final!!!!

72

A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than \________ hours following the incident.

AED

Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training?

may not be present or obvious at all times

As an EMT, it is important to remember that the signs and symptoms of cumulative stress:

continuity of care

The patient care report (PCR) ensures:

B. a 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED)

Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of ALS?
A. a 53-year-old patient who is given glucagon for significant hypoglycemia Incorrect
B. a 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED) Correct
C. a 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a multilumen device Incorrect
D. a 61-year-old trauma patient whose chest is decompressed with a needle Incorrect

an informed refusal

A patient's refusal for EMS treatment and/or transport must be:

deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury

Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence?

A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT

Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment?

report the incident to your supervisor after the call

While assisting an advanced life support (ALS) ambulance crew, you are accidentally stuck with an IV needle. You should:

. you have been exposed to the disease.

A positive TB skin test indicates that:

. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation.

Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, EXCEPT:

. brief and easily understood.

When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be:

it was not performed in the eyes of the law.

f an action or procedure that was performed on a patient is not recorded on the written report:

not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons

Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include:

chief complaint.

When you begin an oral report, you should state the patient's age, sex, and:

medical director.

The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the:

. simplex

Two-way communication that requires the EMT to "push to talk" and "release to listen" describes what mode of communication?

offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk for exposure.

According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, an employer must:

An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug. Correct

which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure?
An EMT gives the correct drug to a patient, although his protocols clearly state that he is not authorized to do so.
B. Due to an improperly applied cervical collar, a patient's spinal injury is aggravated and he is permanently disabled.
C. An EMT administers the wrong drug to a patient because she did not know the pertinent information about the drug.
D. A patient is given nitroglycerin by an EMT who did not obtain proper authorization from medical control first.

it will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence.

Which of the following statements regarding the Good Samaritan law is correct?
It provides the EMT immunity from a lawsuit.
B. The law does not protect EMTs who are off duty.
C. It will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence.
D. It guarantees that the EMT will not be held liable if he or she is sued.

a response to a motor vehicle crash while off duty

In which of the following situations does the EMT NOT have a legal duty to act?
Choose one answer.
A. a response to an injured patient while off duty
B. a response to a motor vehicle crash while off duty
C. Local policy requires you to assist in any emergency.
D. a response to the residence of a patient who fell

gives an oral report to the emergency room physician or nurse

The official transfer of patient care does not occur until the EMT:

careless handling of sharps.

The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the health care setting can usually be traced to:

begin resuscitation at once.

When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest, and a valid living will or DNR order cannot be located, you should:

draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it.

After delivering your patient to the hospital, you sit down to complete the PCR. When documenting the patient's last blood pressure reading, you inadvertently write 120/60 instead of 130/70. To correct this mistake, you should:

protecting patient privacy

What section of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel?

the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene.

Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, EXCEPT:
important medical history not previously given.
B. the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene.
C. the chief complaint or mechanism of injury.
D. the patient's response to treatment you provided.

maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible.

Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by:
A. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible.
B. using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands.
C. positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient.
D. withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital.

C. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality.

General guidelines for effective radio communications include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. acknowledging a transmission as soon as possible.
B. holding the microphone about 2" to 3" from your mouth.
C. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality.
D. speaking in a clear, calm, monotone voice.

D. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed.

Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis?
Choose one answer.
A. Statistical data indicate that an increasing number of people are being diagnosed with a particular illness.
B. The federal government requires that changes be made to existing emergency care protocols at least every 5 years.
C. EMS providers should be encouraged to actively participate in research and become familiar with data analysis.
D. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed.

A. your partner's attempt to diminish their grief.

While trying to make a family member feel better after a loved one has died, your partner uses trite statements. The family members may view this as:
Choose one answer.
A. your partner's attempt to diminish their grief.
B. a show of respect for the person who has died.
C. your partner's caring and supportive attitude.
D. coaching them through the grieving process.

C. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed. Correct

Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction?
Choose one answer.
A. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children.
B. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia.
C. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed.
D. A newly certified EMT becomes extremely nauseated and diaphoretic at the scene of an incident involving grotesque injuries.

have pulmonary edema and can follow verbal commands.

CPAP is indicated for patients who:

tachycardia

When the body senses a state of hypoperfusion, the sympathetic nervous system releases epinephrine, the effects of which include:

24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin Correct

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing?
Choose one answer.
A. 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin
B. 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin
C. 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor
D. 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis

A. asking questions related to the chief complaint

Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient's illness?
Choose one answer.
A. asking questions related to the chief complaint
B. trending of the patient's vital signs over time
C. focusing solely on how the call is dispatched
D. refraining from asking open-ended questions

sleeps

The diaphragm functions as an involuntary muscle when a person:

epiglottis.

the leaf-shaped structure located superior to the larynx is called the:

addresses the patient's symptoms more than the actual disease process.

The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies:

your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness.

