RTLE JUNE 2023: C5

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663 Terms

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c. Keep any electrical signal which resulted from scatter or background from contributing to final image

Point out the purpose of the pulse height analyzer. a. Filter photons which strike crystals from oblique angles

b. To convert light into an electrical signal and magnify that signal that contributes to the final image

c. Keep any electrical signal which resulted from scatter or background from contributing to final image

d. To convert radioactivity into light photons

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a. Static

A magnetic resonance (MR) image can BEST be described as blank image.

a. Static

b. characteristic

c. representational

d. dynamic

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b. Long bones

Determine the usual location of osteogenesis imperfecta.

a. Skull

b. Long bones

c. Pelvic girdle

d. Vertebrae

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d. I and III

Which of the following isotopes are to be used for coincidence imaging?

I. C - 11

II. 0 - 5

III. N - 13

a. I and II

b. I, Il and III

c. Il and III

d. I and III

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b. 1.5

Determine the approximate maximum dose (in cm depth) that occurs in a 6MV photon beam.

a. 0.5

b. 1.5

c. 2.0

d. 3.0

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d. contusion

An injury of the brain that is caused by a severe impact is determined as a / an

a. encephalitis

b. conversion

c. convulsion

d. contusion

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d. Glioma

Point out the MOST common primary brain tumor

a. Meningioma

b. Glioblastoma

c. Neurinoma

d. Glioma

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d. Indium 111 WBC

Which of the followixng radionuclide Is used to image the neuroendocrine tumors?

a. Nitrogen 13 ammonia

b. lodine 131 lipiodol

c. Iodine 123 MIBG (metaiodobenzyiguanidine)

d. Indium 111 WBC

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b. Line pairs per millimeter

Which of the following normally measures magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) spatial resolution?

a. Cycles per centimeter

b. Line pairs per millimeter

c. Cycles per millimeter

d. Line pairs per centimeter

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d. l and III

Select the materials that are used in solid-state detectors.

I. Gadolinium oxisulfide

II. Calcium tungsten

III. Yitrium-gadolinium oxide

a. I and II

b. II and III

c. I, ll and lll

d. l and III

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d. I and III

Determine the factors wherein the velocily of sound waves is primarily dependent

I. Mode of vibration

II. Reflection and refraction

III. Material through which sound is being transmitted

a. I, Il and III

b. I and II

c. Il and III

d. I and III

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b. Hiatal hernia

Point out a radiographic appearance of the gastrointestinal tract showing numerous thicker folds of the diaphragmatic hernia

a. Esophageal varices

b. Hiatal hernia

c. Esophageal achalasia

d. Gastric ulcer

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b. Wear gloves when handling blocks, proper ventilation in room, wear protective shoes

Identify precautions that should be undertaken to reduce the risks of indigestion of small fragments of Cerrobend metal in a block cutting room.

a. Proper ventilation in block cutting room, wear special googles and protective shoes

b. Wear gloves when handling blocks, proper ventilation in room, wear protective shoes

c. Practice good hygiene: wash hands before eating, drinking, and smoking

d. Wear special boots and gloves when handling blocks, wash hands before taking blocks to treatment room

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b. an airless lung, which may vary from thin plate-like streaks to lobar collapse

Atelectasis will show a radiographic appearance of lung collapse

a. a compensatory under inflation of the remainder of the ipalateral lung

b. an airless lung, which may vary from thin plate-like streaks to lobar collapse

c. an elevation of the contra-lateral hemidiaphragm d. displacement of heart, mediastinum, and hilum toward the non atelectasis segment the reason why sodium

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A. I and II

Choose the reason why sodium lodide (thallum lodide) is used as edinilation crystal

I. Transparent to own radiation

II. Non hygroscopic

III. Inexpensive

A. I and II

B. I, ll and III

C. Il and III

D. I and III

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c. Renal artery stenosis

Point out the condition that is assessed in a Captopril renal scan.

a. Chronic renal failure

b. Pyelonephritis

c. Renal artery stenosis

d. Obstruction

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c. Surface

Which type of coil is directly placed on the patient and is used in the imaging of superficial structures? a. Gradient

b. Saddle

c. Surface

d. Magnetic

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d. Iridium 192

Radioactive isotopes used in tandems and avoids ______

a. Cobalt 60

b. Cesium 137

c. Strontium 90

d. Iridium 192

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C. II and III

Point out the indications for scrotal sonography.

