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c. Keep any electrical signal which resulted from scatter or background from contributing to final image
Point out the purpose of the pulse height analyzer. a. Filter photons which strike crystals from oblique angles
b. To convert light into an electrical signal and magnify that signal that contributes to the final image
c. Keep any electrical signal which resulted from scatter or background from contributing to final image
d. To convert radioactivity into light photons
a. Static
A magnetic resonance (MR) image can BEST be described as blank image.
a. Static
b. characteristic
c. representational
d. dynamic
b. Long bones
Determine the usual location of osteogenesis imperfecta.
a. Skull
b. Long bones
c. Pelvic girdle
d. Vertebrae
d. I and III
Which of the following isotopes are to be used for coincidence imaging?
I. C - 11
II. 0 - 5
III. N - 13
a. I and II
b. I, Il and III
c. Il and III
d. I and III
b. 1.5
Determine the approximate maximum dose (in cm depth) that occurs in a 6MV photon beam.
a. 0.5
b. 1.5
c. 2.0
d. 3.0
d. contusion
An injury of the brain that is caused by a severe impact is determined as a / an
a. encephalitis
b. conversion
c. convulsion
d. contusion
d. Glioma
Point out the MOST common primary brain tumor
a. Meningioma
b. Glioblastoma
c. Neurinoma
d. Glioma
d. Indium 111 WBC
Which of the followixng radionuclide Is used to image the neuroendocrine tumors?
a. Nitrogen 13 ammonia
b. lodine 131 lipiodol
c. Iodine 123 MIBG (metaiodobenzyiguanidine)
d. Indium 111 WBC
b. Line pairs per millimeter
Which of the following normally measures magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) spatial resolution?
a. Cycles per centimeter
b. Line pairs per millimeter
c. Cycles per millimeter
d. Line pairs per centimeter
d. l and III
Select the materials that are used in solid-state detectors.
I. Gadolinium oxisulfide
II. Calcium tungsten
III. Yitrium-gadolinium oxide
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I, ll and lll
d. l and III
d. I and III
Determine the factors wherein the velocily of sound waves is primarily dependent
I. Mode of vibration
II. Reflection and refraction
III. Material through which sound is being transmitted
a. I, Il and III
b. I and II
c. Il and III
d. I and III
b. Hiatal hernia
Point out a radiographic appearance of the gastrointestinal tract showing numerous thicker folds of the diaphragmatic hernia
a. Esophageal varices
b. Hiatal hernia
c. Esophageal achalasia
d. Gastric ulcer
b. Wear gloves when handling blocks, proper ventilation in room, wear protective shoes
Identify precautions that should be undertaken to reduce the risks of indigestion of small fragments of Cerrobend metal in a block cutting room.
a. Proper ventilation in block cutting room, wear special googles and protective shoes
b. Wear gloves when handling blocks, proper ventilation in room, wear protective shoes
c. Practice good hygiene: wash hands before eating, drinking, and smoking
d. Wear special boots and gloves when handling blocks, wash hands before taking blocks to treatment room
b. an airless lung, which may vary from thin plate-like streaks to lobar collapse
Atelectasis will show a radiographic appearance of lung collapse
a. a compensatory under inflation of the remainder of the ipalateral lung
b. an airless lung, which may vary from thin plate-like streaks to lobar collapse
c. an elevation of the contra-lateral hemidiaphragm d. displacement of heart, mediastinum, and hilum toward the non atelectasis segment the reason why sodium
A. I and II
Choose the reason why sodium lodide (thallum lodide) is used as edinilation crystal
I. Transparent to own radiation
II. Non hygroscopic
III. Inexpensive
A. I and II
B. I, ll and III
C. Il and III
D. I and III
c. Renal artery stenosis
Point out the condition that is assessed in a Captopril renal scan.
a. Chronic renal failure
b. Pyelonephritis
c. Renal artery stenosis
d. Obstruction
c. Surface
Which type of coil is directly placed on the patient and is used in the imaging of superficial structures? a. Gradient
b. Saddle
c. Surface
d. Magnetic
d. Iridium 192
Radioactive isotopes used in tandems and avoids ______
a. Cobalt 60
b. Cesium 137
c. Strontium 90
d. Iridium 192
C. II and III
Point out the indications for scrotal sonography.
