HR Exam 2 Chapters 7-9

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103 Terms

1
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What is reliability?

The consistency of measurement

2
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What is validity?

The accuracy of a measure, or the degree to which an assessment measures what it intends to measure

3
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What are the five types of validity?

Content, criterion-related, predictive, concurrent, and construct

4
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What is content validity?

Test that evaluates how well an instrument measures the relevant parts of the construct it aims to measure

5
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What is criterion-related validity?

The demonstration of a correlation between a predictor and measures of job performance.

6
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How do you know if something has high validity?

The correlation is close to 1, straight line graph, and high correlations between predictor score and job performance

7
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How do you know if something has low validity?

The correlation is close to 0, circular graph, low correlations

8
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What is predictive validity?

Administering a selection procedure to job applicants, and showing that their scores are correlated with their later job performance scores.

9
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What is concurrent validity?

Administering a selection procedure to current employees and showing that their scores are correlated with their current job performance

10
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What is construct validity?

Research evidence that proves the test actually measures the construct it purports to measure, and does not measure unrelated constructs.

11
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What is a construct?

A theoretical concept, theme, or idea based on empirical observations

12
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What is a situational interview?

A structured interview in which the interviewer describes a situation likely to arise on the job, then asks the candidate how they would handle it

13
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What is a behavioral interview?

A structured interview in which the interviewer asks the candidate how they have handled a type of situation in the past

14
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What are the main components of an unstructured interview?

Interviewer has discretion when choosing questions, candidates replies guide the questions that are asked, open-ended questions regarding career goals, low reliability, some questions that are asked may not be valid or legal

15
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What are the main components of a structured interview?

Established set of questions that are related to job requirements and relevant subjects, more valid and reliable results.

16
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What are some advantages of interviewing?

Assess interpersonal and communication skills, gives insight to personalities , provides a means to check the accuracy of information provided in the resume

17
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What are some disadvantages of interviewing?

Can be biased and low on reliability and validity, costly, and may put an organization at risk for discrimination complaints

18
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What are the advantages for personality tests?

Easy, quick, cheap, and lower adverse impact

19
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What are the disadvantages for personality tests?

Relatively low validity, the risk of faking

20
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What is an overt integrity test?

A written test that estimates job applicants’ honesty by asking them what they think or feel about theft or punishment of unethical behaviors

21
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What is a personality oriented test?

Assess personality characteristics that have been shown to relate to counterproductive work behavior, assesses dependability, social conformity, thrill seeking, and conscientiousness

22
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What are the advantages and disadvantages of personality-oriented tests?

Advantages: Sufficient validity, passes legal muster, low adverse impact.

Disadvantages: Faking issues

23
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What is the Cognitive Ability Test (GSAT)?

A measure of the ability to perceive, process, and evaluate info and ideas

24
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What is Emotional Intelligence (EI)?

One’s ability to recognize & appraise emotions in oneself and others and behave accordingly

25
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What are two common types of assessment center exercises?

Role-play and in-basket or inbox

26
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What is role-play?

Candidates might be asked to handle a situation with an actor

27
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What is in-basket or inbox?

Candidate is told to provide responses to a series of emails that they have received

28
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What are Ban-the-Box laws?

Initial job applications can only ask for affirmation of good character. Criminal history inquiries may only be made after an initial interview or conditional job offer.

29
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What are the five steps in the selecition process?

1.) screening the applicants & resumes

2.) Testing & reviewing work samples

3.) Interviewing candidates

4.) Checking references & background

5.) Making a selection

30
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What are the six selection procedure characteristics?

Job relatedness, opportunity to perform, interpersonal treatment, feedback timeliness, and consistency

31
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What is a needs assessment?

An evaluation of the organization, the jobs, and the employees to determine where and what kind of training is most needed

32
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What is the goal setting theory?

Setting specific, difficult, yet achievable goals for people will lead to the highest performance

33
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What is the expectancy theory?

If a person sees their efforts will lead to greater performance, and if they believe that performance will lead to an outcome that they value, they will be more motivated

34
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What is the equation for motivation?

expectancy*instrumentality*valence= motivation

35
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What is instrumentality?

The belief that there is a connection between an activity and the goal

36
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What is valence?

The degree to which rewards are valued

37
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According to Daniel Turban, what is the most important factor in regards to career success?

Your behavior, not necessarily your personality

38
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What is mindfulness training?

Training that teaches a person to be present in the moment and to observe things around them in a nonjudgmental way

39
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What is gamification?

A training that is made into a game among employees in terms of scores on their training performance

40
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What is a company real-life example of gamification?

Starbucks’ loyalty app that allows users to collect stars

41
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What is onboarding?

The process of helping new employees adjust to their new organizations by sharing the knowledge, skills, attitudes, and cultures required to be successful

42
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What are the four levels depicted in Kirkpatrick’s training evaluation model?

Reaction, learning, behavior, and results

43
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What is the definition of reaction in terms of Kirkpatrick’s model?

Measuring the participants initial reaction to gain an understanding of the training program along with insights into material quality

44
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What is the definition of learning in terms of Kirkpatrick’s model?

Measure how much information was effectively absorbed during the training and map it to the program learning objectives

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What is the definition of behavior in terms of Kirkpatrick’s model?

Measure how the training has influenced the behavior of the participants, and evaluate how they apply the information to the job

46
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What is the definition of results in terms of Kirkpatrick’s model?

Measure and analyze the impact the training has had at the business level, and tie it to the individual program

47
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What is career management?

The continual process of setting career-related goals and planning a route to achieve those goals

48
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What is the classical view of performance appraisals?