I. A primary method for diagnosis of testicular torsion

II. Evaluation of an enlarged, painful scrotum

III. Detection of testicular tumors

A. I and II

B. I and III

C. II and III

D. I, II and Ill

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C. Adrenal

Point out the tumor that results from a benign hormone, phechromocytoma.

A. Splenic

B. Pancreatic

C. Adrenal

D. Kidney

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d. passive diffusion

Tc-99m HMPAO (hexamethylpropylamine oxime) is one of the technetium radiopharmaceuticals used in WBC imaging. Select the mechanism of uptake of these radiopharmaceuticals.

a. Active transport

b. Na-k pump

c. Reverse osmosis

d. passive diffusion

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B. Cysteamine

Identify which is an example of a radioprotector compound.

A. Hydroxyurea

B. Cysteamine

C. Methotrexate

D. Thiamine

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d. Multiple myeloma

Identify the neoplastic condition that destroys bone

a. Pheochromocytoma

b. Spondylitis

c. Hydrocephalus

d. Multiple myeloma

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b. diffusely enlarged thyroid with decreased echogenicity

Thyroiditis will usually appear sonographically as a a. multiple cysts within the thyroid

b. diffusely enlarged thyroid with decreased echogenicity

c. diffusely enlarged thyroid lobes with no change in echogenicity

d. small, echogenic thyroid

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d. spIeen

The BEST sonographic window to the left hemidiaphragm is the

a. left lung

b. stomach

c. kidney

d. spIeen

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d. Increased echogenicity

Splenomegaly displays,

a. Decreased echogenicity

b. Sonolucent

c. anechoic

d. Increased echogenicity

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a. Conventional tomography

Which of the following examinations / procedures has been replaced by high resolution computed tomography in detecting bronchiectasis.

a. Conventional tomography

b. Nuclear medicine

c. Angiographic procedures

d. Chest radiography

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d. Magnetic resonance imaging

Point out the BEST modality for staging the extent of breast tumor.

a. Computed tomography

b. Ultrasound

c. Radiography

d. Magnetic resonance imaging

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D. Spina bifida

Determine the pathologic condition wherein the posterior elements of one or more vertebrae fail to unite

A. Meningocele

B. Spondylolisthesis

C. Myelomeningocele

D. Spina bifida

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C. I, Il and III

Determine the indications for computed tomograph of the thoracic spine

I. Rule out compression fracture

II. Determine presence of fibrotic scar tissue

III. Diagnose disc herniation

A. I and III

B. II and III

C. I, Il and III

D. I and lI

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c. uncertainty of dose due to variations in patient thickness will result when attempts wil made eliminate skin folds

When pelvic irradiation is delivered in an obese patient in the supine position, the concern is that

a. there would be difficulties in reproducing the patient's position each day

b. the patient's hands might be in treatment field when pulling up skin folds

c. uncertainty of dose due to variations in patient thickness will result when attempts wil made eliminate skin folds

d. the small bowel would be in different positions each day

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b. Spondylolisthesis

Determine the resultant condition when one vertebra slips forward out of place below it.

a. Spondylitis

b. Spondylolisthesis

c. Spondylosis

d. Spondylolysis

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c. Low energy x-rays will be absorbed

What is the effect of insertion of aluminum, copper, and tin filters into the x-ray beam?

a. Dose will increase

b. Unnecessary dose on the skin surface

c. Low energy x-rays will be absorbed

d. kVp will increase

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d. resistive

In magnetic resonance imaging, the type of magnet that will require a large amount of electrical supply is a magnet.

a. superconductive

b. Permanent

c. solenoid

d. resistive

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a. Lung

Strictly on the basis of proton density, classify the tissues that should appear the darkest.

a. Lung

b. Cortical bone

c. Muscle

d. Medullary bone

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b. 512 x 512

The MOST common matrix size used in combuted tomography is

a. 216 × 216

b. 512 x 512

c. 80 × 80

d. 102 x 102

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a. diameter of the collimator holes decreases

In nuclear medicine, collimator resolution improves as the

a. diameter of the collimator holes decreases

b. distance between the collimator and object increases

c. distance between the collimator and object decreases

d. effective length of the collimator holes decreases

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b. Ultrasound

Determine the gold standard for demonstrating anencephaly

a. Computed tomography

b. Ultrasound

c. Magnetic resonance imaging

d. Nuclear medicine

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A. Size of transducer

Select the MAJOR factor in determining the acoustic power output of the transducer

A. Size of transducer

B. Amount of gain

C. Amount of amplification at receiver

D. Magnitude of voltage spike

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A. shield testes and penis from the scattered dose of collimator

The PRIMARY purpose for a testicular protection in radiation therapy is to

A. shield testes and penis from the scattered dose of collimator

B. shield the testes from the primary beam

C. shield testes from scatter off the treatment couch

D. reduce amount of internal scattered dose in the testes

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a. a large, multilocular cystic mass

In an ultrasound examination, seminomas of the testicle may appear as

a. a large, multilocular cystic mass

b. a small, simple cyst

c. cannot be detected sonographically

d. a solid, homogenous mass

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B. A-mode

Choose the display in which the strength of the echo is related to the height of deflection oscilloscope.