I. A primary method for diagnosis of testicular torsion
II. Evaluation of an enlarged, painful scrotum
III. Detection of testicular tumors
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. I, II and Ill
C. Adrenal
Point out the tumor that results from a benign hormone, phechromocytoma.
A. Splenic
B. Pancreatic
C. Adrenal
D. Kidney
d. passive diffusion
Tc-99m HMPAO (hexamethylpropylamine oxime) is one of the technetium radiopharmaceuticals used in WBC imaging. Select the mechanism of uptake of these radiopharmaceuticals.
a. Active transport
b. Na-k pump
c. Reverse osmosis
d. passive diffusion
B. Cysteamine
Identify which is an example of a radioprotector compound.
A. Hydroxyurea
B. Cysteamine
C. Methotrexate
D. Thiamine
d. Multiple myeloma
Identify the neoplastic condition that destroys bone
a. Pheochromocytoma
b. Spondylitis
c. Hydrocephalus
d. Multiple myeloma
b. diffusely enlarged thyroid with decreased echogenicity
Thyroiditis will usually appear sonographically as a a. multiple cysts within the thyroid
b. diffusely enlarged thyroid with decreased echogenicity
c. diffusely enlarged thyroid lobes with no change in echogenicity
d. small, echogenic thyroid
d. spIeen
The BEST sonographic window to the left hemidiaphragm is the
a. left lung
b. stomach
c. kidney
d. spIeen
d. Increased echogenicity
Splenomegaly displays,
a. Decreased echogenicity
b. Sonolucent
c. anechoic
d. Increased echogenicity
a. Conventional tomography
Which of the following examinations / procedures has been replaced by high resolution computed tomography in detecting bronchiectasis.
a. Conventional tomography
b. Nuclear medicine
c. Angiographic procedures
d. Chest radiography
d. Magnetic resonance imaging
Point out the BEST modality for staging the extent of breast tumor.
a. Computed tomography
b. Ultrasound
c. Radiography
d. Magnetic resonance imaging
D. Spina bifida
Determine the pathologic condition wherein the posterior elements of one or more vertebrae fail to unite
A. Meningocele
B. Spondylolisthesis
C. Myelomeningocele
D. Spina bifida
C. I, Il and III
Determine the indications for computed tomograph of the thoracic spine
I. Rule out compression fracture
II. Determine presence of fibrotic scar tissue
III. Diagnose disc herniation
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I, Il and III
D. I and lI
c. uncertainty of dose due to variations in patient thickness will result when attempts wil made eliminate skin folds
When pelvic irradiation is delivered in an obese patient in the supine position, the concern is that
a. there would be difficulties in reproducing the patient's position each day
b. the patient's hands might be in treatment field when pulling up skin folds
c. uncertainty of dose due to variations in patient thickness will result when attempts wil made eliminate skin folds
d. the small bowel would be in different positions each day
b. Spondylolisthesis
Determine the resultant condition when one vertebra slips forward out of place below it.
a. Spondylitis
b. Spondylolisthesis
c. Spondylosis
d. Spondylolysis
c. Low energy x-rays will be absorbed
What is the effect of insertion of aluminum, copper, and tin filters into the x-ray beam?
a. Dose will increase
b. Unnecessary dose on the skin surface
c. Low energy x-rays will be absorbed
d. kVp will increase
d. resistive
In magnetic resonance imaging, the type of magnet that will require a large amount of electrical supply is a magnet.
a. superconductive
b. Permanent
c. solenoid
d. resistive
a. Lung
Strictly on the basis of proton density, classify the tissues that should appear the darkest.
a. Lung
b. Cortical bone
c. Muscle
d. Medullary bone
b. 512 x 512
The MOST common matrix size used in combuted tomography is
a. 216 × 216
b. 512 x 512
c. 80 × 80
d. 102 x 102
a. diameter of the collimator holes decreases
In nuclear medicine, collimator resolution improves as the
a. diameter of the collimator holes decreases
b. distance between the collimator and object increases
c. distance between the collimator and object decreases
d. effective length of the collimator holes decreases
b. Ultrasound
Determine the gold standard for demonstrating anencephaly
a. Computed tomography
b. Ultrasound
c. Magnetic resonance imaging
d. Nuclear medicine
A. Size of transducer
Select the MAJOR factor in determining the acoustic power output of the transducer
A. Size of transducer
B. Amount of gain
C. Amount of amplification at receiver
D. Magnitude of voltage spike
A. shield testes and penis from the scattered dose of collimator
The PRIMARY purpose for a testicular protection in radiation therapy is to
A. shield testes and penis from the scattered dose of collimator
B. shield the testes from the primary beam
C. shield testes from scatter off the treatment couch
D. reduce amount of internal scattered dose in the testes
a. a large, multilocular cystic mass
In an ultrasound examination, seminomas of the testicle may appear as
a. a large, multilocular cystic mass
b. a small, simple cyst
c. cannot be detected sonographically
d. a solid, homogenous mass
B. A-mode
Choose the display in which the strength of the echo is related to the height of deflection oscilloscope.
