10-29-25 Taylor Series Part 2
Definition 4. Taylor and Maclaurin Series for a function
If f has derivatives of all orders at x = a, then we say the Taylor series of about x = a is
\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {f^{(n)}(a)}{n!}(x-a)^n
When a=0 this is called the Maclaurin series for f.
Find the Maclaurin series for f(x), assuming that f(x) has a power series expansion
f(x) = \int_0^x e^{4t} dt
Step 1: Recall the Maclaurin series for e^{4t}
e^u = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {u^n}{n!}
e^{4t} = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {(4t)^n}{n!}
\Rightarrow \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {4^nt^n}{n!}
Step 2: Integrate term-by-term from 0 to x
f(x) = \int_0^x e^{4t} dt = \int_0^x \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {4^nt^n}{n!}dt
Since the power series converges everywhere, we can integrate term by term.
f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {4^n}{n!} \int_0^x t^n dt
\int_0^x t^n dt = \frac {x^{n+1}}{n+1}
f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {4^nx^{n+1}}{(n+1)n!}
Step 3: Simplify the factorial expression
(n+1)n! = (n+1)!
\Rightarrow f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {4^nx^{x+1}}{(n+1)!}
Example 50. Fin the Maclaurin series for f(x) = \sin x and find its radius of convergence.
Solution: Since \sin x has derivatives of all orders, it has a Maclaurin series.
\sin x = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {f^{(n)} (0)}{n!}(x-0)^n
f(x) = \sin x f(0) = 0
f’(x) = \cos x f^{\prime}(0)= 1
f’’(x) = -\sin x f^{\prime\prime}(0) = 0
f’’’(x) = -\cos x f^{\prime\prime\prime} (0) = -1
The cycle now repeats itself.
f^{(4)} (x) = \sin x \Rightarrow f^{(4)} (0) = 0
f^{(5)} (x) = \cos x \Rightarrow f^{(5)} (0) = 1
\sin x = f(0) + \frac {f^\prime (0)}{1!} x+ \frac {f^{\prime\prime} (0)}{2!} x²+ \frac {f^{\prime\prime\prime} (0)}{3!} x³ + \frac {f^{(4)}(0)}{4!} x^4 + …
= 0 + \frac x{1!} - \frac {0x²}{2!} - \frac {1x³}{3!} + \frac {0x^4}{4!}
=x - \frac {x³}{3!} + \frac {x^5}{5!} - \frac {x^7}{7!} + …
= \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac {(-1)^n x^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}
This is an alternating series. The terms have odd powers of x and odd factorials. Conveniently, sin x is an odd function.
We will use the ratio test to find the radius of convergence.
\lim_{n\to\infty} |\frac {a_{n+1}}{a_n}| =\lim_{n\to\infty} |\frac {\frac {(-1)^{n+1}x^{2(n+1)+1}} {(2(n+1) +1)!} } {\frac {(-1)^{n}x^{2n+1}} {(2n+1)!}}|
= \lim_{n\to\infty} |\frac {(-1)^{n+1}x^{2(n+1)+1}}{(-1)^nx^{2n+1}} \cdot \frac {(2n+1)!}{(2(n+1)+1)!}|
=x² \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac {1}{(2n+2)(2n+3)}
=0
The power series converges for every x. The radius of convergence is \infty and the interval of convergence is (-\infty, \infty). In the next section we will show that \sin x equals its Maclaurin series.
Example 51. Find the Maclaurin series for f(x) = \cos x. (Hint: Differentiate the series generated for f(x) = \sin x in example 4.)
Solution:
\cos x = \frac d{dx} \sin x = \frac d{dx} (x - \frac {x³}{3!} + \frac {x^5}{5!} - \frac {x^7}{7!} + … )
= 1- \frac {3x²}{3!} + \frac {5x^4}{5!} - \frac {7x^6}{7!} + …
=1 - \frac {x²}{2!} + \frac {x^4}{4!} - \frac {x^6}{6!} + …
=\sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n \frac {x^{2n}}{(2n)!} for all Real Numbers
This is an alternating series. The terms have even powers of x and even factorials. This corresponds to \cos x being an even function.