NBDHE Mock Board

Which has the highest powder-to-water ratio?

Plaster

Type III stone

Type IV stone

Type V stone

type V (die stone)

Patients with uncontrolled diabetes might exhibit each of the following conditions EXCEPT one.

-Generalized widening of PDL space

-Peripheral neuropathy

-Polyuria

-Retinopathy

generalized widening of PDL space

Which is the handpiece primarily used for intraoral polishing?

a. Belt-driven

b. High speed

c. Low speed

d. Porte polisher

low speed

A 10-year old exhibits mild dental fluorosis and resides in a non-fluoridated area. Which most accurately describes the rationale for this condition?

a. Received professionally applied fluoride therapy

b. Recently moved to the area

c. Uses a daily fluoride rinse

d. Uses an over-the-counter brush-on gel daily

Uses a daily fluoride rinse

A patient has a removable partial denture which replaces the missing mandib. teeth. Which tissue is best suited to support this appliance?

a. Alveolar mucosa

b. Lining mucosa

c. Masticatory mucosa

d. Specialized mucosa

lining mucosa

Which is most likely the cause of erosion located on several cusps of mandibular molars and premolars?

a. Highly-carbonated diet

b. GERD

c. Medications

d. Poor oral hygiene

Highly-carbonated diet

Tonic-clonic seizure phases are:

a. alternating spasms of rigidity and relaxation

b. typical of petit mal epilepsy

c. urinary bladder muscle spasms

d. usually limited to a single limb

alternating spasms of rigidity and relaxation

Tooth 30 presents with Class III furcation involvement. Which Gracey curette design is best suited for scaling the mesial aspect of the distal root?

a. Gracey 5/6

b. Gracey 7/8

c. Gracey 13/14

d. Gracey 15/16

e. Gracey 17/18

Gracey 15/16

Which is formed when a triangular ridge from a facial cusp tip joins a triangular ridge from a lingual cusp tip?

a. developmental groove

b. fissure

c. oblique ridge

d. transverse ridge

transverse ridge

To be able to provide informed consent, each of the following must be communicated to the patient prior to exposing dental radiographs EXCEPT--

a. Benefits expected from the radiographic exam.

b. Documentation of satisfactory inspections of the radiographic equipment.

c. Possible risks to health associated with not having the radiographic exam.

d. Possible risks to health from the radiographic exam.

documentation of satisfactory inspections of the radiographic equipment

The quality of a sealant is most effectively examined with--

an explorer

articulating paper

mouth mirror

ultraviolet lighting

an explorer

Which is likely to be the most effective strategy to employ for calming a patient who has entered the dental office obviously very anxious and fearful?

a. Ask the patient to discuss their source of concern

b. Move the patient into the operatory and begin tx quickly

c. Tell the patient not to be afraid

d. Tell the patient to relax and leave everything in your hands

ask the pt to discuss their source of concern

Interproximal overhanging amalgam restorations--

a. act primarily as a plaque retentive element

b. are caused by over contouring the restoration

c. are considered a primary etiologic factor in periodontitis

d. must not be altered during the initial phase of perio tx

act primarily as a plaque retentive element

Which is considered the dental hygiene standard of care?

a. Guidelines established by the insurance carrier.

b. The accepted measure of care conforming to established norms.

c. The level of care established by the practice.

d. The level of care expected by the patient.

accepted measure of care conforming to established norms

Soon after administration of a local anesthetic, the patient exhibits hives and intense itching. The patient is experiencing a/an--

a. allergic reaction

b. hematoma

c. overdose

d. psychosomatic reaction

allergic reaction

A 13-yr old patient has facially-inclined maxillary incisors. This indicates which classification of malocclusion?

