.

    • Option 2:Kitners are dissecting sponges used for blunt dissection.

    • Option 3:Neurology sponges are often referred to as patties or cottonoids. They are used to protect delicate tissue and assist with hemostasis.

    • Option 4:Raytecs are 4 × 4 sponges used for most procedures for superficial hemostasis.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

    Question 97. Which of the following procedures will be done to treat a female patient suffering with stress incontinence due to pregnancy or menopause?

    • 1. Nephrectomy

    • 2. Hysterectomy

    • 3. Oophorectomy

    • correct4.

      Marshall-Marchetti-Krantz (MMK)

    Rationales

    • Option 1:Nephrectomy is surgical excision of the kidney.

    • Option 2:Hysterectomy is removal of the uterus and its associated structures.

    • Option 3:Oophorectomy involves removing one or both ovaries.

    • Option 4:MMK, or bladder suspension, is the procedure done for patients suffering with stress incontinence postmenopause or pregnancy.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

    Question 98. The liquid portion of a cell is called:

    • incorrect1.

      Membrane

    • correct2.

      Cytoplasm

    • 3. Nucleus

    • 4. Chromatin

    Rationales

    • Option 1:The membrane forms the outer boundary of the cell.

    • Option 2:Cytoplasm is the semifluid substance inside the cell membrane. Chromatin is genetic material, mostly DNA. The nucleolus is in the nucleus, and it stores and synthesizes RNA. The membrane forms the outer boundary of the cell.

    • Option 3:The nucleolus is in the nucleus, and it stores and synthesizes RNA.

    • Option 4:Chromatin is genetic material, mostly DNA.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Basic Science

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Microbiology

    Question 99. The certified surgical technologist (CST) must keep track of blood loss, along with:

    • 1. Weight of bloody sponges

    • correct2.

      Irrigation

    • incorrect3.

      Measurement of collected fluid

    • 4. Blood replacement

    Rationales

    • Option 1:The circulating nurse will assess the weight of bloody sponges and record it into the medical record.

    • Option 2:In addition to blood loss, the CST must monitor and record irrigation usage for the case.

    • Option 3:The circulating nurse will monitor measurement of any fluid collected during the case.

    • Option 4:Blood replacement is the responsibility of the circulator.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

    Question 100. Which of the following retractors should the certified surgical technologist (CST) have ready to expose the common bile duct during an open cholecystectomy?

    • correct1.

      Deaver

    • incorrect2.

      Army-Navy

    • 3. Bookwalter

    • 4. Richardson

    Rationales

    • Option 1:The Deaver is a manual retractor the surgeon will need to expose the common bile duct during an open cholecystectomy.

    • Option 2:The Army-Navy is a basic handheld retractor used in a variety of surgeries, including hernia repairs and orthopedic cases.

    • Option 3:Bookwalter is a self-retaining retractor used in major abdominal cases.

    • Option 4:Richardson retractors are manual instruments often used for liver and bowel manipulation.

    • Question Type: MCSS

    • |

    • Exam Section: Perioperative Care

    • |

    • Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 101. Where in the operating room is the anesthesia machine set up in relation to the operating room table and the patient?

• 1. Foot

• correct2.

  Head

• 3. Side

• 4. Corner

Rationales

• Option 1:Placing anesthesia equipment at the foot of the operating room table would conflict with the STSR and circulating nurse’s roles.

• Option 2:The anesthesia machine is placed at the head of the patient, giving the anesthesiologist access to the patient’s airway during a procedure.

• Option 3:Placing equipment on either side of the table would limit the movement of the surgeon and the surgical first assist.

• Option 4:Setting anesthesia equipment in corners would hamper the circulating nurse and prevent visualization of the patient’s airway.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

Question 102. The vertical partition that divides the nose into right and left nasal cavities is the:

• incorrect1.

  Nasal sinus

• 2. Alar cartilage

• 3. Nares

• correct4.

  Nasal septum

Rationales

• Option 1:The nasal sinus is a cavity that lightens the skull and acts as resonating chambers for the voice.

• Option 2:Alar cartilage for a portion of the walls of the nostrils.

• Option 3:Nares are the nostrils, the openings on the undersurface of the nose.

• Option 4:The vertical partition that divides the nose into right and left nasal cavities is the nasal septum.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 103. Which dressing is used on a wound with primary closure and has little or no drainage?

• correct1.

