Untitled Flashcards Set

Refers to the physical and biological environmental factors of an ecosystem that affect the organisms living there.

1. niche c. tolerance

2. habitat d. competition

Includes the range of physical and biological conditions in which a species can survive and reproduce.

1. niche c.  tolerance

2. habitat d.  competition

Describes the interdependent relationship between two species.

1.  competition c.  symbiosis

2.  tolerance d.  niche

A relationship in which one organism benefits and the other is neither harmed nor helped.

1. competition c.  commensalism

2. parasitic d.  mutualism

A relationship in which one organism benefits and the other is harmed.

1. competition c.  commensalism

2. parasitic d.  mutualism

A relationship in which both species benefit.

1. competition c.  commensalism

2. parasitic d.  mutualism

A bee and a flower.

1. competition c.  commensalism

2. parasitic d.  mutualism

Fleas that live on dogs or cats.

1. competition c.  commensalism

2. parasitic d.  mutualism

A species that plays a vital and unique role in maintaining structure, stability, and diversity in an ecosystem.

1. a flagship species c.  a priority species

2. a keystone species d.  an indicator species

The type of succession that occurs on bare rock, where there are no remnants of an older community

1.  secondary succession c.  quaternary succession

2.  tertiary succession d.  primary succession

The type of succession that occurs when some members of the older community remain

1. secondary succession c. quaternary succession

2. tertiary succession d. primary succession

The final stage of succession, remaining relatively unchanged until destroyed by an event such as fire or human interference.

1. disturbance c.  biodiversity

2. climax community d.  niche community

The total of all genetically-based variation in all organisms in the biosphere.

1. biodiversity c.  species diversity

2. ecosystem diversity d.  genetic diversity

The number and relative abundance of species found in a given biological organization

1. biodiversity c.  species diversity

2. ecosystem diversity d.  genetic diversity

The variety of different habitats, communities and ecological processes.

1. biodiversity c.  species diversity

2. ecosystem diversity d.  genetic diversity

The sum of genetic information contained in the genes of individual plants, animals, and microorganisms.

1. biodiversity c.  species diversity

2. ecosystem diversity d.  genetic diversity

Looking at a cell under a microscope, you note that it is a prokaryote. How do you know?

a. The cell lacks cytoplasm. c. The cell lacks a nucleus.

b. The cell lacks a cell membrane. d. The cell lacks genetic material.

Which of the following is NOT found in the nucleus?

a. mitochondria. c. chromatin

b. nucleolus d. DNA

Which organelle breaks down organelles that are no longer useful?

a. Golgi apparatus c. endoplasmic reticulum

b. lysosome d. mitochondrion

Which organelle converts the chemical energy stored in food into usable energy?

a. chloroplast c. endoplasmic reticulum

b. Golgi apparatus  d. mitochondrion

Which of the following is a function of the cell membrane?

a. breaks down lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins from foods

b. stores water, salt, proteins, and carbohydrates

c. keeps the cell wall in place

d. regulates the movement of materials into and out of the cell

The cell membrane contains channels and pumps that help move materials from one side to the other. What are these channels and pumps made of?

a. carbohydrates  c. bilipids

b. lipids  d. proteins

Diffusion occurs because

a. molecules are attracted to one another.

b. molecules constantly move and collide with each other.

c. cellular energy forces molecules to collide with each other.

d. cellular energy pumps molecules across the cell membrane.

An animal cell that is surrounded by fresh water will burst because the osmotic pressure causes

a. water to move into the cell.   c. solutes to move into the cell.

b. water to move out of the cell.  d. solutes to move out of the cell.

Which means of particle transport requires input of energy from the cell?

a. diffusion  c. facilitated diffusion

b. osmosis  d. active transport

The cells of unicellular organisms are

a. specialized to perform different tasks.

b. larger than those of multicellular organisms

c. able to carry out all of the functions necessary for life.

d. unable to respond to changes in their environment.

Which list represents the levels of organization in a multicellular organism from the simplest level to the most complex level?

a. cell, tissue, organ system, organ

b. organ system, organ, tissue, cell

c. tissue, organ, organ system, cell

d. cell, tissue, organ, organ system

Which of the following is NOT a principle of the cell theory?

a. Cells are the basic units of life.

b. All living things are made of cells.

c. Very few cells are able to reproduce.

d. All cells are produced from existing cells.

Which type of microscope can produce three-dimensional images of a cell’s surface?

a. transmission electron microscope

b. scanning electron microscope

c. simple light microscope

d. compound light microscope

Which of the following is a function of the cytoskeleton?

a. helps a cell keep its shape c. surrounds the cell

b. contains DNA d. helps make proteins

Which structure makes proteins using coded instructions that come from the nucleus?

a. Golgi apparatus c. vacuole

b. mitochondrion d. ribosome

During diffusion, when the concentration of molecules on both sides of a membrane is the same, the molecules will

a. move across the membrane to the outside of the cell.

b. stop moving across the membrane.

c. continue to move across the membrane in both directions.

d. move across the membrane to the inside of the cell.

