Instrument Stage 2 Exam

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50 Terms

1
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A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used…?

A. In lieu of conducting an SIEP

2
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You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan which prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?

C. Clear of clouds and at least 1 statute mile of visibility

3
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How wide is an SDF course?

Either 6 or 12 degrees

4
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To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern above 14,000 feet in a propeller driven airplane, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

A. 265 Knots

5
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Which fixes on an IEP chart are initial approach fixes?

Any fix labeled as (IAF)

6
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<p>In figure 217, the symbol on the plan view on the ILS procedure represents minimum safe sector altitudes within 25 miles of…?</p>

In figure 217, the symbol on the plan view on the ILS procedure represents minimum safe sector altitudes within 25 miles of…?

The VORTAC

7
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<p>In figures 174 and 175, at which point does the JEN.JEN9 arrival begin?</p>

In figures 174 and 175, at which point does the JEN.JEN9 arrival begin?

ABI VORTAC

8
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Which clearance procedures may be issed by ATC without prior pilot request?

C. DP’S, STARS, and visual approaches 

9
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The standard IFR climb radiant is?

C. 200 feet per NM

10
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<p>In figure 235, what is the LPV decision altitude for the Lincoln RNAV GPS Runway 32?</p>

In figure 235, what is the LPV decision altitude for the Lincoln RNAV GPS Runway 32?

1429 feet MSL

11
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What feature is associated with temperature inversion?

A. A stable layer of air

12
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Temperature and radiation variations over land with a clear sky typically lead to?

A. Minimum temperature occuring after sunrise

13
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Under which conditions does advection fog usually form?

Moist air moving over colder ground or water 

14
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Clouds, fog, or dew, will always form when?

A. Water vapor condenses

15
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Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?

C. Frost causes early airflow seperation resulting in a loss of lift.

16
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Tailplane icing can be detected by

A. Elevator control pulsing, oscillations, or vibrations.

17
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What type of icing should be expected when you encounter supercooled large droplets(SLD) that splash and splatter on impact at temperatures below -5 OAT. 

C. Ice that forms on the wing aft of the active part of the deicing boots.

18
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Which is true about ice formation on a wing surface?

Ice or frost formation on a wing surface can result in localized asymmetrical stalls on the wing resulting in roll control problems during liftoff. 

19
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Which is a characteristic of low level windshear as it relates to low level temperature inversions?

A. Allows airspeed to go above normal climb and approach speed.

20
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<p>In figure 13, what will the microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4?</p>

In figure 13, what will the microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4?

Increasing tailwind and downdraft, resulting in loss of lift and airspeed.

21
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ARMETS are issued on a scheduled basis every…?

C. 6 hours

22
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The body of a TAF covers a geographical proximity within a…?

B. 5SM radius from the center of an airport runway complex.

23
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<p>In figure 264, what does the term cirrus in area A indicate?</p>

In figure 264, what does the term cirrus in area A indicate?

A.Clouds above FL 180

24
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<p>In figure 20, what is the height of the center of the low&nbsp;tropopause height over eastern Canada?</p>

In figure 20, what is the height of the center of the low tropopause height over eastern Canada?

FL270

25
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What determines how icing is reported on a pirep?

C. Rate of accumulation

26
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What flight planning information can a pilot derive from constant pressure charts?

C. Winds and temperature aloft

27
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What is the information provided by a convective outlook?

…thunderstorms

28
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If you encounter in flight icing and ATC asks you to report your conditions, what are the offical icing reporting values that you are expected to use?

B. Trace, light, moderate, severe

29
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The distance, measured in millibars, seperating isobars on surface analysis charts are typically…?

B. 4MB

30
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Locations of fronts and pressure systems as of chart time are best determined by referring to a…?

C. Surface analysis chart

31
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Reception of signals from an offshore radio facility may be inaccurate to identify the fix at the designated MEA, which altitude is designated from the fix?

A. MRA

32
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Reception of signals from a radio facility located off the airway being flown may be inaccurate at the designated MEA to identify the fix, which altitude is designated from the fix?