  One-layer dressing

• 2. Packing

• 3. Three-layer dressing

• 4. Stockinette

Rationales

• Option 1:A one-layer dressing is used on a wound that has been primarily closed and from which little or no drainage is expected.

• Option 2:Packing is gauze for a contaminated wound that is left open.

• Option 3:A three-layer dressing is used on a wound that has been primarily closed from which moderate to heavy drainage is expected.

• Option 4:A stockinette is an outer layer only.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Postoperative Procedures

Question 104. Which particles are not found in the nucleus of an atom?

• 1. Neutrons

• 2. Protons

• correct3.

  Electrons

• incorrect4.

  Nucleoli

Rationales

• Option 1:Neutrons are uncharged particles in the nucleus.

• Option 2:Protons are positively charged particles in the nucleus of an atom.

• Option 3:Neutrons are uncharged particles in the nucleus; protons are positively charged particles in the nucleus of an atom; electrons are negatively charged particles that move around the nucleus. Each nucleus has one or more nucleoli which are sites for the assembly of ribosomes

• Option 4:Each nucleus has one or more nucleoli which are sites for the assembly of ribosomes.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Microbiology

Question 105. Which of the following means lungs?

• correct1.

  Pneum/o

• 2. Gloss/o

• 3. Pleur/o

• 4. Plur/i

Rationales

• Option 1:“Pneum/o” means air or lungs.

• Option 2:“Gloss/o” means tongue.

• Option 3:“Pleur/o” means pleura (serous membrane that enfolds both lungs), side, or rib.

• Option 4:“Plur/i” means several or more.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 106. What statement is not true regarding immediate-use steam sterilization?

• incorrect1.

  Unwrapped instruments are exposed for a minimum of 3 minutes.

• correct2.

  Immediate-use steam sterilization can be used for implants.

• 3. Instruments must be unwrapped when using immediate-use steam sterilization.

• 4. Immediate-use steam sterilization can be carried out in a prevacuum sterilizer.

Rationales

• Option 1:This is true.

• Option 2:This is false; immediate-use steam sterilization cannot be used for implants.

• Option 3:This is true.

• Option 4:This is true.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Ancillary Duties

• |

• Exam Subsection: Equipment Sterilization and Maintenance

Question 107. Which of the following is not a characteristic of contrast media?

• correct1.

  Absorbed by abnormal cells

• incorrect2.

  Appears radiopaque on x-ray

• 3. Can be injected into the circulatory system

• 4. Can be instilled into a body cavity

Rationales

• Option 1:Contrast media is a foreign substance used in radiology to provide a difference in density so that the tissue or organ can be better visualized. Most media are hypertonic, viscous solutions, with high sodium and iodine content. Radiopaque means not penetrable by x-ray. Contrast solutions are injected into arteries or veins.

• Option 2:Contrast media is radiopaque, meaning not penetrable by x-ray.

• Option 3:Contrast media can be injected into the circulatory system for better visualization of veins and arteries with CT, MRI, and other radiographic diagnostic testing.

• Option 4:Contrast media can be instilled into a body cavity for better visualization with CT, MRI, and other radiographic diagnostic testing.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Surgical Pharmacology

Question 108. Once a hole has been drilled, the _________ is used to pre-place threads within the hole to aid in the insertion of the screw.

• correct1.

  Tap

• incorrect2.

  Drill bit

• 3. Depth gauge

• 4. Osteotome

Rationales

• Option 1:The tap is an instrument for cutting a screw thread inside a drill hole in a bone.

• Option 2:A drill bit is the part of the drill that bores into bone.

• Option 3:Depth gauge measures the depth of grooves or holes.

• Option 4:An osteotome is a chisel used for cutting bone.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 109. When performing the surgical scrub, the arms should be scrubbed ________ inches above the elbow.

• incorrect1.

  1

• correct2.

  2

• 3. 4

• 4. 6

Rationales

• Option 1:Scrubbing 1 inch above the elbow would not be enough scrubbed surface area for the correct scrub protocol according to standard.

• Option 2:Scrubbing 2 inches above the elbow is the correct scrub protocol according to standard.

• Option 3:Scrubbing 4 inches above the elbow would interfere with your scrub suit sleeves, thus contaminating your scrub brush.

• Option 4:Scrubbing 6 inches above the elbow would interfere with your scrub suit sleeves, thus contaminating your scrub brush.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

Question 110. What type of retractor is used to retract and protect the recurrent laryngeal nerve during a thyroidectomy?