A. B-scan
B. A-mode
C. M-mode
D. B-mode
C. Prosthesis may be pulled from the patient
Determine the effect that may result in a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) patient prosthesis.
A. May be a contraindication for MRI
B. Image may be degraded
C. Prosthesis may be pulled from the patient
D. Examination may be ineffective
C. Adenoma
Which of the following is a non-malignant tumor? A. Sarcoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Adenoma
D. Carcinoma
B. Abdominal
Which of the following computed tomography examinations uses oral contrast agents
A. Vascular
B. Abdominal
C. bone
D. Brain
a. Echo train length
Identify the scan parameter chosen when performing a field echo sequence to satisfy a unique contrast appearance of the resultant image. a. Echo train length
b. Flip angle
c. Slice thickness
d. Distance factor
B. l and III
Identify the causes of the resultant static on film in nuclear medicine.
I. Removing a sheet of film too quickly from the box of cassette
II. Contact with skin
III. contact with dust and or lint particles
A. Il and III
B. l and III
C. I and lI
D. I, Il and III
D. I, II and III
Which of the following instruments will detect gamma radiation?
I. Gamma counter
II. Pen dosimeter
III. Survey meter
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I and II
D. I, II and III
b. Slip rings
Point out the technology that spiral computed tomography possible.
a. Fast reconstruction
b. Slip rings
c. Carbon fiber table
d. X-ray detectors
D. Il and III
Identify the conditions that will use Technetium-99m (Tc99m) labeled RBC's for scintigraphy.
I. Meckel's diverticulum
II. Gastrointestinal bleeding
III. Hemangioma
A. I, Il and IlI
B. l and Il
C. I and III
D. Il and III
C. Schilling
Identify the nuclear medicine test that will detect vitamin B12 deficiency.
A. Urea breath
B. Cr 51 red cell survival
C. Schilling
D. Radioimmunoassay
D. Intussusception
Identify the condition with classic signs of presence of a currant jelly stools with a palpable sausage-shaped mass, a radiographic string, and staircase appearance.
A. Adynamic ileus
B. Foreign body
C. Gastric cancer
D. Intussusception
D. Gamma
Identify the particulate emission wherein during its radioactive decay it allows 1-131 to destroy the thyroid follicular cells.
A. Alpha
B. Positron
C. Beta
D. Gamma
D. "double"-bubble sign
The characteristic ultrasound pattern of duodenal atresia is ________
A. failure to identify fetal stomach
B. Chadwick's sign
C. "triple" - bubble sign
D. "double"-bubble sign
A. Il and III
Identify the applications that commonly use transducers with continuous wave operation
I. Surgical
II. Therapeutic
III. Doppler
A. Il and III
B. I. Il and III
C. I and lI
D. I and III
D. Fan-beam reconstruction
Select the type of algorithm that can be used if the number of detector rows is small in a multislice computed tomography scanner.
A. X-axis reconstruction
B. Cone-beam reconstruction
C. Z-axis reconstruction
D. Fan-beam reconstruction
D. Neck lateral
Select the radiographic position that will clearly demonstrate an epiglottitis.
A. Chest anteroposterior
B. Neck posteroanterior
C. Chest posteroanterior
D. Neck lateral
D. An oscillating electrons
In which of the following does the "sound" in ultrasound equipment originates from?
A. Radioactivity
B. Electron transfer from the outer shell to the inner shell
C. An antenna
D. An oscillating electrons
b. I only
Which is probably the MOST accurate method of measuring the dose in computed tomography?
I. Pencil ionization
II. Thermoluminescent dosimetry
III. Film dosimetry
a. Ill only
b. I only
c. Il only
d. I, Il and III
C. Grenz
Which of the following is also known as soft xrays? A. Gamma
B. Gentle
C. Grenz
D. Orthovoltage
C. Truncation
Which of these artifacts appear as multiple rings of regularly periodicity or duplication at transitions between high and low intensity signals?