B. MRA 

33
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ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist and when within…?

A. 22 miles from a VOR 

34
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When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude + 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?

When assigned a VFR on top clearance

35
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You have filed an IFR flight plan for a VFR on top clearance in lieu of an assigned altitude, if you receive this clearance when flying a course of 180, at what altitude should you fly assuming VFR conditions?

An even thousand foot MSL altitude +500 feet

36
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What cruising altitude is appropriate for VFR on top westbound flight below 18,000 feet?

B. Even thousand foot levels + 500 feet, but not below MEA

37
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<p>In figure 89, what VHF frequency’s are available for communications with Cedar City FSS?</p>

In figure 89, what VHF frequency’s are available for communications with Cedar City FSS?

117.3

38
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<p>In figure 91, what are the two limiting cruising altitudes usable on V343 for a VFR on top clearance between the DBS VORTAC and RANEY?&nbsp;</p>

In figure 91, what are the two limiting cruising altitudes usable on V343 for a VFR on top clearance between the DBS VORTAC and RANEY? 

An odd thousand +500 altitude 

39
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<p>In figure 91, when flying a northbound IFR flight on V257 what is the minimum crossing altitude at the DBS VORTAC?</p>

In figure 91, when flying a northbound IFR flight on V257 what is the minimum crossing altitude at the DBS VORTAC?

8,600 feet MSL 

40
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<p>In figure 64,&nbsp;the CDI is centered, which indication on the number 1 and number 2 VOR receivers on the Lafayette regional airport would meet the requirements for a VOR check?</p>

In figure 64, the CDI is centered, which indication on the number 1 and number 2 VOR receivers on the Lafayette regional airport would meet the requirements for a VOR check?

355 degrees, 4 degrees (FROM)

41
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In figure 24, the winds are 230 at 40 knots, true airspeed is 130 knots, GPH 17. 

Calculate on test

42
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<p>In figure 48, what is your position relative to 9 DME arc on the 206 radial of the instrument departure?</p>

In figure 48, what is your position relative to 9 DME arc on the 206 radial of the instrument departure?

C. Inside the DME ARC

43
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<p>In figure 47, enroute from V112 to BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude crossing the GYMME intersection is…?</p>

In figure 47, enroute from V112 to BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude crossing the GYMME intersection is…?

7,000 feet MSL

44
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<p>In figure 189, your moving 100 knots, 385 feet per NM, what is the rate per NM?</p>

In figure 189, your moving 100 knots, 385 feet per NM, what is the rate per NM?

643 feet per minute

45
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<p>In figure 91, where is your change over point (COP)? </p>

In figure 91, where is your change over point (COP)?

Check on test

46
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<p>In figure 40, for planning purposes, what is the highest usable altitude for IFR flight from V16 between the BGS VORTAC and the ABI VORTAC?</p>

In figure 40, for planning purposes, what is the highest usable altitude for IFR flight from V16 between the BGS VORTAC and the ABI VORTAC?

Odd altitude plus 1000

47
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<p>In figure 210 and legend 30, which landing and runway environment lighting is available for approach and landing on runway 6 at Bradley INTL?</p>

In figure 210 and legend 30, which landing and runway environment lighting is available for approach and landing on runway 6 at Bradley INTL?

ALSF-2 approach lighting 

48
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<p>In figure 78, when eastbound on V86 between white hall and livingston the minimum altitude you should cross Bozeman is…?</p>

In figure 78, when eastbound on V86 between white hall and livingston the minimum altitude you should cross Bozeman is…?

10,200 feet 

49
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<p>In figure 78, what is the maximum altitude you may flight plan an IFR flight on V86 eastbound between Bozeman and billings VORTACS?</p>

In figure 78, what is the maximum altitude you may flight plan an IFR flight on V86 eastbound between Bozeman and billings VORTACS?

Odd altitude +1000

50
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Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach for landing on runway 28 of an aircraft with a vso of 72 knots?

Category B