Food animal disease and management Final

March 7 tuesday 1:30-4:30

Where is the withers located?

highest point of the back right behind the neck; usually on top of the shoulders

What are the short ribs?

the transverse processes of the spine behind the ribs

What is the function of the reticulum?

absorption of water, soluble vitamins and VFAs, home for magnet to trap foreign material

What is the function of the abomasum?

true stomach; enzymatic digestion with HCl and pepsin

What happens in the large intestine?

absorption of water, minerals, and VFAs

*be able to explain point of balance/flight zone*

How does a tail jack work (not how to do it)?

distraction by elevating the tail; gently pinches vertebrae and caudal nerves which prevents animal from kicking or reacting to manipulations in other areas

What is a good restraint method for first time milking?

flank rope

What is the purpose of sideline restraint technique?

to position an animal against a flat surface; okay if there is no head chute but a solid barn side/wall

What is the most common form of individual restraint in swine?

hog snare

What are the production cycle lengths for dairy cows (total productive life, milking, dry, etc)?

productive life is about 4-5 years; 305 days milking, 60 days dry, 283 days gestation

What age should dairy heifers be calving?

~23-26 months

What are the reasons we would cull a dairy cow?

reproductive failure (\#1), low milk yields, udder breakdown, foot and leg weakness, and mastitis

What does a cow/calf producer do?

herd of brood cows; weans and sells calves; usually bull bred

What does a backgrounder/stocker do?

buys calves 300-700 lbs from auction or producer; develops on forage or grain to market weight in order to sell to feedlots

What are the parameters for cows?

t\= 100-103.5 F ;p\=48-84 bpm; r\=10-45 bpm; rumen contractions\= 1-3/ minute

What are the parameters for swine?

t\= 100-102.5 F; p\= 70-90 bpm; r\= 10-24 bpm

What are the parameters for sheep/goats?

t\=102-104 F; p\=70-90; r\=20-30 bpm

What are the parameters for camelids?

t\= 99.5-102 F; p\= 70-120 (alpaca) and 60-90 (llama); r\= 10-30

When do you collect urine in your physical exam?

very first thing

What are the landmarks for asculting the heart and lungs?

heart: intercostal spaces 3-5 right behind the elbow

lungs: point of elbow, T13 transverse process, and caudal to the triceps

*review the ping diagram*

What lymph nodes do we palpate on physical exam?

submandibular, prescapular, prefemoral, and supramammary

What are IBR, PI3, BRSV, and BVD?

big 4 causes of respiratory disease in bovine

What are the 5 levels of protection for vaccines and what do they mean?

1. prevention of infection: prevent all colonization or replication of the challenge organism
2. prevention of disease: highly effective in preventing clinical disease
3. Aid in disease prevention: prevent disease in vaccinated and challenged animals by a clinically significant amount
4. aid in disease control: alleviate disease severity, reduce disease duration, or delay disease onset
5. other claims

What is the causative agent of pink eye in cattle?

Moraxella bovis

What is pasturella related to?

pneumonia and pericarditis

What is histophilus somini?

pneumonia, abortions, septic arthritis

What are the locations for MLV vs. killed vaccines? Why?

MLV vaccines always go low; we do this so that gravity doesn't pull the vaccine down into another one we have already given- mixing risks the inactivation of both vaccines

What needle size should we use for SQ injections?

18 or 16 g 3/4"

What are the injection sites for SQ/IM injections? *review the picture*

How many gram negative vaccines can we give to beef cattle? stressed or dairy cows?

3; 2

How long should you hold off after a tail stick?

30 seconds

What are the locations for pig venipuncture?

jugular and marginal ear vein

What is the landmark for a rumenocentesis, and why would we perform one?

caudoventral to the costochonrdal junction of the last rib; perform to check rumen pH

What is the purpose of CMT test? *be able to interpret results*

testing for subclinical mastitis; gel consistency indicates positive- there are varying degrees

What are the ways we can check for proper placement of an orogastric tube?

1. suck on the end of the tube as it is being passed and check for negative pressure (only while the tube is in the esophagus)
2. blow on the end of the tube and listen to bubbles
3. smell for rumen contents

What is the purpose of an intramammary infusion?

to prevent or treat mastitis

What should we do to an animal after giving an intramammary infusion?

occlude the teat orifice and massage teat and quarter to distribute the medication; mark the animal so its milk is not consumed

How does hot branding work and what color is it?

for light colored animals; kills hair follicles and is black

How does freeze branding work and what color is it?

for darker animals; it kills pigment producing cells and is white

Where would a brucellosis tattoo go?

right ear

What do piglet ear notches mean (left vs. right ear)?

right ear= litter number

left ear= pig number

Why would we ear notch calves?

to test for BVDV

Who gets brucellosis vaccines?

virgin heifers (only once)

What are the landmarks for a proximal paravertebral block?

cranial edge of L1, L2, and L3 approximately 1 inch off midline

What are the landmarks for a distal paravertebral block?

transverse process of L1, L2, and L4 (above and below and fan out)

How would you know if a distal paravertebral block worked? What is one additional way you can check to see if a proximal paravertebral block worked?

check for pain sensation (prick the skin and look for a reaction), blocked areas feel warmer to the touch due to vasodilation; scoliosis is only caused by a paravertebral block due to unilateral muscle relaxation!

What blocks do we use for working on the eye?

Peterson nerve block or retrobulbar (four-point) block

What nerve do we block for dehorning?

cornual branch of the lacrimal nerve

How long can a tourniquet be left on?

1 hour

What are some of the dehorning methods and what are the age restrictions for these?

cosmetic dehorning (where head is "reshaped") can be performed after 4 months of age; tube dehorner, dehorning paste, electrocautery is best- in combination with barnes dehorner if needed

What is the preferred C-section approach?

left flank

What is the most common approach for flank surgeries?

left flank

What is the reversal for xylazine?

yohimbine, tolazoline

What is the most predictable method to use xylazine?

