FE Civil Conceptual Updated 2023

which of the following is the Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) used?

PERT is used to monitor the progress and predict the completion time for large projects.

\-construction projects

\-computer programing assignments

\-preparation of bids and purposals

Which of the following duties would normally be a responsibility of the estimating department within a general contractor's organization?

The estimation process does not include tracking costs or recording actual expenses. The following is involved: obtaining bid documents, securing subcontractor/material quotations, and delivering competitive or negotiated proposals

In competitive bidding, when the bids are all opened, the owner will normally award the contract to the lowest

The lowest responsible bidder is the lowest bidder whose offer best responds in quality, fitness, and capacity to fulfill the particular requirements of the proposed project, and who can fulfill these requirements with the qualifications needed to complete the job in accordance with the terms of the contract.

The term "design-build" means the

Design-build is a process where the client interacts only with a single entity, the "design-builder." While the design-builder is usually the general contractor, it can also be the design firm or a partnership consisting of the design firm and contractor.

An activity is coded as 0793-31 62 13.16 using the Construction Specifications Institute's MasterFormat 2012. This coding represents

driving a deep foundation pile

Which of the following organizations is a contributor to the standard design and construction contract documents developed by the Engineers Joint Contract Documents Committee (EJCDC)?

\-National Society of Professional Engineers

\-Construction Specifications Institute

\-Associated General Contractors of America

What factor is responsible for an increase in production rates as a new task is repeated and practiced?

The learning curve is responsible for the usual increase in production rates as workers become skilled at a given task.

What does the crane hand signal shown mean? (hand raised out with fingers open)

Hand signals in the crane industry are standardized. This signal means to lower the boom and raise the load. If the fingers were not shown (a fist was being made), the signal would mean to lower the boom only [OSHA 29 CFR 1926.550(a)(4)].

In addition to protective goggles, what personal protective equipment is required when welding pipe in a deep trench?

OSHA does not normally consider an open trench to be a confined space. Although there are some combinations of base metals and rods that produce toxic fumes and would require respirators, these are rare in normal construction work, so welding in a trench would not normally result in the accumulation of toxic gases or the need for a respirator. A hard hat is always required [OSHA 29 CFR 1926.100].

Which of the following is generally attributable to hard water?

Hard water interferes with foam/bubble formation, turning soap into scum.

A fate and transport study was performed on phosphorus in a small pond. Biological processes in the pond biota convert phosphorus to a nonbioavailable form at the rate of 22% per year. Recycling of sediment phosphorus by rooted plants and by anaerobic conditions in the hypolimnion converts 12% per year of the nonbioavailable phosphorus back to bioavailable forms. Runoff into the pond evaporates during the year, so no change in pond volume occurs. Which of the following actions would best reduce the phosphorus accumulation in the pond?

-reducing use of phosphorus-based fertilizers in the surrounding fields

Hardness in natural water is caused by the presence of which of the following?

Hardness in natural water is caused by the presence of polyvalent metallic cations.

In aquatic systems, phosphorus recycling is significantly aided by which of the following?

In aquatic systems, phosphorus recycling is significantly aided by algae, macrophytes, and phytoplankton.

Which of the following are sources of color in water?

Copper, iron, and manganese ions, and industrial colloidal solids are all sources of color in water.

Which of the following processes is used to measure the amount of acid in water?

Titration is used to measure the amount of acid in water.

Acidity in water is typically specified in terms of which of the following?

The measurement of acidity in water is typically given in terms of the CaCO3 equivalent that would neutralize the acid.

The National Primary Drinking Water Regulations apply to every public water supply serving at least how many service connections?

Every public water supply serving 15 or more service connections must meet the National Primary Drinking Water Regulations.

The molar nitrogen-to-phosphorus (N:P) ratio for ideal algae growth is which of the following?

The molar N:P ratio for ideal algae growth is 16:1.

In water, excess amounts of which of the following can contribute to methemoglobinemia, or "blue baby" syndrome?