A. B-scan

B. A-mode

C. M-mode

D. B-mode

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C. Prosthesis may be pulled from the patient

Determine the effect that may result in a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) patient prosthesis.

A. May be a contraindication for MRI

B. Image may be degraded

C. Prosthesis may be pulled from the patient

D. Examination may be ineffective

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C. Adenoma

Which of the following is a non-malignant tumor? A. Sarcoma

B. Adenocarcinoma

C. Adenoma

D. Carcinoma

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B. Abdominal

Which of the following computed tomography examinations uses oral contrast agents

A. Vascular

B. Abdominal

C. bone

D. Brain

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a. Echo train length

Identify the scan parameter chosen when performing a field echo sequence to satisfy a unique contrast appearance of the resultant image. a. Echo train length

b. Flip angle

c. Slice thickness

d. Distance factor

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B. l and III

Identify the causes of the resultant static on film in nuclear medicine.

I. Removing a sheet of film too quickly from the box of cassette

II. Contact with skin

III. contact with dust and or lint particles

A. Il and III

B. l and III

C. I and lI

D. I, Il and III

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D. I, II and III

Which of the following instruments will detect gamma radiation?

I. Gamma counter

II. Pen dosimeter

III. Survey meter

A. I and III

B. II and III

C. I and II

D. I, II and III

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b. Slip rings

Point out the technology that spiral computed tomography possible.

a. Fast reconstruction

b. Slip rings

c. Carbon fiber table

d. X-ray detectors

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D. Il and III

Identify the conditions that will use Technetium-99m (Tc99m) labeled RBC's for scintigraphy.

I. Meckel's diverticulum

II. Gastrointestinal bleeding

III. Hemangioma

A. I, Il and IlI

B. l and Il

C. I and III

D. Il and III

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C. Schilling

Identify the nuclear medicine test that will detect vitamin B12 deficiency.

A. Urea breath

B. Cr 51 red cell survival

C. Schilling

D. Radioimmunoassay

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D. Intussusception

Identify the condition with classic signs of presence of a currant jelly stools with a palpable sausage-shaped mass, a radiographic string, and staircase appearance.

A. Adynamic ileus

B. Foreign body

C. Gastric cancer

D. Intussusception

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D. Gamma

Identify the particulate emission wherein during its radioactive decay it allows 1-131 to destroy the thyroid follicular cells.

A. Alpha

B. Positron

C. Beta

D. Gamma

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D. "double"-bubble sign

The characteristic ultrasound pattern of duodenal atresia is ________

A. failure to identify fetal stomach

B. Chadwick's sign

C. "triple" - bubble sign

D. "double"-bubble sign

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A. Il and III

Identify the applications that commonly use transducers with continuous wave operation

I. Surgical

II. Therapeutic

III. Doppler

A. Il and III

B. I. Il and III

C. I and lI

D. I and III

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D. Fan-beam reconstruction

Select the type of algorithm that can be used if the number of detector rows is small in a multislice computed tomography scanner.

A. X-axis reconstruction

B. Cone-beam reconstruction

C. Z-axis reconstruction

D. Fan-beam reconstruction

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D. Neck lateral

Select the radiographic position that will clearly demonstrate an epiglottitis.

A. Chest anteroposterior

B. Neck posteroanterior

C. Chest posteroanterior

D. Neck lateral

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D. An oscillating electrons

In which of the following does the "sound" in ultrasound equipment originates from?

A. Radioactivity

B. Electron transfer from the outer shell to the inner shell

C. An antenna

D. An oscillating electrons

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b. I only

Which is probably the MOST accurate method of measuring the dose in computed tomography?

I. Pencil ionization

II. Thermoluminescent dosimetry

III. Film dosimetry

a. Ill only

b. I only

c. Il only

d. I, Il and III

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C. Grenz

Which of the following is also known as soft xrays? A. Gamma

B. Gentle

C. Grenz

D. Orthovoltage

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C. Truncation

Which of these artifacts appear as multiple rings of regularly periodicity or duplication at transitions between high and low intensity signals?