Which term describes the relatively constant internal physical conditions of an organism?

a. cell specialization c. organ system

b. homeostasis d. unicellularity

What are the three parts of an ATP molecule?

a. adenine, thylakoid, and a phosphate group

b. stroma, grana, and chlorophyll

c. adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups

d. NADH, NADPH, and FADH2

Energy is released from ATP when

a. a phosphate group is added. c. ATP is exposed to sunlight.

b. adenine bonds to ribose. d. a phosphate group is removed.

Organisms, such as plants, that make their own food are called

a. autotrophs. c. thylakoids.

b. heterotrophs. d. pigments.

Which of the following organisms is a heterotroph?

a. mushroom c. wheat

b. algae d. sunflower

Plants get the energy they need for photosynthesis by absorbing

a. high-energy sugars. c. chlorophyll b.

b. chlorophyll a. d. energy from the sun.

Most plants appear green because chlorophyll

a. absorbs green light. c. does not absorb green light.

b. absorbs violet light. d. does not absorb violet light.

Where in the chloroplast is chlorophyll found?

a. in the ATP

b. in the stroma

c. in the thylakoid membrane

d. in the thylakoid space

What is the function of NADP+ in photosynthesis?

a. electron carrier

b. high-energy sugar

c. photosystem

d. pigment

Photosynthesis uses sunlight to convert water and carbon dioxide into

a. oxygen and carbon.

b. high-energy sugars and proteins.

c. ATP and oxygen.

d. oxygen and high-energy sugars.

Where do the light-dependent reactions take place?

a. in the stroma of the chloroplast

b. within the mitochondria membranes

c. within the thylakoid membranes

d. in the outer membrane of the chloroplasts

What are the products of the light-dependent reactions?

a. oxygen gas and glucose

b. ATP, NADPH, and oxygen gas

c. ATP, carbon dioxide gas, and NADPH

d. carbon dioxide gas, oxygen gas, and NADPH

Plants gather the sun’s energy using molecules called

a. pigments.

b. thylakoids.

c. chloroplasts.

d. glucose.

Why are electron carriers needed for transporting electrons from one part of the chloroplast to another?

a. High-energy electrons would be destroyed.

b. High-energy electrons are highly reactive.

c. High-energy electrons are not soluble in cytoplasm.

d. High-energy electrons get their energy from electron carriers.

Which of the following is NOT a stage of cellular respiration?

a. fermentation  c. glycolysis

b. electron transport  d. Krebs cycle

Cellular respiration is called an aerobic process because it requires

a. light.   c. oxygen.

b. exercise. d. glucose.

Photosynthesis is to chloroplasts as cellular respiration is to

a. chloroplasts.   c. mitochondria.

b. cytoplasm.  d. nuclei.

The products of photosynthesis are the

a. products of cellular respiration.

b. reactants of cellular respiration.

c. products of glycolysis.

d. reactants of fermentation.

In eukaryotes, electron transport occurs in the

a. inner mitochondrial membrane.

b. nucleus.

c. cell membrane.

d. cytoplasm.

Cellular respiration uses 1 molecule of glucose to produce approximately

a. 2 ATP molecules.

b. 4 ATP molecules.

c. 32 ATP molecules.

d. 36 ATP molecules.

Lactic acid fermentation occurs in

a. bread dough.

b. any environment containing oxygen.

c. muscle cells.

d. mitochondria.

Breathing heavily after running a race is your body’s way of

a. making more citric acid.  c. restarting glycolysis.

b. repaying an oxygen debt.   d. stopping the electron transport chain.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration?

a. glycolysis → fermentation → Krebs cycle

b. Krebs cycle → electron transport → glycolysis

c. glycolysis → Krebs cycle → electron transport

d. Krebs cycle → glycolysis → electron transport

Which process does NOT release energy from glucose?

a. glycolysis c. fermentation

b. photosynthesis d. cellular respiration

The air bubbles and spongy texture of bread are due to which process?

a. lactic acid fermentation c. alcoholic fermentation

b. glycolysis d. the Krebs cycle

All of the following are sources of energy for humans during exercise EXCEPT

a. stored ATP. c. lactic acid fermentation.

b. alcoholic fermentation. d. cellular respiration.

An advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that sexual reproduction

a. takes less time. c. provides genetic diversity.

b. requires more time. d. produces identical offspring.