a. I

b. II, Division I

c. II, Division II

d. III

II, Division I

Air is used to deflect the free gingival margin in order to detect--

a. root fracture

b. smooth root surfaces

c. subgingival calc

d. supragingival calc

subgingival calc

A concentration of fluoride in the community water that offers the minimal risk of fluorosis while still providing max protection from caries is--

a. 0.5 ppm

b. 0.7 ppm

c. 0.17 ppm

d. 0.05 ppm

0.7 ppm

A young patient has the night time habit of thumb sucking. The hygienist will work with this patient to break the habit. Which will have the strongest influence on this child?

a. Child's desire to quit

b. Hygienist's ability to motivate the child

c. Hygienist's attitude

d. Parent's cooperation and understanding

Child's desire to quit

Radiolucencies which can be seen on a maxillary incisor radiograph include each of the following EXCEPT--

a. Maxillary sinus

b. Median palatine suture

c. Nasal fossa

d. Nasopalatine foramen

maxillary sinus

When the inflammatory process destroys the supporting alveolar bone first, and then spreads laterally to the alveolar bone proper (lamina dura), which type of bone loss and pockets will occur?

a. Horizontal/infrabony

b. Horizontal/suprabony

c. Vertical/infrabony

d. Vertical/suprabony

Horizontal/suprabony

Which describes a Gracey curet?

a. Has a blade angulated 90-100 degrees to the shank

b. Has a sharp point that can traumatize tissue

c. Has one lateral cutting edge

d. Is considered a universal curet

has one lateral cutting edge

The average loss of attachment is 2.5mm is a statement of--

a. distribution

b. extent

c. prevalence

d. severity

extent

Which condition most significantly influences the progression of periodontal disease?

a. atherosclerosis

b. diabetes mellitus

c. lupus erythematosus

d. pregnancy

diabetes mellitus

Which is the extraoral projection used to evaluate the maxillary sinuses?

a. lateral cephalometric

b. reverse town

c. submentovertex

d. water

lateral cephalometric

Which is the water/powder ratio of dental stone?

-25 ml/100 grams

-30 ml/100 grams

-50 ml/100 grams

-75 ml/100 grams

30 ml/100 grams

Which is a protective protein surrounding viruses?

a. capsid

b. cell membrane

c. cell wall

d. core

capsid

Which of the following types of immunoglobulins does NOT cross the barrier between mother and infant in the womb?

IgA

IgM

IgD

IgE

IgA

(jumps Across)

Which of the following types of immunoglobulins is located on the surface of most B-lymphocytes?

IgA

IgM

IgD

IgE

IgD

Which of the following types of immunoglobulins is most responsible for promoting allergic reactions?

-IgA

-IgM

-IgD

-IgE

IgE

(like an Ester)

What percentage of alcohol is required to be considered a disinfectant?

at least 75%

Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune disease?

-Myasthenia gravis

-Graves' disease

-Alzheimer's disease

-Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

Alzheimer's

T-cell activation requires a/an ________________ cell.

-Activation

-Accessory

-Memory

-Helper

Accessory

Which select group of antihypertensive medications has the mechanism of action that involves blocking the conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II?

-Beta blockers

-Thiazides

-ACEIs

-Angiotensin receptor blockers

-Calcium-channel blockers

ACEIs

What term describes a molecule that is not immunogenic by itself, but can react with a specific antibody?

-Complement

-Hapten

-Interleukin

-Immunoglobulin

Hapten

The most external layer of alveolar bone is the:

A. Spongy bone

B. Spicule bone

C. Cortical bone

D. Woven bone

E. Cribriform plate

Cortical bone

The glenoid fossa is an oval cavity or a depression in the:

a. maxilla, just anterior to the malar process

b. temporal bone, just anterior to the auditory canal

c. mandible, just posterior to the internal oblique ridge

d. occipital bone, just posterior to the inferior nasal conchae

temporal bone, just anterior to the auditory canal

The erupted dentition of a normally developed 7- year-old child usually consists of:

A. 8 primary and 8 permanent teeth

B. 10 primary and 10 permanent teeth

C. 18 primary and 6 permanent teeth

D. 20 primary teeth

18 primary and 6 permanent teeth

A common oral manifestation of Addison's disease is:

a. Melanosis

b. Xerostomia

c. Glossodynia

d. Cotton-wool bone

Melanosis

An individual with mitral regurgitation will most likely suffer from which of the following?

a. decreased heart rate

b. fluid congestion in the lungs

c. peripheral edema

d. ventricular arrhythmias

fluid congestion in the lungs

The largest and longest cusp in posterior teeth is the:

a. mesiolingual cusp of a max first molar

b. distolingual cusp of a max first molar

c. mesiofacial cusp of a mand first molar

d. distofacial cusp of a mand first molar

mesiolingual cusp of a max first molar

Which of the following teeth in the permanent dentition normally have trifurcations?

a. mand molars only

b. mand second premolars

c. mand molars AND max first premolars

d. max molars AND max first premolars

e. max first and second molars AND some max third molars

max first and second molars AND some max third molars

An individual with Addison's disease is most likely to experience which of the following?

a. decreased ACTH levels

b. hypoglycemia

c. water retention

d. weight gain

hypoglycemia

Dry heat destroys organisms primarily by:

a. lysis

b. oxidation

c. dissolving of cell membranes

d. denaturation of proteins

denaturation of proteins

Which of the following premolars frequently has only one pulp horn?

a. Max 1st premolar

b. Mand 1st premolar

c. Max 2nd premolar

d. Mand 2nd premolar

Mand 1st premolar

In what cell phase is the cell highly active and growing?

a. Anaphase

b. Interphase

c. Metaphase

d. Prophase

Interphase

Where is smooth muscle found in the body?

a. Heart

b. Attached to bone

c. Walls of hollow organs

d. Discs between the vertebrae

Walls of hollow organs

Which of the following describes a wedge-shaped biomechanical loss that often occurs on the cervical portion of the max right canine and premolars?

a. Abrasion

b. Abfraction

c. Caries

d. Erosion

Abfraction

Which tooth does not have a transverse ridge?

a. Max canine

b. Max 1st premolar

c. Max 1st molar

d. Mand 1st molar

Max canine

Which tooth from the permanent dentition erupts first?

a. #5

b. #11

c. #20

d. #22

#22 (mandib. canine- erupts around age 9-10 yrs)

The nasal septum is formed by:

a. vomer and perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone

b. greater wing of the sphenoid bone

c. mandible and temporal bones

d. occipital and parietal bones

the vomer and perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone

The junction of three surfaces on the crown of a tooth is referred to as:

A. Line angle

B. Point angle

C. Occlusal surface

D. Incisal edge

Point angle

During which stage of tooth development can macrodontia and microdontia occur?

a. Bud stage

b. Cap stage

c. Bell stage

d. Post development stage

Bell stage

Anorexics are commonly deficient in what mineral?

A. Iron

B. Zinc

C. Chromium

D. Magnesium

Zinc

The two main inorganic minerals found in supragingival calculus are:

A. Magnesium and sodium chloride

B. Sodium and potassium phosphate

C. Calcium carbonate and zinc oxide

D. Calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate

Calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate

Bacterial organisms stain differently on the basis of:

a. thickness of the slime layer

b. thickness of the glycocalyx

c. permeability of their cell walls

d. thickness of the plaque biofilm

permeability of their cell walls

On a radiograph, a radiolucent pear-shaped lesion is found distal to a maxillary right lateral incisor causing divergence of the lateral and canine roots. What is this radiolucency?

a. odontogenic keratocyst

b. ameloblastoma

c. globulomaxillary cyst

d. giant cell tumor

globulomaxillary cyst

During probing, furcation involvement is detected on tooth #30; the probe enters into the furcation area and penetrates through to the opposite side. There is no recession present. What class of furcation is this?