A. Cross excitation
B. Black boundary
C. Truncation
D. Partial volume
D. Computed tomography
Which of the following modalities would BEST demonstrate rupture of the spleen as a result of blunt abdominal trauma?
A. Magnetic resonance imaging
B. Radiography
C. Ultrasound
D. Computed tomography
B. Multi planar reformatting
Determine the transaxial data set software program that generates sagittal and coronal
A. Multislice computed tomography
B. Multi planar reformatting
C. Multi-reconstruction of computed tomography slices
D. Multidetector computed tomography
B. Ecchymosis
Determine the condition that would imply a rupture of a blood vessel,
A. Petechiae
B. Ecchymosis
C. Hemorrhage
D. Purpura
D. Field of view (FOV) is large
Determine when the truncation artifacts is MORE pronounced
A. Number of phase encoding acquisitions is large B. Repetition time is long
C. Number of phase-encoding acquisitions is small D. Field of view (FOV) is large
C. 0.15 uCi
The impurity limit of Mo99 per 1 millicurie of Tc99m is
A. 0.15 mCi
B. 0.5 mCi
C. 0.15 uCi
D. 1.5 uCi
D. Il and III
Choose the conditions that may be shown sonographically in an end-stage fatty liver such as severe cirrhosis.
I. Small shrunken liver
II. Portal hypertension
III. Biliary dilatation
A. I and lI
B. I and III
C. I, Il and III
D. Il and III
A. Display characteristics
Identify the factor evaluated through the measure of signal processing electronics, transducer integrity, and frequency dependent matching layers.
A. Display characteristics
B. Time gain compensation
C. Axial resolution
D. lateral resolution
D. Isodose curve at specified depth, tilted as a result of wedge being inserted in beam
Distinguish how a wedge angle is described in radiation therapy.
A. Isodose curve at specified depth, tilted with respect to the central axis of the beam
B. Less penetrating superficial beams
C. The actual wedge filter
D. Isodose curve at specified depth, tilted as a result of wedge being inserted in beam
B. Stand
Point out the location of the x-ray tube in a conventional simulator.
A. Image intensifier
B. Stand
C. Modulator cabinet
D. Gantry
D. Increased echogenicity
Determine the ultrasound display that is seen in splenomegaly.
A. Anechoic
B. Sonolucent
C. Decreased echogenicity
D. Increased echogenicity
C. I, Il and III
Point out the factors that determine image quality in computed tomography.
I. Spatial and contrast resolution
II. Noise and artifacts
III. Radiation dose
A. I and lI
B. I and I
C. I, Il and III
D. Il and III
A. long T1, short T2
A higher intensity magnetic resonance imaging signal is produced by a
A. long T1, short T2
B. short T1, long T2
C. short T1, short T2
D. long T1, long T2
A. Headache
Distinguish the condition that is indicated on a physician's written request that will NOT warrant performing a computed tomography of the neck. A. Headache
B. Mass
C. Polyps
D. Goiter
B. A-mode
Identify the displays in which the strength of the echo is related to the height of deflection on the oscilloscope.
A. B-mode
B. A-mode
C. B-scan
D. M-mode
C. Gradient Echo
Which of the following is the oldest and MOST common type of fast imaging sequence?
A. Spin Echo
B. Inversion recovery
C. Gradient Echo
D. Proton Density
B. Fluid- filled mass
Select the condition that would MOST likely cause acoustic enhancement sonographically
A. Solid mass
B. Fluid- filled mass
C. Multiple gallstone
D. Calcified mass
C. Homogenous with medium level echogenicity
Determine the sonographic texture of the normal testis.
A. Heterogeneous with high intensity echoes
B. Heterogeneous with low level echogenicity
C. Homogenous with medium level echogenicity
D. Variable echo patter with no echogenicity
C. Field of view (FOV) is large
Determine the condition in which partial volume averaging artifact exists
A. The repetition time is too short
B. A structure is contained within three or more slices
C. Field of view (FOV) is large
D. A structure is not fully contained within a slice
A. Slice thickness
Identity which geometric factor would greatly affect spatial resolution in computed tomography. A. Slice thickness
B. Focal spot
C. Detector aperture width
D. Field of view
C. Colle's
Classify the type of fracture resulting from falling on an outstretched hand involving the distal portion of the radius.