When during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?

a. only during interphase

b. only when replicating

c. only during cell division

d. only during the G1 phase

During normal mitotic cell division, a parent cell that has four chromosomes will

produce two daughter cells, each containing

a. two chromosomes. c.  eight chromosomes

b. four chromosomes. d.  sixteen chromosomes

When cells are grown in a laboratory, which factor can stop normal cells from dividing?

a. contact with other cells c. a cut in the skin

b. growth factors d. injection of cyclin

Cells grown in a petri dish tend to divide until they form a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish. If cells are removed from the middle of the dish, the cells divide until they fill the empty space. What does this experiment show?

a. Cell division is a completely random process.

b. Once cells divide, they can never divide again.

c. The controls on cell growth and division can be turned on and off.

d. There is only a limited amount of DNA available to a given group of cells.

During early development, all cells in the embryo of a multicellular organism are identical. Later in development, the cells become specialized through a process called

a. apoptosis. c. differentiation.

b. cytokinesis. d. interphase.

The rate at which wastes are produced by a cell partially depends on the cell’s

a. ratio of surface area to volume. c. volume.

b. type of membrane. d. surface area.

When during the cell cycle is a cell’s DNA replicated?

a. G₁ phase c. S phase

b. G₂ phase d. M phase

Compared to small cells, large cells have more trouble

a. dividing.

b. producing daughter cells.

c. storing needed materials and waste products.

d. moving needed materials in and waste products out.

Which of the following happens when a cell divides?

a. The cell’s volume increases.

b. It becomes more difficult for the cell to get rid of wastes.

c. Each daughter cell receives its own copy of the parent cell’s DNA.

d. It becomes more difficult for the cell to get enough oxygen and nutrients.

If a pea plant’s alleles for height are tt, what is true of its parents?

a. Both parents were tall.

b. Both parents were short.

c. Both parents contributed a recessive allele.

d. Both parents contributed a dominant allele.

When one allele is not completely dominant over another, this is an example of

a. multiple alleles. c. polygenic inheritance.

b. incomplete dominance. d. multiple genes.

A cross of a black chicken (BB) with a white chicken (WW) produces all speckled offspring (BW). This type of inheritance is known as

a. incomplete dominance. c. codominance.

b. polygenic inheritance. d. multiple alleles.

Variation in human skin color is an example of

a. incomplete dominance. c. polygenic traits.

b. codominance. d. multiple alleles.

Which of the following shows that the environment can affect genetic traits?

a. Oak trees get taller as they grow.

b. Hydrangea flower color varies with soil pH.

c. Dandelion plants are self-pollinating.

d. Pinon trees bear cones every other year.

Gametes have

a. homologous chromosomes.

b. twice the number of chromosomes found in body cells.

c. two sets of chromosomes.

d. one allele for each gene.

A mule is the result of a cross between a donkey and a horse. A mule is a

a. tetrad. c. genotype.

b. phenotype. d. hybrid.

A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (tt). If the tall F1 pea plants are allowed to self-pollinate,

a. the offspring will be of medium height.

b. all of the offspring will be tall.

c. all of the offspring will be short.

d. the offspring can be tall or short.

The principles of probability can be used to

a. predict the traits of the offspring of genetic crosses.

b. determine the actual outcomes of genetic crosses.

c. determine which species should be used in genetic crosses.

d. decide which organisms are best to use in genetic crosses.

A heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with a short plant. The probability that an F1 plant will be tall is

a. 25%. c. 75%.

b. 50%. d. 100%.

Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be

a. hybrid. c. heterozygous.

b. homozygous. d. dominant.

What principle states that during gamete formation genes for different traits separate without influencing each other’s inheritance?

a. principle of dominance

b. principle of independent assortment

c. principle of probabilities

d. principle of segregation

If an organism’s diploid number is 12, its haploid number is

a. 12. c. 24.

b. 6. d. 3.

Gametes are produced by the process of

a. mitosis. c. crossing-over.

b. meiosis. d. replication.

What do bacteriophages infect?

a. mice. c. viruses.

b. humans. d. bacteria.

What did Avery conclude caused transformation?

a. DNA was the transforming factor.

b. A protein was the transforming factor.

c. A carbohydrate was the transforming factor.

d. A lipid was the transforming factor.

Because of base pairing in DNA, the percentage of

a. adenine molecules in DNA are about equal to the percentage of guanine  molecules.

b. thymine molecules in DNA are about equal to the percentage of adenine  molecules

c. adenine molecules in DNA are much greater than the percentage of thymine molecules.

d. cytosine molecules in DNA are much greater than the percentage of guanine molecules.

What structural problem prevents adenine from pairing with guanine?

a. The bases are both short. c. They lack the deoxyribose group.

b. They lack phosphate groups. d. The bases are both long.

What would Hershey and Chase have concluded if both radioactive ³²P and ³⁵S were found in the bacteria in their experiment?

a. The virus’s protein coat was not injected into the bacteria.

b. The virus’s DNA was not injected into the bacteria.

c. Genes are made of protein and carbohydrates.

d. Both the virus’s protein coat and its DNA were injected into the bacteria.