An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:

C. epiglottis.

Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT the:
Choose one answer.
A. trachea.
B. alveoli.
C. epiglottis.
D. bronchioles.

cervical spine injuries

The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway of patients with suspected:

incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.

Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells:

remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx.

19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should:

diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.

Inhalation occurs when the

shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.

Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as:

a narcotic overdose

Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
A. a respiratory infection.
B. an overdose of aspirin.
C. high blood glucose levels.
D. a narcotic overdose.

log roll him as a unit to a supine position.

You are dispatched to a residence where a middle-aged man was found unconscious in his front yard. There are no witnesses who can tell you what happened. You find him in a prone position; his eyes are closed and he is not moving. Your FIRST action should be to:

alveoli

In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?

stridor

Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are characteristic of:

C. bronchus

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?
A. larynx
B. pharynx
C. bronchus
D. oropharynx

2

In infants and children, a capillary refill time (CRT) that is greater than \______ second(s) is a sign of poor peripheral perfusion.

you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.

Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that:

widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.

Distributive shock occurs when:

inspiration and expiration.

The two processes that occur during respiration are

The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels.

Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is MOST correct?
Choose one answer.
A. Chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive.
B. 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive.
C. The hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals.
D. The hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels.

. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:

MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics.

Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct?
Choose one answer.
A. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics.

B. The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected.

C. Studies have shown that less than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers.

D. Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needlestick.

inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells.

Hypoxia is MOST accurately defined as:

attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient

Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unconscious, you should

D. severe anxiety

Which of the following conditions would LEAST likely result in hypoxia?
A. pleural effusion
B. pulmonary edema
C. prolonged seizures
D. severe anxiety

bloodborne disease that can successfully be treated with penicillin

Syphilis is a:

wheezing

Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock?
Choose one answer.
A. hypotension
B. wheezing
C. pallor
D. dizziness

A. substance abuse

Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition?
Choose one answer.
A. substance abuse
B. schizophrenia
C. depression
D. Alzheimer's disease

liver laceration

Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock?
Choose one answer.
A. liver laceration
B. repeated diarrhea
C. severe vomiting
D. excessive sweating

psychogenic shock.

Temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction MOST accurately describes:

The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream.

Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct?

Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct?
Choose one answer.
A. The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream.
B. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B and is easily transmitted in the health care setting.
C. Most patients who are infected with HIV experience chronic symptoms that vary in duration and severity.
D. The risk of HIV infection is high, even if an infected person's blood comes in contact with your intact skin.

adequate amounts of surfactant.

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by:

cyanosis

Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia?
Choose one answer.
A. tachycardia Incorrect
B. anxiety Incorrect
C. restlessness
D. cyanosis

C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body. Correct

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as:
Choose one answer.
A. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs.
B. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms.
C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body.
D. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional.

cardiogenic shock

Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during:

repeating the primary assessment

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by

body temperature is consistently less than 98.6F (37.0)

an organ or tissue may be better to resis damage from hypperfusion if the

sinoatrial node(sa)

the electrical impulse by the heart originates in the

a person taking aspirin will expierence slower blood clotting

what is true about blood clotting?

cool, clammy, weak, tachycardia, rapid respirations

classic symptoms and signs of hypoglycemia include

oral glucose

glucose is a trade name for

gallbladder

What organs lie in the retroperitoneal space?

Alzheimers dieses

common causes of psychotic behavior include the following, except

20%

significant vital signs changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than\___of his or her blood

may bleed spontaneously

What is a fact of hemophilia's?

fibrinogen

as red blood cells begin to clumb together to form a clot,\____reinforces the clumped red blood cells

expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patients side

when assessing arm movement of a suspected stroke, you should

shock

hypoperfusion is another name for

acids or alkalies

activated charcoal administration is contraindicated in patients who have ingested

extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems

anaphylaxis is mod accurately defines as an

memory

what is not an assessment parameter included in the cincinati prehospital stroke scale

constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system,

what is not a function of the sympathetic nervous system?

petit mal seizure

an absence seizure is also referred to as

poisoning

which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure

wheal

a raised swollen well defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bit or sting

prolonged seizures without return of consciousness

status epileptics is characterized by

the normal body process destroy a clot in a cerebral artery

a transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when

her menstrul periods may become irregular and vary in severity

as woman approaches menopause

assess for an exit wound

a young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation with a rival gang member. as your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control obvious bleeding then

hypertension

the most significant risk factor for a hemorragic stroke is

there is not enough time between contractions for the heart to refill

cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because

it can continue to inject venom up to 20 mins

because the stinger of a honeybee remains in the wound following sting

may vomit and aspirate

your unit is dispatched to the county jail for an inmate. on arrival, you find the patient a 33 year old male lying supine in a jail cell. He is responsive to painful stimuli only has a slow, shallow respirations. you should be most concerned that this patient

decrease the severity of deceleration injuries

air bags are designed to