• 1. Gelpi retractor

• 2. Weitlander retractor

• incorrect3.

  Senn retractor

• correct4.

  Green retractor

Rationales

• Option 1:A Gelpi retractor is a sharp, self-retaining retractor used for spinal cases to allow retraction and visualization of soft spinal tissue.

• Option 2:A Weitlander retractor can be blunt or sharp and comes in all sorts of sizes. It can be used for hernia procedures, femoropopliteal bypass, or AV fistula procedures.

• Option 3:Senn retractors are most commonly used with small incisions such as in a carpal tunnel procedures.

• Option 4:Green “thyroid” retractors are used to retract and protect the recurrent laryngeal nerve during a thyroidectomy. Injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve can cause vocal cord paralysis.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Ancillary Duties

• |

• Exam Subsection: Equipment Sterilization and Maintenance

Question 111. A retractor used in a laminectomy is called:

• correct1.

  Beckman

• 2. Finochietto

• 3. Harrington

• 4. Weitlaner

Rationales

• Option 1:A Beckman is the retractor of choice for a laminectomy.

• Option 2:A Finochietto retractor is used to separate the ribs during thoracic surgery.

• Option 3:Harrington retractor, also known as a “sweetheart” in an abdominal retractor with a heart-shaped head used for liver retraction.

• Option 4:Weitlaner is a small self-retaining retractor used in many general procedures, such as herniorrhaphy.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 112. Laryngoscopes, endotracheal tubes, and respiratory equipment are which classification of patient care items?

• correct1.

  Semi-critical

• incorrect2.

  Noncritical

• 3. Intermediate-level disinfection

• 4. Critical

Rationales

• Option 1:Semi-critical items touch the mucous membrane and non-intact skin; they require cleaning and the use of high-level disinfection.

• Option 2:Noncritical items (thermometers, stethoscopes) touch the skin and require cleaning and the use of intermediate-level or low-level disinfection.

• Option 3:Intermediate-level disinfection is a type of disinfectant that does not kill spores but kills most microorganisms. (bacteria, HBV. M. tuberculosis, fungi and most viruses)

• Option 4:Critical items enter sterile body cavity and the vascular system; therefore, these items such as surgical instruments and implants must be sterilized.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Ancillary Duties

• |

• Exam Subsection: Equipment Sterilization and Maintenance

Question 113. The formation of male gametes is known as:

• correct1.

  Spermatogenesis

• incorrect2.

  Oogenesis

• 3. Androgen

• 4. Anabolism

Rationales

• Option 1:Spermatogenesis is the formation of male gametes.

• Option 2:Oogenesis is the formation of the ovum.

• Option 3:Androgen is a substance that produces or stimulates male characteristics.

• Option 4:Anabolism is the constructive phase of metabolism in which energy is used to synthesize large molecules.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 114. Which of the following sutures will the certified surgical technologist (CST) have ready following a small bowel resection?

• incorrect1.

  2-0 absorbable

• 2. 3-0 absorbable

• 3. 2-0 silk

• correct4.

  #1 nonabsorbable

Rationales

• Option 1:2-0 absorbable sutures are used for general tissue approximation, such as fascia.

• Option 2:3-0 absorbable sutures are used for soft tissue approximation.

• Option 3:Silk is a nonabsorbable suture that can harbor bacteria and will not be used in cases involving the small or large intestine.

• Option 4:In closing abdominal fascia, a strong, nonabsorbable, large #1 suture will be used.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 115. Which of the following supplies would not be necessary for an appendectomy?

• 1. Culture tubes

• incorrect2.

  Penrose drains

• 3. Antibiotic irrigation

• correct4.

  Lubricant

Rationales

• Option 1:Culture tubes would be necessary for an appendectomy.

• Option 2:A Penrose drain would be necessary for an appendectomy.

• Option 3:Antibiotic irrigation would be necessary for an appendectomy.

• Option 4:Lubricant would not be a required supply for this procedure. It would more typically be used for anorectal surgeries such as hemorrhoidectomy.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 116. The self-retaining retractor with sharp or blunt teeth is called a(n):

• correct1.

  Weitlaner

• 2. Balfour

• 3. Bookwalter

• incorrect4.

  Gelpi

Rationales

• Option 1:A Weitlaner is a self-retaining retractor that has both dull and sharp teeth.