Which scientist made x-ray diffraction photos of DNA?

a. Franklin c. Crick

b. Chargaff d. Avery

DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,

a. each with two new strands.

b. one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.

c. each with one new strand and one original strand.

d. each with two original strands.

In eukaryotes, DNA

a. is located in the nucleus. c. is located in the ribosomes.

b. floats freely in the cytoplasm. d. is circular.

What binds to the prokaryotic chromosome to start DNA replication?

a. replication forks c. chromatids

b. regulatory proteins d. telomeres

Why did Hershey and Chase label the viral DNA with radioactive phosphorus and not radioactive sulfur?

a. DNA contains phosphorus and no sulfur.

b. Proteins contain phosphorus and no sulfur.

c. DNA contains sulfur and little phosphorus.

d. Proteins contain sulfur and little phosphorus.

What happened when Griffith injected mice with the harmless, R-strain bacteria alone?

a. The bacteria transformed. c. The mouse died.

b. The mouse lived. d. The bacteria died.

What did Griffith observe when he injected a mixture of heat-killed, disease-causing bacteria and live harmless bacteria into mice?

a. The disease-causing bacteria dies.

b. The mice developed pneumonia.

c. The harmless bacteria died.

d. The mice were unaffected.

What happens when a piece of DNA is missing?

a. Genetic information is stored.

b. Genetic information is copied.

c. Genetic information is lost.

d. Genetic information is transmitted.

Which of the following could make up one nucleotide found in DNA?

a. adenine + phosphate group + thymine

b. cytosine + phosphate group + guanine

c. deoxyribose + phosphate group + polymerase

d. deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine

Based on Chargaff’s rule, if the percentage of cytosine is 21.5% in chicken DNA, the percentage of guanine bases in chicken DNA should be around

a. 28.8% b. 19.9% c. 21.5% d. 13.4%

During DNA replication, a DNA strand that has the bases CTAGGT produces a strand with the bases

a. TCGAAC. c. AGCTTG.

b. GATCCA. d. GAUCCA.

Which of the following are found in both DNA and RNA?

a. ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine

b. deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and guanine

c. phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine

d. phosphate groups, guanine, and thymine

What is produced during transcription?

a. RNA molecules c. RNA polymerase

b. DNA molecules d. proteins

During eukaryotic transcription, the molecule that is formed is

a. complementary to both strands of DNA.

b. identical to an entire single strand of DNA.

c. double-stranded and inside the nucleus.

d. complementary to part of one strand of DNA.

There are 64 codons and 20 amino acids. Which of the following is true?

a. Several different codons can specify the same amino acid.

b. Each codon specifies a different amino acid.

c. Some amino acids have no link to a codon.

d. Each amino acid is specified by only one codon.

A promoter is a

a. binding site for DNA polymerase.

b. binding site for RNA polymerase.

c. start signal for replication.

d. stop signal for transcription.

During translation, the type of amino acid that is added to the growing polypeptide depends on the

a. codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the rRNA.

b. anticodon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA.

c. anticodon on the rRNA and the codon on the mRNA.

d. codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA.

In eukaryotes

a. Transcription takes place in the cytoplasm, and translation takes place in the nucleus.

b. Transcription takes place in the nucleus, and translation takes place in the cytoplasm.

c. Transcription and translation both take place in the nucleus.

d. Transcription and translation both take place in the cytoplasm.

Which of the following is the name of a type of chromosomal mutation AND a type of gene mutation?

a. substitution c. deletion

b. insertion d. inversion

What are some characteristics of polyploidy plants?

a. They tend to be weaker and smaller than diploid plants.

b. They tend to be bigger and stronger than diploid plants.

c. They tend to be weaker, but bigger than diploid plants.

d. They tend to be smaller, but stronger than diploid plants.

A lac repressor turns OFF the lac genes by

a. binding to the promoter. c. binding to the operator.

b. DNA polymerase. d. binding to the lac genes.

What regulates the expression of most eukaryotic genes?

a. miRNA c. dicer enzymes

b. transcription factors d. silencing complexes

Hox genes

a. determine when bacteria replicate their chromosomes.

b. determine where the flagellum is on a bacterium.

c. determine when a dog’s cells replicate their DNA.

d. determine the location of a dog’s ears.

Which type of RNA brings the information in the genetic code from the nucleus to other parts of the cell?

a. rRNA c. mRNA

b. tRNA d. RNA polymerase

From which molecules are mRNA molecules transcribed?

a. tRNA c. DNA

b. rRNA d. proteins

How many nucleotides are needed to specify three amino acids?

a. 3 c. 9

b. 6 d. 12

Which is the correct sequence of the transfer of information in most organisms?

a. protein to DNA to RNA c. DNA to RNA to protein

b. RNA to DNA to protein d. RNA to protein to DNA