Pathology of Infectious Diseases Week 2

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80 Terms

1
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What are the most common human forms of staphylococcus?

Staph Aureus

Staph Epidermidis

2
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Where is staph epidermidis found as natural flora?

Skin and Vaginal flora

3
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T or F: Staph epidermidis only causes opportunistic infections

True

4
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What % of the population are staph aureus carriers?

15%

5
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Where can staph aureus exist as natural flora?

Nasal cavities and skin

6
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What can be used to differentiate staph aureus from streptococcus?

Catalase

7
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What can be used to differentiate staph aureus from staph epidermidis?

Coagulase

8
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T or F: Staph Aureus can only be transferred directly, not indirectly

False (transfer can be direct or indirect)

9
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T or F: Staph aureus can perform intergeneric conjugation

False

10
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What is the function of Vitronectin?

Collagen binding protein

11
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T or F: The capsule of staph aureus is non-immunogenic

False (it is immunogenic)

12
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What is the function of Protein A (a virulence factor of Staph Aureus)

inactivates IgG

13
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What is the function of Fibronectin?

Binding protein

14
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What is the function of Coagulase?

disrupts blood plasma levels

15
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What is the function of clumping factor?

Clumps the bacteria together

16
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What is the function of leukocidin

Lipid disruption and leukocyte destruction

17
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What allows Staph Aureus to trigger arthritis?

Gamma Toxin

18
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What allows Staph Aureus to lyse neutrophils and allows for beta hemolysis?

Alpha Toxin

19
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What allows staph aureus to disrupt cellular connections?

Exfoliate toxin

20
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What type of bacteria causes Osteomyelitis?

Staph Aureus

21
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What is a late sign of staph aureus infection?

Deep Concaved access

22
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What are early signs of staph aureus infection?

Swollen

Painful

Redness

Warm to touch

Resembles spider bites

Fills with pus

Mounds up (breaks skin at top of mound)

23
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What is the hematogenous source of osteomyelitis infection?

Skin infection

24
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What are secondary sources of osteomyelitis infection?

Trauma and surgery

25
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What are the symptoms of osteomyelitis?

Fever

Irritability or lethargy (children)

Pain in affected area

Swelling in affected area

Warmth and redness in affected area

26
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What is Brodie sign?

Fluid-filled area in the bone seen on x-ray

27
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Why is osteomyelitis only associated with a positive blood test half of the time?

it is sometimes only in the bones, and sometimes in the bones and blood

28
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Where is Brodie sign more common in children?

Long bones

29
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Where is Brodie sign more common in adults?

Vertebrae

30
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What age group are respiratory staph infections typical in?

Children under the age of 2 yo

31
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What infection precedes respiratory staph infections in 2/3 cases?

influenza

32
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What are Osler's nodes?

red, tender spots under the skin of the fingers

33
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T or F: petechiae may be associated with staph aureus endocarditis

True

34
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How long do staph aureus food poisoning symptoms take to manifest?

30 minutes to 6 hours (faster if the toxin is ingested)

35
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T or F: Staph Aureus is heat resistant and its toxin is salt resistant

False (the organism is salt resistant and the toxin is heat resistant)

36
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What drugs are used to treat Methicillin-resistant staph aureus (MRSA)?

Bactrim and vancomycin

37
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T or F: streptococcus is gram +

True

38
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T or F: Streptococcus pyogenes can only be transmitted indirectly

False (only direct contact

39
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What are the attachment structures of streptococcus pyogenes?

F-protein and Fimbria

40
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T or F: the capsule of streptococcus pyogenes is non-immunogenic

True

41
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What is the anti-phagocytic protein on streptococcus pyogenes?

M-protein

42
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What toxins produced by streptococcus pyogenes causes rash and toxic shock?

Exotoxin A and C

43
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What toxin produced by streptococcus pyogenes causes breakdown / prevention of clots?

Streptokinase (Fibrinolysin)

44
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What toxin produced by streptococcus pyogenes breaks down hyaluronic acid?

Hyaluronidase

45
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What toxin produced by streptococcus pyogenes prevents neutrophil and extracellular traps?

Streptodornase

46
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What toxin produced by streptococcus pyogenes cleaves chemotactic neutrophil components?

C5A peptidase

47
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What toxin produced by streptococcus pyogenes prevents migration of neutrophils?

Chemokine protease

48
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What toxin produced by streptococcus pyogenes allows it to perform beta hemolysis?

Streptomycin S and O

49
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What is an AKA for Pharyngitis?

Strep throat

50
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What is an antibody cross-reaction of streptococcus pyogenes that damages heart valves?

Rheumatic Fever

51
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What is a phage-mediated toxin reaction caused by streptococcus pyogenes, ending in strawberry tongue?

Scarlet Fever

52
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What demographic is most affected by rheumatic fever?

children with specific genes

53
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What demographic is most affected by scarlet fever?

children aged 3-15

54
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What disease has the characteristic butterfly rash?

Erysipelas

55
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What type of climate is erysipelas most commonly found in?

warm climates

56
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What demographic is most commonly affected by erysipelas?

individuals over 20

57
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What demographic is most commonly affected by impetigo?

children 2-5 yo

58
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What condition is marked by hemhorrhagic pustules that evolve into necrotic ulcers?

Ecythma gangrenosum

59
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What condition is usually preceded by by an injury, resulting in an infection of the dermal region?

Cellulitis

60
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What condition was once a common postpartum infection of the uterine cavity?

Sepsis

61
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What condition typically follows skin strep infections and is triggered by antibody-antigen complexes running through the kidneys?

Glomerulonephritis

62
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Which bacteria has an immunogenic capsule as its only virulence factor?

Streptococcus pneumoniae

63
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T or F: Streptococcus pneumonia can only be transmitted directly

True

64
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What is the most common demographic affected by otitis media?

children under 2 yo

65
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What is the acute phase of sinusitis?

2-4 weeks

66
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What is the chronic phase of sinusitis?

12 weeks or longer

67
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How long does it take for bacterial infection to develop in pneumonia?

24-48 hours

68
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How long does red hepatization take in pneumonia?

2-4 days

69
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How long does grey hepatization take in pneumonia?

4-8 days

70
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How long does it take for normal lung response to be restored in pneumonia?

8-10 days

71
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What is the most severe form of meningitis?

bacterial

72
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What antibiotics are used to treat bacterial meningitis?

cephalosporin and vancomycin

73
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What are the most prominent strains of Neisseria meningitidis worldwide?

A, B, and C

74
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What are the most prominent strains of Neisseria meningitidis in the U.S.?

B and C

75
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What type of virulence factors does Neisseria meningititis have?

Capsule (immunogenic)

IgA protease

LPS (common pyrogenic component)

Type IV pili

CD46 attachment

76
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What is the primary sign of Meningococcemia?

Petechial skin rash

77
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What is an uncommon downstream manifestation of Neisseria meningitis?

Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome

78
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How is Klebsiella pneumoniae transmitted?

Fecal contamination (not airborne)

79
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T or F: Klebsiella pneumoniae can cause pneumonia

True

80
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What are two primary symptoms of Klebsiella pneumoniae?

Thick gelatinous sputum and difficulty expectorating