• Option 2:Balfour is an abdominal self-retaining retractor that has sharp prongs.

• Option 3:Bookwalter is another self-retaining retractor that is used for general abdominal cases and GYN surgeries. The Bookwalter has dull-shaped prongs.

• Option 4:Gelpi is a self-retaining retractor similar to the Weitlaner, but with single sharp prongs.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 117. An agent that is used to kill and destroy bacteria is called:

• correct1.

  Bactericidal

• 2. Bacteriophilic

• 3. Bacteriostatic

• 4. Bacteriogenic

Rationales

• Option 1:A bactericidal agent is a substance that kills bacteria. Bactericides are chemical substances like disinfectants, antiseptics, or antibiotics.

• Option 2:A bacteriophilic agent does not exist.

• Option 3:Bacteriostatic means inhibiting or retarding bacterial growth.

• Option 4:Bacteriogenic means caused by bacteria or producing bacteria.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Surgical Pharmacology

Question 118. Prior to a total abdominal hysterectomy, which type of catheter might be inserted?

• correct1.

  Foley

• 2. Fogarty

• 3. Malecot

• 4. Pezzer

Rationales

• Option 1:The Foley is a urinary catheter used to monitor urine output intraoperatively and for specimen collection.

• Option 2:The Fogarty catheter is used to remove obstructions.

• Option 3:The Malecot four-wing tip catheter is used for suprapubic bladder drainage.

• Option 4:The Pezzer catheter has a distinctive mushroom-shaped tip and is used for suprapubic bladder drainage.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

Question 119. Where are sharps discarded after surgery?

• incorrect1.

  Blue box

• correct2.

  Red box

• 3. Kick bucket

• 4. Red garbage

Rationales

• Option 1:There are no blue boxes in use in the operating room environment.

• Option 2:Sharps must be placed in containers that are puncture-resistant and can be tightly sealed. They are usually red in color for easy and universal identification.

• Option 3:The kick bucket is lined with a plastic red liner and is used for disposal of soiled sponges.

• Option 4:Red garbage contains biohazardous material and must be disposed of according to hospital policy.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Postoperative Procedures

Question 120. Pediatric patients have little subcutaneous fat; therefore they:

• 1. Have less protection for their organs

• 2. Need more fluids

• incorrect3.

  Need more padding

• correct4.

  Have poor thermal insulation

Rationales

• Option 1:Pediatric patients have adequate protection for their internal organs.

• Option 2:Pediatric patients will need fluid infusion only in cases of dehydration resulting from illness or hypovolemic shock.

• Option 3:Pediatric patients do not require extra padding for bony prominences.

• Option 4:Pediatric patients have little subcutaneous tissue; thus the operating room needs to be on the higher end of the standard temperature range.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

Question 121. Tissue that is possibly cancerous must be prepped gently, using little pressure. This helps to prevent:

• 1. Skin irritation

• incorrect2.

  Pain to the patient

• correct3.

  Seeding

• 4. Skin injury

Rationales

• Option 1:Skin irritation can cause injury to the patient if too much pressure is applied during skin preparation.

• Option 2:Application of skin preparation with too much pressure can cause avoidable pain to the patient.

• Option 3:Gentle manipulation of cancerous tissue is done to prevent the cancer cells from travelling to unaffected areas of the body.

• Option 4:Skin preparation with too much applied pressure can cause skin injury to the patient.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Preoperative Preparation

Question 122. To safely move a patient from the OR (operating room) table to the stretcher, how many people are required?

• incorrect1.

  2

• 2. 3

• correct3.

  4

• 4. 5

Rationales

• Option 1:The anesthesiologist must be at the head of the patient, one person on each side, and a fourth individual by the feet. Using proper body mechanics is essential when lifting patients to prevent injury to the musculoskeletal system. Personnel need to lift in unison and use leg muscles to provide strength.

• Option 2:The anesthesiologist must be at the head of the patient, one person on each side, and a fourth individual by the feet. Using proper body mechanics is essential when lifting patients to prevent injury to the musculoskeletal system. Personnel need to lift in unison and use leg muscles to provide strength.

• Option 3:The anesthesiologist must be at the head of the patient, one person on each side, and a fourth individual by the feet. Using proper body mechanics is essential when lifting patients to prevent injury to the musculoskeletal system. Personnel need to lift in unison and use leg muscles to provide strength.