Excess amounts of nitrate in water can contribute to methemoglobinemia.

Primary treatment of wastewater consists of

The primary treatment of wastewater is the removal of solids and particles.

Which of the following diseases should be of concern to the environmental engineer when designing, operating, or managing water supply projects?

Items I through IV are not concerns: AIDS is not a waterborne disease; Rocky Mountain spotted fever is passed to humans by ticks; botulism is foodborne or can enter the body through contaminated soil or needles; and tuberculosis is spread by inhalation of infectious droplets.

Legionnaires' disease, on the other hand, is associated with heat transfer systems, warm temperature water, and stagnant water. Hepatitis A can also be spread through contaminated water.

Which of the following substances are used to remove calcium and magnesium from hard water?

Lime and soda ash are used to remove calcium and magnesium from hard water.

Water is recarbonated after it has been softened to

Water is recarbonated after it has been softened to lower its pH and reduce its scale-forming potential.

In addition to lime-soda treatment, what method can be used to reduce the hardness of water?

Various ion exchange methods are used to replace multivalent ions such as calcium (Ca++) and magnesium (Mg++) with monovalent ions such as sodium (Na+).

Noncarbonate hardness can be removed by which of the following?

Noncarbonate hardness cannot be removed by heating. It can be removed by precipitation softening processes (typically, the lime-soda ash process) or by ion exchange processes using resins selective for ions causing hardness

Which of the following are generally true for water treatment relative to the adsorption of a contaminate by activated carbon?

Adsorption is a physical process wherein the contaminant adheres to the surface of an adsorbent such as granular activated charcoal. Following saturation, the adsorbent can be reactivated in a number of ways and reused. Adsorbents are particularly effective at removing large organic molecules from the processing stream.

What can treated wastewater be used for?

Treated wastewater is generally not considered potable. Treated wastewater can be used for irrigation, fire-fighting, and road maintenance.

How is most wastewater phosphorus removed?

Most phosphorus is soluble. It must be removed through flocculation and sedimentation.

What is the primary factor that determines whether a stabilization pond will be aerobic or anaerobic?

The average depth of an aerobic stabilization pond is about 1.3 m, so aerobic conditions can be maintained throughout through photosynthesis and mixing due to wind and convection. Anaerobic ponds are much deeper, and the biological organisms rapidly deplete the oxygen at the deeper levels.

Which type of stabilization ponds are the most common for small communities?

Facultative ponds are the most common pond type selected for small communities.

Which of the following are used in the secondary treatment of wastewater?

Rotating contactors and biological beds are used in the secondary treatment of wastewater. Electrodialysis and air stripping are tertiary treatments.

Which of the following pollutants is a criteria pollutant as defined by the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)?

The criteria pollutants are carbon monoxide, lead, nitrogen dioxide, coarse and fine particles, ozone, and sulfur dioxide.

The abbreviation VOC stands for

VOC is an abbreviation for volatile organic compound.

Which of the following equations represents the formation of acid rain?

represents the formation of acid rain.

Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels typically results in the selective production of

Incomplete combustion is caused by a deficiency of oxygen during combustion. Carbon burns to CO because there is inadequate oxygen to produce CO2.

What is the minimum size of particles generally considered to be inhalable hazards?

Thoracic particles are generally less than 10 μm in size and are designated PM10.

Which of the following devices is the LEAST effective at removing fly ash particles with a diameter of 1 μm?

Air Cyclones rely on gravitational and centrifugal forces to collect particles. Small particles have small masses, rendering force-dependent collection methods less effective.

Where can a couple be moved on a rigid body to have an equivalent effect

Since a couple is composed of two equal but opposite forces, the x- and y-components will always cancel, no matter what the orientation. Only the moment produced by the couple remains.

Which type of load is NOT resisted by a pinned joint?

A pinned support will resist forces but not moments.