a. Class I

b. Class II

c. Class III

d. Class IV

Class III

A possible result of vitamin D deficiency is:

a. Night blindness

b. Enamel hypoplasia

c. Glossitis

d. Oral leukoplakia

Enamel hypoplasia

Which of the following species of Streptococcus is predominantly found on hard tissues or teeth?

a. Streptococcus mutans

b. Streptococcus oralis

c. Streptococcus salivarius

d. Streptococcus mitis

Streptococcus mutans

Immunity acquired by vaccination with toxoid is referred to as:

a. artificially acquired passive

b. artificially acquired active

c. naturally acquired passive

d. naturally acquired active

artificially acquired passive

The maximum permissible dose for occupationally exposed workers is annually:

a. 0.5 mSv

b. 5 mSv

c. 50 mSv

d. 500 mSv

50 mSv

Which organization gives individuals the right to keep their group health insurance benefits?

a. COBRA

b. OSHA

c. HIPAA

d. CDC

COBRA

What is the classification of a furcation with moderate bone loss, where a Nabers probe can enter the furcation, but cannot pass through the roots?

a. Class I

b. Class II

c. Class III

d. Class IV

Class II

Which of the following is NOT a compound used to fluoridate water?

a. Sodium fluorosilicate

b. Stannous fluoride

c. Hydrofluorosilicic acid

d. Sodium fluoride

Stannous fluoride

Which area-specific Gracey curet is used to scale direct linguals and facials of posterior teeth?

a. Gracey 1/2

b. Gracey 7/8

c. Gracey 15/16

d. Gracey 17/18

Gracey 7/8

There is a 3mm pocket on the direct lingual of tooth #30. There is also 4mm recession on the direct lingual. What is the clinical attachment level for tooth #30?

7mm

Enlargement due to an increase in cell size without changes in numbers is called:

a. Hyperplasia

b. Neoplasia

c. Hypertrophy

d. Anaplasia

hypertrophy

A short scale of contrast will result from more kVp and mA. A long scale of contrast will result from less kVp and mA.

a. Both statements are true.

b. Both statements are false.

c. The first statement is true, the second statement is false.

d. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.

Both statements are false.

X-ray developer is made up of what chemicals?

a. Sodium thiosulfate

b. Silver halide (bromide)

c. Elon and hydroquinone

d. Potassium alum

Elon and hydroquinone

Which papillae do not contain taste buds?

a. Fungiform

b. Filiform

c. Circumvallate

d. Foliate

Filiform

Which of the following muscles protrude the mandible?

a. Masseter

b. Temporalis

c. Lateral pterygoid

d. Medial pterygoid

Lateral pterygoid

Which of the following is NOT a bacterium associated with periodontal disease?

a. Campylobacter rectus

b. Streptococcus mutans

c. Prevotella intermedia

d. Porphyromonas gingivalis

Streptococcus mutans (associated with CARIES, NOT PERIO disease)

Which biostatistics sample gives us an equal chance of appearing and reduces the chance of bias?

a. random

b. judgment

c. systematic

d. convenience

random

Which vein of the head and neck is formed by the drainage of venous blood from the pterygoid plexus?

a. lingual vein

b. facial vein

c. common facial vein

d. maxillary vein

maxillary vein

(pterygoid plexus can be punctured during an injection causing a hematoma)

Ulcers on attached gingiva can be a sign of:

a. Candida albicans

b. Measles

c. Herpes

d. Addison's disease

Herpes

Which condition presents with a decreased caries risk?

a. Down syndrome

b. Drug addict

c. Cancer

d. Xerostomia

Down syndrome

Your patient has a spinal cord injury that left them with minimal functioning ability on their own. They will need help with their oral care because they only have partial shoulder and partial elbow mobility. What part of their spine was injured?

a. T1

b. C-5

c. C-7

d. C-4

C-5

Which is NOT an additive that will modify the working time of gypsum products?

a. Adding borax

b. Mixing with warm water

c. Adding sodium chloride

d. Adding potassium sulfate

Adding sodium chloride

Which cement needs to be mixed on a cool glass slab?