A. Cross excitation

B. Black boundary

C. Truncation

D. Partial volume

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D. Computed tomography

Which of the following modalities would BEST demonstrate rupture of the spleen as a result of blunt abdominal trauma?

A. Magnetic resonance imaging

B. Radiography

C. Ultrasound

D. Computed tomography

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B. Multi planar reformatting

Determine the transaxial data set software program that generates sagittal and coronal

A. Multislice computed tomography

B. Multi planar reformatting

C. Multi-reconstruction of computed tomography slices

D. Multidetector computed tomography

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B. Ecchymosis

Determine the condition that would imply a rupture of a blood vessel,

A. Petechiae

B. Ecchymosis

C. Hemorrhage

D. Purpura

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D. Field of view (FOV) is large

Determine when the truncation artifacts is MORE pronounced

A. Number of phase encoding acquisitions is large B. Repetition time is long

C. Number of phase-encoding acquisitions is small D. Field of view (FOV) is large

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C. 0.15 uCi

The impurity limit of Mo99 per 1 millicurie of Tc99m is

A. 0.15 mCi

B. 0.5 mCi

C. 0.15 uCi

D. 1.5 uCi

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D. Il and III

Choose the conditions that may be shown sonographically in an end-stage fatty liver such as severe cirrhosis.

I. Small shrunken liver

II. Portal hypertension

III. Biliary dilatation

A. I and lI

B. I and III

C. I, Il and III

D. Il and III

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A. Display characteristics

Identify the factor evaluated through the measure of signal processing electronics, transducer integrity, and frequency dependent matching layers.

A. Display characteristics

B. Time gain compensation

C. Axial resolution

D. lateral resolution

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D. Isodose curve at specified depth, tilted as a result of wedge being inserted in beam

Distinguish how a wedge angle is described in radiation therapy.

A. Isodose curve at specified depth, tilted with respect to the central axis of the beam

B. Less penetrating superficial beams

C. The actual wedge filter

D. Isodose curve at specified depth, tilted as a result of wedge being inserted in beam

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B. Stand

Point out the location of the x-ray tube in a conventional simulator.

A. Image intensifier

B. Stand

C. Modulator cabinet

D. Gantry

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D. Increased echogenicity

Determine the ultrasound display that is seen in splenomegaly.

A. Anechoic

B. Sonolucent

C. Decreased echogenicity

D. Increased echogenicity

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C. I, Il and III

Point out the factors that determine image quality in computed tomography.

I. Spatial and contrast resolution

II. Noise and artifacts

III. Radiation dose

A. I and lI

B. I and I

C. I, Il and III

D. Il and III

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A. long T1, short T2

A higher intensity magnetic resonance imaging signal is produced by a

A. long T1, short T2

B. short T1, long T2

C. short T1, short T2

D. long T1, long T2

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A. Headache

Distinguish the condition that is indicated on a physician's written request that will NOT warrant performing a computed tomography of the neck. A. Headache

B. Mass

C. Polyps

D. Goiter

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B. A-mode

Identify the displays in which the strength of the echo is related to the height of deflection on the oscilloscope.

A. B-mode

B. A-mode

C. B-scan

D. M-mode

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C. Gradient Echo

Which of the following is the oldest and MOST common type of fast imaging sequence?

A. Spin Echo

B. Inversion recovery

C. Gradient Echo

D. Proton Density

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B. Fluid- filled mass

Select the condition that would MOST likely cause acoustic enhancement sonographically

A. Solid mass

B. Fluid- filled mass

C. Multiple gallstone

D. Calcified mass

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C. Homogenous with medium level echogenicity

Determine the sonographic texture of the normal testis.

A. Heterogeneous with high intensity echoes

B. Heterogeneous with low level echogenicity

C. Homogenous with medium level echogenicity

D. Variable echo patter with no echogenicity

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C. Field of view (FOV) is large

Determine the condition in which partial volume averaging artifact exists

A. The repetition time is too short

B. A structure is contained within three or more slices

C. Field of view (FOV) is large

D. A structure is not fully contained within a slice

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A. Slice thickness

Identity which geometric factor would greatly affect spatial resolution in computed tomography. A. Slice thickness

B. Focal spot

C. Detector aperture width

D. Field of view

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C. Colle's

Classify the type of fracture resulting from falling on an outstretched hand involving the distal portion of the radius.