• Option 4:The anesthesiologist must be at the head of the patient, one person on each side, and a fourth individual by the feet. Using proper body mechanics is essential when lifting patients to prevent injury to the musculoskeletal system. Personnel need to lift in unison and use leg muscles to provide strength.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Postoperative Procedures

Question 123. Which of the following hemostatic agents creates a mechanical barrier to control bleeding and is used in neurosurgery?

• 1. Tannic acid

• 2. Silver nitrate

• 3. CollaStat

• correct4.

  Bone wax

Rationales

• Option 1:Tannic acid is used in cardiovascular surgery as an adherent to extracellular matrices, elastin, and collagens in heart tissues.

• Option 2:Silver nitrate is used to control cervical or nasal bleeding.

• Option 3:CollaStat is a collagen-based, flowable, hemostatic matrix used in thoracic surgery.

• Option 4:Bone wax is used on cut edges of bone as a mechanical barrier to seal off oozing blood.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Surgical Pharmacology

Question 124. The femoral head, femoral neck, and the acetabulum are replaced during which type of procedure?

• incorrect1.

  Total elbow replacement

• 2. Total shoulder replacement

• 3. Total knee replacement

• correct4.

  Total hip replacement

Rationales

• Option 1:Total elbow replacement removes the humerus and ulna.

• Option 2:Total shoulder replacement involves removal of the humeral head.

• Option 3:Knee replacement removes the entire knee and lower part of the femur.

• Option 4:Total hip replacement involves the femoral head, femoral neck, and the acetabulum.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Intraoperative Procedures

Question 125. Which of the following is a postop complication following a thyroidectomy?

• correct1.

  Injury to the recurrent laryngeal nerve

• 2. Bleeding

• incorrect3.

  Postop pain

• 4. Swelling to the operative site

Rationales

• Option 1:Laryngeal nerve injury is a postop complication of thyroid procedures, including thyroidectomy. Should this occur, and emergency tracheostomy may be necessary.

• Option 2:Bleeding is a postop complication in many cases and can be treated in the Post Anesthesia Care Unit (PACU).

• Option 3:Postop pain is controlled with medication and monitored by PACU staff until the patient is discharged.

• Option 4:Swelling and inflammation are the body’s response to injury.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Perioperative Care

• |

• Exam Subsection: Postoperative Procedures

• 
  

Question 126. The hormone responsible for stimulating the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose when blood sugar levels are extremely low is:

• incorrect1.

  Amylase

• 2. Vasopressin

• correct3.

  Glucagon

• 4. Insulin

Rationales

• Option 1:Amylase is a class of enzymes that split or hydrolyze starch.

• Option 2:Vasopressin is a hormone that elevates blood pressure.

• Option 3:Glucagon is the hormone responsible for stimulating the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose when blood sugar levels are extremely low.

• Option 4:Insulin is a hormone secreted by the pancreas that lowers blood glucose levels.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Anatomy and Physiology

Question 127. What should the surgical technologist have ready to pass with an osteotome?

• 1. Bennet

• 2. Rongeur

• correct3.

  Mallet

• 4. Freer elevator

Rationales

• Option 1:A Bennet is a bone retractor most commonly used in total knee and hip replacements.

• Option 2:A rongeur takes bites of bone and is used in orthopedics and spine procedures.

• Option 3:An osteotome is used to cut or prepare bone, and it is used with a mallet. A mallet resembles a hammer and can be tapped on an osteotome to chip away bone.

• Option 4:A Freer elevator is most commonly used to remove plaque from the carotid and debulks periosteum from bones.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Ancillary Duties

• |

• Exam Subsection: Equipment Sterilization and Maintenance

Question 128. Which is not an oral anticoagulant?

• 1. Aspirin

• incorrect2.

  Coumadin

• correct3.

  Streptokinase

• 4. Acetylsalicylic acid

Rationales

• Option 1:Aspirin decreases platelet aggregation.

• Option 2:Coumadin (warfarin) interferes with blood clotting.

• Option 3:Streptokinase is not administered orally.

• Option 4:Acetylsalicylic acid is an NSAID administered orally.

• Question Type: MCSS

• |

• Exam Section: Basic Science

• |

• Exam Subsection: Surgical Pharmacology

Question 129. Which of the following is used to access the peritoneal cavity during a laparoscopic procedure?

• correct1.

  Trocars

• 2. Endoscopic scissors

• 3. Marylands

• 4. #11 blade