If the sum of the forces on a particle is not equal to zero, the particle is

Newton's second law can be applied separately to any direction in which forces are resolved into components, including the resultant direction. Since force and acceleration are both vectors, and mass is a scalar, the direction of acceleration is the same as the resultant force.

Why does a spinning ice skater's angular velocity increase as she brings her arms in toward her body?

As the skater brings her arms in, her radius of gyration and mass moment of inertia decrease. However, in the absence of friction, her angular momentum, H, is constant. Since angular velocity, ω, is inversely proportional to the mass moment of inertia, the angular velocity increases when the mass moment of inertia decreases.

The impulse-momentum principle is mostly useful for solving problems involving

Impulse is calculated from force and time. Momentum is calculated from mass and velocity. The impulse-momentum principle is useful in solving problems involving force, time, velocity, and mass.

Which of the following could be the Poisson ratio of a material?

The Poisson ratio is almost always in the range 0 < ν < 0.5. Option (A) (0.35) is the only answer that satisfies this condition.

A deep-submersible diving bell has a cylindrical pressure hull with an outside diameter of 3.5 m and a wall thickness of 15 cm constructed from a ductile material. The hull is expected to experience an external pressure of 50 MPa. The hull should be designed as a

Tanks under external pressure fail by buckling (i.e., collapse), not by yielding. They should not be designed using the simplistic formulas commonly used for thin-walled tanks under internal pressure.

What term is used for the ratio of stress to strain below the proportional limit?

E is Young's modulus, also called the modulus of elasticity, and is equal to stress divided by strain within the proportional region of the stress-strain curve.

What does an impact test measure?

An impact test measures the energy needed to fracture a test sample. This is a measure of toughness.

Which of the following characteristics describes martensite?

Martensite is a hard, strong, and brittle material formed by rapid cooling of austenite.

What is the hardest form of steel?

Hardness in steel is obtained by rapid quenching. Martensite is quenched rapidly, so it has a high hardness (an

Which of the following processes can increase the deformation resistance of steel?

Steel's hardness, or resistance to deformation, can be increased by surface hardening processes and by some alloying metals. However, tempering and hot working increase the ductility (deformation capability) of steel, not its hardness.

Corrosion of iron can be inhibited with a more electropositive coating, while a less electropositive coating tends to accelerate corrosion. Which of these coatings will contribute to corrosion of iron products?

Zinc, aluminum, and magnesium are all more electropositive (anodic) than iron and will corrode sacrificially to protect it. Gold is more cathodic and will be protected at the expense of the iron.

Which statement about the modulus of elasticity, E, is true?

The modulus of elasticity is the slope of the stress-strain diagram in the linearly elastic region.

A two-way slab supported on a column grid without the use of beams is known as a

A two-way slab supported on a column grid without the use of beams is known as a flat plate.

Which of the following criteria must be met in order for the compressive strength of concrete to be satisfied?

The compressive strength of concrete is considered satisfactory if two criteria are met: (a) no single strength test falls below the specified compressive strength, , by more than , and (b) the average of every three consecutive strength tests equals or exceeds the specified compressive strength.

A waste product of coal-burning power-generation stations, fly ash, is the most common pozzolamic additive. Which of the following statements are true about fly ash?

Fly ash reacts with calcium hydroxide to increase binding, acts as a microfiller between cement particles to increase strength and durability while decreasing permeability, and enhances resistance to scaling from road-deicing chemicals when it meets ASTM C618 and is used as a replacement for less than 45% of the portland cement.

Which category of steel contains 0.15-0.29% carbon?

Carbon steels are divided into four categories based on the percentages of carbon: low-carbon (less than 0.15%), mild-carbon (0.15-0.29%), medium-carbon (0.30-0.59%), and high-carbon (0.60-1.70%).

Which property of steel allows it to undergo large inelastic deformations without fracture?

Ductility is the ability of steel to undergo large inelastic deformations without fracture.