A. Pathologic

B. Pott's

C. Colle's

D. Stress

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D. right side of the lungs with atelectasis

Intrabronchial foreign body usually manifest as affecting the ________

A. left side of the lungs with atelectasis

B. left side of the lungs with no atelectasis

C. right side of the lungs with no atelectasis

D. right side of the lungs with atelectasis

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C. Superconductive

Classify the magnet type used in magnetic resonance imaging that requires liquid helium to reduce electrical resistance.

A. Solenoid

B. Permanent

C. Superconductive

D. Resistive

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A. Intensity

Distinguish the difference between the maximum value and equilibrium (average) value of an acoustic variable.

A. Intensity

B. Amplitude

C. Period

D. Power

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A. Easy to set-up, produce sharper penumbra, can be used with any field

Determine why multi-leaf collimators are different from custom-shaped blocks in radiation therapy.

A. Easy to set-up, produce sharper penumbra, can be used with any field

B. Produce scalloped isodose distributions in penumbra, extremely heavy, can produce any field shape or size

C. Easy to remove and replace between patients, produce sharper field edges, can be used with any field size

D. Produce step-like field edges, leakage can occur between leaves, can only be used with field sizes

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D. Can detect difference energies of radiation

Determine the advantage of using optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter (OSL) over other types of personnel dosimeter.

A. Do not require additional equipment to measure readings

B. Can be read immediately

C. Are the most inexpensive personnel dosimeter

D. Can detect difference energies of radiation

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A. I, Il and III

Distinguish the factors that will affect patient dose in computed tomography.

I. Kilovoltage peak and milliampere per second

II. Linear attenuation coefficient and Noise

III. Slice thickness and pixel size

A. I, Il and III

B. l and III

C. I and lI

D. II and III

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D. Reduce dose rate at center of unfiltered beam

Point out the use of a flattering filter in radiation therapy.

A. Cause the dose rate to be increased

B. Remove all of the electrons from the beam

C. Determine the dose rate of unfiltered beam

D. Reduce dose rate at center of unfiltered beam

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C. Cortical desmoid

Select the primary osseous lesion that usually demonstrates normal activity on bone scintigraphy. A. Osteoid osteoma

B. Fibrous dysplasia

C. Cortical desmoid

D. Ewing sarcoma

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D. Decibel

Choose the unit used for expressing the ratio of two quantities of electrical signal or sound energy. A. Attenuation

B. Density

C. Fertz

D. Decibel

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B. Tungsten

Determine the material that is NOT used as filter for low-energy treatment machines.

A. Thoraeous

B. Tungsten

C. Aluminum

D. Copper

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C. Mo99 in the Tc99m eluate

Select what is classified as a radionuclide impurity. A. Unbound 1-123 in 1-123 mlBG

B. Free Tc in the Tc99m eluate

C. Mo99 in the Tc99m eluate

D. HR Te in the Tc99m eluate

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C. Aneurysm

Which of the following refers to a localized bulging or dilation of an artery?

A. Fat emboli

B. Effusion

C. Aneurysm

D. Edema

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D. Slice thickness

In a single slice computed tomography, pitch is defined as patient couch movement per rotation divided by

A. increment

B. detector size

C. beam width

D. Slice thickness

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D. Venography

Identify the invasive procedure performed to determine deep vein thrombosis.

A. Doppler ultrasound

B. Arteriography

C. Computed tomography

D. Venography

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B. Aneurysm

Identify a localized bulging or dilatation of an artery.

A. Emboli

B. Aneurysm

C. Effusion

D. Edema

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D. Black

Identify the color of blood flow in a color Doppler that would MOST likely displayed Doppler is angled 90 1/2

A. Blue

B. Red

C. Yellow

D. Black

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B. Gradient magnetic field amplitude and timing

Select the principal determinant for the contrast rendition of a magnetic resonance (MR) image

A. The gray scale resolution of the computer

B. Gradient magnetic field amplitude and timing

C. Radiofrequency (RF) pulse amplitude and timing

D. The number of signal acquisitions

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C. Ischemic necrosis

Choose the pathologic condition that may occur following a trauma, which resulted in interrupted blood supply to the bone.

A. Crushing's

B. Vasculitis

C. Ischemic necrosis

D. Stress fracture

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C.Field size, distance, energy

Point out the factors in which the percentage depth dose is dependent on

A. Source skin distance, distance, treatment time

B. Energy, tissue density, treatment time

C.Field size, distance, energy

D. Field size, tissue density, energy