A. Pathologic
B. Pott's
C. Colle's
D. Stress
D. right side of the lungs with atelectasis
Intrabronchial foreign body usually manifest as affecting the ________
A. left side of the lungs with atelectasis
B. left side of the lungs with no atelectasis
C. right side of the lungs with no atelectasis
D. right side of the lungs with atelectasis
C. Superconductive
Classify the magnet type used in magnetic resonance imaging that requires liquid helium to reduce electrical resistance.
A. Solenoid
B. Permanent
C. Superconductive
D. Resistive
A. Intensity
Distinguish the difference between the maximum value and equilibrium (average) value of an acoustic variable.
A. Intensity
B. Amplitude
C. Period
D. Power
A. Easy to set-up, produce sharper penumbra, can be used with any field
Determine why multi-leaf collimators are different from custom-shaped blocks in radiation therapy.
A. Easy to set-up, produce sharper penumbra, can be used with any field
B. Produce scalloped isodose distributions in penumbra, extremely heavy, can produce any field shape or size
C. Easy to remove and replace between patients, produce sharper field edges, can be used with any field size
D. Produce step-like field edges, leakage can occur between leaves, can only be used with field sizes
D. Can detect difference energies of radiation
Determine the advantage of using optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter (OSL) over other types of personnel dosimeter.
A. Do not require additional equipment to measure readings
B. Can be read immediately
C. Are the most inexpensive personnel dosimeter
D. Can detect difference energies of radiation
A. I, Il and III
Distinguish the factors that will affect patient dose in computed tomography.
I. Kilovoltage peak and milliampere per second
II. Linear attenuation coefficient and Noise
III. Slice thickness and pixel size
A. I, Il and III
B. l and III
C. I and lI
D. II and III
D. Reduce dose rate at center of unfiltered beam
Point out the use of a flattering filter in radiation therapy.
A. Cause the dose rate to be increased
B. Remove all of the electrons from the beam
C. Determine the dose rate of unfiltered beam
D. Reduce dose rate at center of unfiltered beam
C. Cortical desmoid
Select the primary osseous lesion that usually demonstrates normal activity on bone scintigraphy. A. Osteoid osteoma
B. Fibrous dysplasia
C. Cortical desmoid
D. Ewing sarcoma
D. Decibel
Choose the unit used for expressing the ratio of two quantities of electrical signal or sound energy. A. Attenuation
B. Density
C. Fertz
D. Decibel
B. Tungsten
Determine the material that is NOT used as filter for low-energy treatment machines.
A. Thoraeous
B. Tungsten
C. Aluminum
D. Copper
C. Mo99 in the Tc99m eluate
Select what is classified as a radionuclide impurity. A. Unbound 1-123 in 1-123 mlBG
B. Free Tc in the Tc99m eluate
C. Mo99 in the Tc99m eluate
D. HR Te in the Tc99m eluate
C. Aneurysm
Which of the following refers to a localized bulging or dilation of an artery?
A. Fat emboli
B. Effusion
C. Aneurysm
D. Edema
D. Slice thickness
In a single slice computed tomography, pitch is defined as patient couch movement per rotation divided by
A. increment
B. detector size
C. beam width
D. Slice thickness
D. Venography
Identify the invasive procedure performed to determine deep vein thrombosis.
A. Doppler ultrasound
B. Arteriography
C. Computed tomography
D. Venography
B. Aneurysm
Identify a localized bulging or dilatation of an artery.
A. Emboli
B. Aneurysm
C. Effusion
D. Edema
D. Black
Identify the color of blood flow in a color Doppler that would MOST likely displayed Doppler is angled 90 1/2
A. Blue
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Black
B. Gradient magnetic field amplitude and timing
Select the principal determinant for the contrast rendition of a magnetic resonance (MR) image
A. The gray scale resolution of the computer
B. Gradient magnetic field amplitude and timing
C. Radiofrequency (RF) pulse amplitude and timing
D. The number of signal acquisitions
C. Ischemic necrosis
Choose the pathologic condition that may occur following a trauma, which resulted in interrupted blood supply to the bone.
A. Crushing's
B. Vasculitis
C. Ischemic necrosis
D. Stress fracture
C.Field size, distance, energy
Point out the factors in which the percentage depth dose is dependent on
A. Source skin distance, distance, treatment time
B. Energy, tissue density, treatment time
C.Field size, distance, energy
D. Field size, tissue density, energy