They are utilized as a measurement tool

49
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How are performance appraisals seen today?

As a motivational tool

50
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What are the three characteristics of effective performance appraisal systems?

Adequate notice, fair hearing, and judgements based on evidence

51
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What is adequate notice?

The idea that employees should be evaluated using criteria and standards that were clearly communicated to them in advance

52
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What is fair hearing?

A formal review meeting explaining to the employee why and how a particular rating was given

53
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What are judgements based on evidence?

Principle that performance standards are administered consistently across all employees, and that the ratings are, to the degree possible, free from personal biases and prejudice

54
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What are absolute ratings?

A comparison of employees performance with predetermined criteria

55
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What scales are classified as absolute ratings?

Graphic rating scale, behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS), and behavioral observation scale

56
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What are relative ratings?

Comparisons of each employee’s performance to that of coworkers

57
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What ranking systems are classified as relative ratings?

Straight ratings, paired comparisons, and forced distributions

58
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What are qualitative assessments?

Tests that measure employees on subjective criteria that cannot be precisely measured

59
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What is a method that is classified as a qualitative assessment?

Critical incident method: managers identify examples of exceptionally high and low incidents of performance, and document them in narrative form

60
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What is 360-degree feedback?

Multiple rater systems, which present employees with feedback from different stakeholders and have the potential to provide useful information

61
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What are some limitations of team-level appraisals

Can lead to higher employee turnover due to the free-rider effect, some may feel uncomfortable with the fact that other members’ performance influences their pay

62
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What are focal data reviews?

Performance reviews that take place on the same date for all employees

63
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What are anniversary reviews?

Performance reviews in which an employee is rated on the anniversary of their start date

64
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What factors lead to rating errors?

Leniency, severity error, and central tendency error

65
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What is leniency?

Assignment of high rating to most employees

66
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What is severity error?

Assignment of low rating to most employees

67
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What is central tendency error?

Assigning a middle rating to most employees

68
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What is the positive halo effect?

Occurs when a rater generalizes an employee’s good or bad behavior on one aspect of the job to all aspects of the job

69
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What is the first-impression effect?

An initial favorable or unfavorable judgement about an employee that distorts the employee’s actual performance

70
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What is feedback culture?

Both employees and managers feel comfortable giving and receiving feedback

71
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What are Performance Improvement Plans (PIPs) intended to do?

Support employee growth and development, not intended as a precursor for termination unless significant improvement is not made during the PIP period

72
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What is the equation for turnover rate?

TR = (# of employee’s who resigned / total # of employees) * 100

73
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What is the equation for retention rate?

Retention rate = (# of employees @ the end of the year / # of employees @ the beginning of the year) * 100

74
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What is the unfolding model of turnover?

Model that recognizes that employees often leave without lining up a new job, and that turnover is often a result of shocks to the system

75
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What is the job embeddedness model?

The links, fit, and losses that keep people in their current organizations

76
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What is voluntary turnover?

A departure initiated by an employee

77
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What is involuntary turnover?

An employee terminated by the organizations against their own wishes

78
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(T/F) Turnover rate is calculated on a monthly basis.

True

79
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(T/F) Retention rate is calculated on a monthly basis.

False, it is annually based

80
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What are the four turnover predictors?

Job satisfaction, work engagement, impact on stress, and impact of trust-based relationships with employees

81
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What kind of employee is LeBron James?

Boomerang employee

82
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What is progressive discipline, and what are the steps?

The process of using increasingly severe steps to correct a performance problem. Verbal warning → written warning → suspension → termination

83
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What are pulse surveys?

Short, frequent surveys sent to employees to gain feedback on the company

84
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What are the main components of stay interviews?

Less formal, proactive, facilitated by direct manager

85
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What are the main components of exit interviews?

Formal and reactive

86
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What similar components do stay and exit interviews share?

Structured, focused, one-on-one conversations, and active listening

87
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_____ is a selection interview in which the interviewer has great discretion in choosing questions to ask each candidate.

Unstructured interview

88
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Goal setting theory suggests that motivation is fostered when employees are given specific and difficult goals rather than no goals, easy goals, or “do your best” goals (T/F)

True

89
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In Kirkpatrick’s model of training outcomes, _____ criteria refers to actual behavior on the job that is an outcome of training.

Behavior

90
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In performance appraisals, ____ involves having the rater rank order all employees from best to worst.

Straight rankings

91
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(T/F) Unlike anniversary reviews, focal date review allows reviews to be spread out so that the performance review does not become a significant burden on employees and managers.

False, focal date reviews take place on the same date for all employees

92
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Retention rate is equal to the # of employees at the end of the year divided by # of employees at the beginning of the year multiplied by 100.

True

93
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_____ suggests that employers cannot fire employees who refuse to participate in illegal or criminal activities on behalf of the employer.

Public policy exception

94
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What is employment at will?

When an organization has the right to terminate the employment of anyone at any time, and employees have the right to quit at any time

95
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What are the four exceptions to employment at will?

Implied contract, public policy exception, statutory exception, and covenant of good faith

96
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What is an implied contract?

Policies described in an employee handbook may be considered implied contracts. In others, the handbook is just seen as a set of guidelines

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What are public policy exceptions?

Employers cannot fire employees who refuse to participate in illegal or criminal activities on behalf of the employer (MI)

98
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What is a Statutory exception?

Federal and state laws that prohibit discrimination based on specific actions or protected characteristics (title VII)

99
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What is covenant of good faith?

It is illegal to dismiss an employee in a malicious way

100
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What is job sharing?

One full time job may be divided between multiple part time workers (utilized by unions to prevent layoffs)