IV

What block do we use for work on the male repro tract?

Internal pudendal nerve block

What are the landmarks for an inverted L block?

start at the 13th rib and go up until the transverse process, then follow the transverse process until the tuber coxae

What side would we do a rumenotomy on?

left

What is transfunation and why would we do it?

the transfer of rumen contents from a healthy animal to one that has lost its population of normal rumen flora

What is the difference in a rumenotomy and rumenostomy?

rumenotomy would be cutting open to fix a problem, getting something out, etc. while rumenostomy is making a temporary hole that will stay open for some length of time in order to relieve bloat, give fluid therapy, etc.

What are the non-surgical castration methods and how do they work?

Elastator band- cut off blood supply so the testicles eventually fall off

burdizzo- cut off blood supply by crushing the spermatic cord; therefore testicle no longer function

chemical- inject a toxin into testicles so they can no longer function

What breeds are Bos indicus and what are their characteristics?

brahman type; looser, thicker skin, prominent bump, handle hot weather well

What breeds are Bos taurus and what are their characteristics?

hereford type; tight all around, adapted for colder/drier climates

What are the causes of laminitis?

housing conditions, genetics, nutrition (high carbs), peripaturient period

What is the difference in acute and subacute laminitis?

acute is when the corium wells within the hoof and becomes very painful but there are no obvious changes to the hoof; subacute is when acute laminitis is allowed to continue beyond several days

What cows are most at risk for white line disease?

heavy, high-yielding dairy cattle kept under confined conditions

What should we do for a cow that has corkscrew claw?

trim/shorten claw as much as possible but affected animals should be culled and not allowed to breed

What is the causative agent of foot rot in sheep?

Dichelobacter nodosus

What is the first clinical sign of a sole ulcer?

sole hemorrhage

Where does the majority of bovine lameness occur?

the lateral claw of the hind feet

What is interdigital dermatitis (pictures)? cause? treatment?

mild inflammatory condition of the interdigital skin; caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum and more common in cows continually exposed to manure slurries and moisture; for individual animals topical antibiotics under loose wraps and for herds foot baths with cooper sulfate and formalin

What are the digit amputation pros and cons?

pros: complete removal of infected tissue and faster recovery

cons: looks weird, decreased herd retention time (< 1 year), and breakdown of other claw

What is the treatment for foot rot in sheep?

separate infected; foot baths with 10% zinc sulfate plus systematic antibiotics for 2 weeks--\> then recheck and treat for 2 more weeks if necessary\----\> cull if still not healed

What is the clinical sign that giardia produces in all species?

diarrhea

Which one out of salmonella, giardia, and cryptosporidium are the worse?

salmonella- it can cause sepsis

What is the most common way that humans get lepto and how does it present?

contaminated water; presents as a flu-like illness

Is the Brucellosis vaccine dangerous to humans? Which strain is more dangerous?

yes; RB 51 strain is less dangerous than previous strain 19 vaccine

What is the most common form of zoonotic anthrax?

cutaneous

What does brucellosis cause in people?

undulant fever

What are the "big 4" respiratory diseases (spell them out)?

IBR- infectious bovine rhinotracheitis

PI3- parainfluenza 3

BRSV- bovine respiratory syncytial virus

BVDV- bovine viral diarrhea virus

What are some stressor for bovine respiratory disease?

\-transportation

\-vaccination/processing

\-parasites

\-co-mingling cattle

\-poor ventilation

\-for calves: weaning, dehorning, castration, being a BVD PI calf

What are BRSV characteristics?

can caused viral pneumonia on its own; more common in calves 3-12 months old

What are BVDV characteristics?

most advanced disease out of the 4; causes PI calves; CS: stiff movements, dropped ears, arched back, open mouth breathing

What days in utero would a calf be infected with BVD to become a PI calf?

45-125

How do we test for PI calves?

ear notch

*be able to explain withdrawal times*

What is the causative agent of bovine tuberculosis?

Mycobacterium bovis

What are the characteristics of myoplasma hyopnemoniae?

most common cause of chronic pneumonia in pigs; "won't die, won't grow"; most commonly seen in late-nursery to early finishing areas; treated with Lincomycin

What are the characteristics of APP?

Actinobacillus pleuropneumonia; causes thumps, blue ears; high mortality; responds well to antibiotics if treated promptly

What is the only approved antibiotic for caprine pneumonia?

Naxcel (ceftiofur)

What are some ways to prevent pneumonia in small ruminants?

vaccination, better sanitation and air quality, minimize transport stress, quarantine new animals, administer trace minerals to improve immune system, good quality food, and isolate sick animals

What are the characteristics of avian influenza?

mild or highly pathogenic; loss of appetite, diarrhea, drop in egg production, blue comb and wattle; no treatment; usually results in depop and repop programs

What are the characteristics of newcastle disease?

not common but reportable; sudden onset- hoarse chirps in chicks, watery nasal discharge, facial swelling, paralysis, and trembling

*review the causative agents of calf scours at certain ages*

Adults have more \_______, while calves have more \_______.

alkalosis, acidosis

How much do we feed calves for the first 3 weeks of life (in %)?

6,8,10

What are some characteristics of bloat?

excess gas accumulation in rumen; left side distention, anorexia, increased urination/defecation

What is the importance of Haemonchus contortus in the small ruminant industry?

it causes anemia (also part of HOT complex)

What is a FAMACHA card and why is it used?

card used to tell you how anemic a small ruminant is because of parasite load based on the color of ocular mucous membranes; it is used to prevent overtreating for parasites which would create anthelmenthic resistance