All of the following are conditions that must be satisfied in order to use the simplified method for computing shear and moments in one-way slabs, given in ACI 318 Sec. 8.3.3,

when the following conditions are satisfied: (a) There are two or more spans. (b) Spans are approximately equal, with the longer of two adjacent spans not longer than the shorter by more than 20%. (c) The loads are uniformly distributed. (d) The ratio of live to dead loads is no more than 3. (e) The slab has a uniform thickness.

According to ACI 318 Sec. 14.3.3, the minimum horizontal reinforcement for nonbearing walls is

the minimum horizontal reinforcement for nonbearing walls as (a) 0.0020 times the gross concrete area for deformed no. 5 bars or smaller and fy ≥ 60,000 psi; (b) 0.0025 times the gross concrete area for other deformed bars; and (c) 0.0020 times the gross concrete area for smooth or deformed welded wire reinforcement not larger than W31 or D31.

The critical sections are a distance, d, from the face of the column in

For one-way shear (also known as single-action shear and wide-beam shear), the critical sections are a distance, d, from the face of the column.

A long column member has one end built-in and the other end pinned. The column is loaded in compression evenly until buckling occurs. Which statement about the column after buckling is true?

The built-in end of the column is completely fixed against rotation and translation. The pinned end of the column is free to rotate but is fixed against translation. Therefore, the pinned end of the column experiences more rotational deflection, and the maximum deflection point is closer to the pinned end of the column.

What must be proven for damages to be collected from a strict liability in tort?

In order to prove strict liability in tort, it must be shown that a product defect caused an injury. Negligence need not be proven, nor must the manufacturer know about the defect before release.

A material breach of contract occurs when the

A material breach of the contract is a significant event that is grounds for cancelling the contract entirely. Typical triggering events include failure of the owner to make payments, the owner causing delays, the owner declaring bankruptcy, the contractor abandoning the job, or the contractor getting substantially off schedule.

If a contract has a value engineering clause and a contractor suggests to the owner that a feature or method be used to reduce the annual maintenance cost of the finished project, what will be the most likely outcome?

Changes to a structure's performance, safety, appearance, or maintenance that benefit the owner in the long run will be covered by the value engineering clause of a contract. Normally, the contractor is able to share in cost savings in some manner by receiving a payment or credit to the contract.

A tort is

A tort is a civil wrong committed against a person or his/her property which results in some form of damages. Torts are normally resolved through lawsuits.

If a contract does not include the boilerplate clause, "Time is of the essence," which of the following is true?

This clause must be included in order to recover damages due to delay.

Which statement is true regarding the legality and enforceability of contracts?

A contract does not need to use as its basis or include a purchase order to be enforceable. Oral contracts may be legally binding in some instances, depending on the circumstances and purpose of the contract. Oral contracts may be difficult to enforce, however, and should not be used for engineering and construction agreements.

Which option best describes the contractual lines of privity between parties in a general construction contract?

With a general construction contract, a consulting engineer will be hired by the owner to develop the design and contract documents, as well as to assist in the preparation of the bid documents and provide contract administrative services during the construction phase. The contract documents produced by the engineer will form the basis of the owner's agreement with the contractor. Although the engineer will work closely with the contractor during the construction phase, and may work with subcontractors as well, the engineer will not have a contractual line of privity with either party.

A contract has a value engineering clause that allows the parties to share in improvements that reduce cost. The contractor had originally planned to transport concrete on-site for a small pour with motorized wheelbarrows. On the day of the pour, however, a concrete pump is available and is used, substantially reducing the contractor's labor cost for the day. This is an example of

The problem gives an example of efficient methodology, where the benefit is to the contractor only. It is not an example of value engineering, as the change affects the contractor, not the owner. Performance, safety, appearance, and maintenance are unaffected.

In which of the following fee structures is a specific sum paid to the engineer for each day spent on the project?

A specific fee is paid to the engineer for each day on the job in a per-diem fee structure.

What type of damages is paid when responsibility is proven but the injury is slight or insignificant?

Nominal damages are awarded for inconsequential injuries.

