Sports medicine
Unit 3 – Athletics Related Injuries to the Axial Region
What are the category of concussion(s)? 1st degree (mild) 2nd degree (moderate) 3rd degree (severe)
What is a temporary impairment of brain function caused by impact to the head or by a rotational force? concussion
The correct terminology for a nosebleed is? epistaxis
What is 2nd impact syndrome? It occurs when an athlete receives more than one concussion or blow to the head in a short period of time.
What type of injury or paralysis of one of the extremities, a battle sign, and loss of consciousness? stroke/paralysis
How do get cauliflower ear? blunt trauma or injury
What is the medical term for swimmers ear? otitis externa
What is the difference between a tension/spontaneous pneumothorax? A tension pneumothorax is when air leaks out of a collapsed lung and presses against the lung and heart. A spontaneous pneumothorax is when lung tissue breaks down without any impact
Unwanted air found in the lung cavity due to a direct blow is what type of injury? pneumothorax
How many quadrants are located in the abdominal cavity? four quadrants
A person experiencing abdominal pain will have what signs? nausea vomiting heartburn and loss of appetite
What is a lump of tissue in the intestine that bulges through a weakness in the abdominal wall? inguinal hernia
What is Kehr’s sign? pain in the shoulder due to presence of blood
What are the solid or hollow organs? spleen liver and pancreas and hollow organs are stomach intestines bladder and gallbladder
Which of the following blood vessels carry blood away from the heart and to the tissues of the body? arteries
Unit 4 – Athletics Related Injuries to the Upper Extremity
What are the 4 rotator cuff muscles? subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus and teres minor
What ligament is injured in the event of a shoulder separation? AC ligaments
A "popeye" sign indicates what type of injury? rupture of bicep tendon
How does a shoulder subluxation occur? when the humerus slides in and out of place quickly
What is the most common broken bone on the shoulder girdle which heals very well? clavicle fracture
How does elbow hyperextension happen? when elbow is forced back during an activity
Which of the following ligaments takes on the most stress during throwing? ulnar collateral ligament
What injury to the olecranon results from a direct blow and presents with significant inflammation and swelling? elbow bursitis
A boxer’s fracture results in pain to which area of the hand? 5th metacarpal
This specific injury caused by narrowing of tunnel from gripping, typing, or any other repetitive movements? carpal tunnel
This injury is caused by falling on the outstretched hand and very point tender over the bone is in the anatomical snuff box? scaphoid fx
What is the piece of cartilage located between the ulna and the carpal bones, cushions the area? triangular fibrocartilage complex
Subungual hematoma is the accumulation of blood underneath where? the nail
What specific injury is caused by overuse of the muscles that abduct and extend the thumb or 1st metacarpal? de quervain's tendonitis (syndrome)
Unit 5 – Athletics Related Injuries to the Lower Extremity
Which muscle groups is considered to be the hip flexors? rectus femoris, iliopsoas, iliocapsularis,sartorius.
What is a contusion to the iliac crest called? a hip pointer
Which structure keeps the tibia from moving forward on the femur? Anterior cruciate ligament ACL
What structures have the role of stabilizing and cushioning the knee joint? medial and lateral menisci
In the event of a dislocation, which way does the patella usually move? Lateral aspect of knee
What is arthroscopic surgery? surgery that uses a small camera to diagnose and treat joint problems
What age group is Osgood-Schlatter disease found in? ages 10-15
Describe the mechanism of injury for a torn ACL? pivoting or maneuver during sports
What are the 4 bones that make up the ankle joint? talus fibula and tibia bones
Why are there more lateral ankle sprains than medial? because of the bony articulation between the medial malleolus and the talus
A sprain due to hyperextension of the 1st metatarsal (great toe) is also known as? Turf Toe
What structure connects the gastrocnemius to the calcaneus? Achilles tendon
What is another name for an avulsion fracture to the base of the 5th metatarsal? Jones fracture
ATF is an abbreviation for the damage to what structure? anterior talo fibular
What are the signs/symptoms of a stress fracture? swelling aching pain and tenderness
What type of fracture is usually seen in an X-ray, but detected with a bone scan? stress fracture
Where does a high ankle sprain occur? lateral on ankle
How many figure 8’s are required for an ankle taping? 1
What are the 4 movements of the ankle? plantar flexion dorsiflexion inversion and eversion
What is medial tibial stress syndrome? pain along shin bone caused by putting to much stress
What muscles perform plantarflexion/dorsiflexion? gastrocnemius plantaris soleus and fibularis longus
Unit 6 – Rehabilitation & Reconditioning of Athletics Related Injuries
What do the letters RICE refer to? Rest, Ice,compression and elevation
What is the definition of circuit training? exercises rotating through a circuit of 10
The most important aspect of any rehabilitation program should contain which component(s)? Restoring back to original/strength
Which phase of treatment for athletic injuries? specific function phase
Which phase makes sure the brain in response to stimulus within the body, which is the ability to sense position of the limbs? proprioception phase
Know sports specific correct technique for the upper and lower extremity? endurance
What things does “cryotherapy” accomplish in the human body? constricts blood vessels, reduces inflammation, reduces cell metabolism,reduces pain,ect
Weights, dumbbells, tubing, and bands are all equipment used in what type of training? kinetic chain movements
How long should ICE be used on a specific injury to be most effective? 20 minutes
What are the types of ROM movement that athletes would be performing? isotonics
Unit 7 – Providing Emergency Care
How long should an individual check for signs of life? no more than 10 seconds
The correct place to put AED pads for an adult should be? upper right and lower left chest
Each minute that defibrillation is delayed reduces the chance of survival of a cardiac arrest by? 10%
About how many cycles of CPR should you perform on an adult in 2 minutes? five sets
The compression to breaths ratio for adults is? 30 compressions and two breaths
The 3 emergency care steps set up by the American Heart Association are? check scene, assess responsiveness, call 911.
What do the letters AED stand for? automated external defibrillator
What is the best way to check if a person is unconscious? shake, tap, pinch, talk/shout
According to American Heart Association, for the purpose of CPR, an adult is over the age? 8 or older
During ADULT CPR, the rate of compressions should be at least? 100 compressions per minute
What should you do before the AED analyzes the hearts’ rhythm? turn on, expose chest, stay clear from patient
What is difference between cardiac arrest/heart attack? A cardiac arrest is an electrical problem where the heart stops beating normally, a heart attack is a circulation problem due to a blocked artery.