a. Polycarboxylate cement

b. Glass ionomer cement

c. Zinc phosphate cement

d. Zinc-oxide/eugenol cement

Zinc phosphate cement

Which principal of the code of ethics deals with practitioner and means "do no harm"?

a. nonmaleficence

b. veracity

c. justice

d. confidentiality

nonmaleficence

Which of the following is a cell of the PDL that is responsible for collagen synthesis and degradation?

a. cementoblasts

b. fibroblasts

c. osteoblasts

d. osteoclasts

fibroblasts

Which is NOT a drug used to treat TB?

a. Rifampin

b. Ethambutol

c. Nizoral

d. Isoniazid

Nizoral (for dandruff)

Which immunoglobulin class is the main one found in secretions and saliva?

a. IgE

b. IgM

c. IgG

d. IgA

IgA

Which microorganism is associated with deep carious lesions?

a. Actinomyces

b. Lactobacillus

c. Clostridium tetani

d. Streptococcus mutans

Lactobacillus

When doing an assessment with only a mouth mirror and lightning, you are using what kind of examination method?

a. Type I examination

b. Type II examination

c. Type III examination

d. Type IV examination

Type III examination (an "inspection)

Which of the following conditions does NOT require premed?

Heart shunts, or

Mitral valve prolapse

Mitral valve prolapse

All of the following are related to caries EXCEPT:

a. Actinomyces viscosus

b. Streptococcus mutans

c. Streptococcus mitis

d. Streptococcus sobrinus

Streptococcus mitis (this is associated with endocarditis)

All of the following are used to treat HIV EXCEPT:

a. Carbamazepine

b. Zidovudine

c. Didanosine

d. Zalcitabine

Carbamazepine (used to tx seizures)

What instrument will be used to scale the mesial of the distal root of tooth #19?

a. Gracey 11/12

b. Gracey 13/14

c. Posterior sickle scaler

d. 11/12 Explorer

Gracey 11/12

A deficiency of ascorbic acid is called scurvy. Women taking oral contraceptives may avoid scurvy related problems by eating more fruits and vegetables.

a. The statement is true, but the reason is NOT related.

b. The statement is true, and the reason IS related.

c. The statement is false, and the reason is NOT related.

d. The statement is false, but the reason IS true.

The statement is true, and the reason IS related.

Which of these primary germ cell layers forms tooth enamel?

a. Ectoderm

b. Mesoderm

c. Endoderm

d. Stomodeum

Ectoderm

All of the following muscles are innervated by the hypoglossal nerve EXCEPT:

a. Hyoglossus

b. Styloglossus

c. Genioglossus

d. Palatoglossus

Palatoglossus

Which of the following exacerbates the gag reflex?

a. Diltiazem (Cardizem)

b. HCTZ

c. Furosemide (Lasix)

d. Digitalis (Digoxin)

Digitalis (Digoxin)

All of the following factors increase density EXCEPT:

a. Milliamperage

b. Exposure time

c. Distance

d. kVp

Distance

All of the following are muscles of mastication EXCEPT:

a. Medial pterygoid

b. Masseter

c. Temporalis

d. Buccinator

Buccinator (this is for facial expression)

Which of the following lymph nodes drains the floor of the mouth?

a. Submandibular lymph nodes

b. Submental lymph nodes

c. Superior deep cervical

d. Inferior deep cervical

Submental lymph nodes

Which drug would best treat a MRSA infection?

a. Amoxicillin

b. Clindamycin

c. Vancomycin

d. Cephalexin

Vancomycin

All of the following are liners EXCEPT:

a. Varnish

b. Calcium hydroxide

c. Zinc-oxide/eugenol

d. Zinc phosphate

Zinc phosphate (this is a cement)

Which of the following is an antimicrobial agent that can be found in toothpaste?

a. Sodium pyrophosphate

b. Triclosan

c. Potassium nitrate

d. Strontium chloride

Triclosan