In order for a contract to be legally binding, it must

\-be established for a legal purpose

\-contain a mutual agreement by all parties

\-have consideration, or an exchange of something of value (e.g., a service is provided in exchange for a fee)

\-not obligate parties to perform illegal activity

\-not be between parties that are mentally incompetent, minors, or do not otherwise have the power to enter into the contract

An environmental engineer with five years of experience reads a story in the daily paper about a proposal being presented to the city council to construct a new sewage treatment plant near protected wetlands. Based on professional experience and the facts presented in the newspaper, the engineer suspects the plant would be extremely harmful to the local ecosystem. Which of the following would be an acceptable course of action?

The engineer certainly has more experience and knowledge in the field than the general public or even the council members who will have to vote on the issue. Therefore, the engineer is qualified to express his opinion if he wishes to do so. Before the engineer takes any public position, however, the engineer is obligated to make sure that all the available information has been collected.

An engineer is consulting for a construction company that has been receiving bad publicity in the local papers about its waste-handling practices. Knowing that this criticism is based on public misperceptions and the paper's thirst for controversial stories, the engineer would like to write an article to be printed in the paper's editorial page. What statement best describes the engineer's ethical obligations?

It is ethical for the engineer to issue a public statement concerning a company he works for, provided he makes that relationship clear and provided the statement is truthful and objective.

After making a presentation for an international project, an engineer is told by a foreign official that his company will be awarded the contract, but only if it hires the official's brother as an advisor to the project. The engineer sees this as a form of extortion and informs his boss. His boss tells him that, while it might be illegal in the United States, it is a customary and legal business practice in the foreign country. The boss impresses upon the engineer the importance of getting the project, but leaves the details up to the engineer. What should the engineer do?

He should inform the government official that his company will not hire the official's brother as a precondition for being awarded the contract, but invite the brother to submit an application for employment with the company.

If one is aware that a registered engineer willfully violates a state's rule of professional conduct, one should

A violation should be reported to the organization that has promulgated the rule.

Which of the following is an ethics violation specifically included in the National Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES) Model Rules?

The National Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES) Model Rules specifically states that registrants may not perform work beyond their level of expertise. The other two examples may be unethical under some circumstances, but are not specifically forbidden by the NCEES code.

A senior licensed professional engineer with 30 years of experience in geotechnical engineering is placed in charge of a multidisciplinary design team consisting of a structural group, a geotechnical group, and an environmental group. In this role, the engineer is responsible for supervising and coordinating the efforts of the groups when working on large interconnected projects. In order to facilitate coordination, designs are prepared by the groups under the direct supervision of the group leader, and then they are submitted to her for review and approval. This arrangement is ethical as long as

Licensees may accept assignments for coordination of an entire project, provided that each design segment is signed and sealed by the registrant responsible for preparation of that design segment.

The National Society of Professional Engineers' (NSPE) Code of Ethics for Engineers addresses competitive bidding. Which of the following is NOT stipulated?

Clients are not required to seek competitive bids. In fact, many engineering societies discourage the use of bidding to procure design services because it is believed that competitive bidding results in lower-quality construction.

A city engineer is in charge of receiving bids on behalf of the city council. A contractor's bid arrives with two tickets to a professional football game. The bid is the lowest received. What should the engineer do?

Registrants should not accept gifts from parties expecting special consideration, so the tickets cannot be kept. They also should not be merely discarded, for several reasons. Inasmuch as the motive of the contractor is not known with certainty, in the absence of other bidding rules, the bid may be accepted.

A relatively new engineering firm is considering running an advertisement for their services in the local newspaper. An ad agency has supplied them with four concepts. Of the four ad concepts, which one(s) would be acceptable from the standpoint of professional ethics?

None of the ads is acceptable from the standpoint of professional ethics. Concepts I and II are explicitly prohibited by the National Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying (NCEES) Model Rules. Concept III demeans the profession of engineering by placing the emphasis on price as opposed to the quality of services. Concept IV is a misrepresentation; the picture of the Golden Gate Bridge in the background might lead some potential clients to believe that the engineering firm in question had some role in the design or construction of that project.

"A professional engineer who took the licensing examination in mechanical engineering may

Although the laws vary from state to state, engineers are usually licensed generically. Engineers are licensed as "professional engineers." The scope of their work is limited only by their competence. In the states where the license is in a particular engineering discipline, an engineer may "touch upon" another discipline when the work is insignificant and/or incidental.

An engineering firm is hired by a developer to prepare plans for a shopping mall. Prior to the final bid date, several contractors who have received bid documents and plans contact the engineering firm with requests for information relating to the project. What can the engineering firm do?

It is normal for engineers and architects to clarify the bid documents. However, some information may be proprietary to the developer. The engineering firm should only reveal information that has already been publicly disseminated or approved for release with the consent of the client.

Which organization provides the authority for the private practice of engineering?

State laws provide the authority for professional practice. NCEES writes the examinations used by the states. ABET accredits four-year degree programs. The United States Department of Commerce is not involved.

Reciprocity is a term that describes the process by which one state may honor an engineer's professional engineering license from another state. Which word is commonly used as a synonym for "reciprocity"?

The terms comity and reciprocity, though slightly different in meaning, are often used synonymously.

What term best defines the reason that engineers working for some companies do not need to be licensed as professional engineers?

Professional licensure is intended to protect the public from engineers in private practice. States have various laws, commonly referred to as "industrial exemptions," that allow engineers to work in the industry (e.g., in companies that produce products) without being licensed.

The purpose of professional licensure of engineers is to

Although engineering licensure laws do protect engineering titles, the purpose of professional licensure is to protect public health, safety, and welfare from unqualified practitioners.

What is the design perception-reaction time recommended by the American Association of State Highway and Transportation Officials (AASHTO) for calculating stopping sight distance?

The typical range of reaction times is 1.5-3 sec. AASHTO recommends a design perception-reaction time of 2.5 sec.

What is the accepted normal limit of peripheral vision?

The accepted normal limit of peripheral vision is 160°, although some individuals have peripheral vision up to 180°

What is the maximum light-intensity-contrast ratio perceptible to the human eye?

The maximum light-intensity-contrast ratio discernible to the human eye is 3:1.

What percentage of roadway fatalities occur in a work zone annually?

Work zones account for approximately 2% of all roadway fatalities each year.

Which statement(s) concerning methods used to determine areas under a curve or line is/are true?

The trapezoidal rule is applicable to areas where the irregular sides are straight or nearly straight. Option I is false. Simpson's rule is applicable to areas whose irregular sides are curved, but applies only to an even number of segments (i.e., an odd number of segment end points). Option II is false. The area by coordinates method calculates the traverse area using the coordinates of the leg end points. Option III is true.

A leak from a faucet comes out in separate drops instead of a stream. What is the main cause of this phenomenon?

Surface tension is caused by the molecular cohesive forces in a fluid. It is the main cause of the formation of drops of water.

What does one pascal represent?

1N/m^2

What is a kip?

1000 lbf (force)

What is a metric ton?

1000 kg

Which of the following statements is TRUE for all noncircular ellipses?

\-The eccentricity, e, is less than one.

\-the ellipse has two foci

\-the sum of the two distances from the two foci to any point on the ellipse is 2a

The equation y \= a1 + a2x is an algebraic expression for which of the following?

y \= mx + b is the slope-intercept form of the equation of a straight line. a1 and a2 are both constants, so y \= a1 + a2x describes a straight line.

The equation 3x2+ 4y2 \= 1 defines

an ellipse

What is the name for a vector that represents the sum of two vectors?

By definition, the sum of two vectors is known as the resultant.

Which of the following statements is true for a power series with the general term ?

Power series can be added together, subtracted from each other, differentiated, and integrated within their interval of convergence. The interval of convergence is −1 < x < 1.